Final review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for WBCs in the urine? What could this indicate?

A

pyuria. indicates infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What color indicates hematuria? What color will the supernatent be once the urine is centrifuged?

A

reddish-brown. Supernatent is clean, sediment is reddish-brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is another term for FUS? What does this indicate?

A

FLUTDz- feline lower urinary tract disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which pad on the reagent strip could be positive in a diabetic patient?

A

glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which collection method will yield the most bacteria? the least?

A

free catch= most bacteria

cystocentesis= least bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What useful information is determined from passing a catheter? What complications could there be from catheterization?

A

patency of the urethra. increased risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

urine should be read within _____ minutes or kept in the refrigerator for _____ hours.

A

30-60 minutes

6-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does clear urine indicate?

A

dilute urine. indicates polydipsia, diabetes, or renal dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does turbidity refer to?

A

cloudiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What could a cloudy urine sample indicate?

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the average urine specific gravity measure of dogs and cats? What instrument is used?

A

use refractometer.
dogs= 1.025
cats= 1.030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what could a sweet smell to the urine indicate?

A

ketones, bacteria, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What could alkaline urine indicate?

A

dietary factors- herbivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what could high protein indicate?

A

proteinuria

UTI, hematuria, glomerular dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what other conditions (besides diabetes) could cause in increase in glucose?

A

transient hyperglycemia=stress-related, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what could cause an increase in ketones?

A

lactation, starvation, malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is urobilinogen useful in diagnostics for animals?

A

no, not reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can you tell if a sample is truly hematuria?

A

once centrifuged, the supernatant will be clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what could WBCs in the urine be confused with?

A

renal tubular epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are urinary casts made of?

A

protein and mucoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where do granular casts come from?

A

younger casts that have recently formed and haven’t broken down yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the most common type of casts in cats?

A

fatty cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what could fatty casts indicate in dogs?

A

renal dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which is the largest epithelial cell?

A

squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
where do transitional epithelial cells come from?
renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
26
how are crystals recorded?
occasional, moderate, many, or #/LPF
27
what is the most common type of crystal in dogs and cats?
struvite
28
what do cystine crystals look like?
"stop signs," hexagons, normally seen in layers
29
in which breed will ammonium urates occur?
dalmations and english bulldogs
30
which crystal is common in horses, rabbits, guinea pigs, and goats?
calcium carbonate
31
which crystal indicates severe liver dz?
leucine and/or tyrosine
32
parasites/eggs that could be seen in urine
microfilaria (heartworm), capillaria plica (bladder worm), giant kidney worm
33
which stains can be used for urinalysis?
best choice= Sterheimer-Malbin (sedi-stain) or NMB (not as common)
34
neutrophils that are hypersegmented, condensed nucleus, loss of nuclear membrane, fragmented nucleus
degenerative neutrophil
35
technique using 21-25 g needle and 3-12 ml syringe
FNA (fine needle aspirate
36
term used to describe cancer cells that divide rapidly and bear little to no resemblance to normal cells
anaplasia
37
round with round to oval nucleus, may react to fluid and change shape. found in the thorax. resembles macrophages
mesothelial cells
38
technique used for ear cytology
swab
39
inflammation with mast cells, plasma cells, lymphocytes may be present
eosinophilic
40
oval cell with odd-shaped nucleus, basophils, cytoplasm, perinuclear clear zone
plasma cell
41
technique used to by exposing a piece of tissue to a slide
impression
42
slide preparation used to expel content onto the middle of the slide
linear smear
43
abnormal increase in the number of cells
hyperplasia
44
stain that gives excellent nuclear detail
new methylene blue (NMB)
45
inflammation with 85% neutrophis
purulent
46
stain not good for mast cell, bone marrow and lymph node biopsies
Romanowsky
47
1/3 sample in middle, 1/3 squash, 1/3 line smear
combination
48
increase of the size of an organ or in a select area of the same tissue
hypertrophy
49
inflammation with few neutrophils
granulomatous
50
change in the type of adult cells in a tissue to a form that is abnormal for that tissue
metaplasia
51
inflammation with 75% neutrophils
pyogranulous
52
the pathological process that results in the formation and growth of a tumor. can be benign or malignant
neoplasia
53
slide preparation using needle to drag sample at various lengths and directions
starfish
54
tissue biopsy obtained with a scalpel
wedge biopsy
55
opposite of malignant
benign
56
most commonly used stain in clinics
Diff-quik
57
round to oval, numerous blue to purple cytoplasmic granules containing histamine and heparin
mast cell
58
tissue biopsy obtained with a key tool
punch biopsy
59
abnormal development in size, shape and organization of adult cells
dysplagia
60
technique used by obtaining cells with a scalpel blade
skin scrape
61
list the four vaginal epithelial cells
basal cells, parabasal, intermediate, superficial
62
list the four stages of the estrous cycle
proestrus, estrus, diestrus, anestrus
63
what is the average age of occurrence of vaginal neoplasias?
10 years
64
what is the most common form of reproductive neoplasia?
mammary neoplasia
65
vaginitis occurs regardless of___, ____, ______.
age, breed, reproductive status
66
these are the oldest vaginal epithelial cells and may or may not have a nucleus
superficial cells
67
the youngest vaginal epithelial cells
basal cells
68
during which stage of estrous will a bitch stand to be bred?
estrus
69
why do we perform vaginal cytology?
determine stage of estrous, evaluate vaginal dz
70
why do we perform a semen collection?
prelude to artificial insemination, assess potential fertility issues
71
what is the color of normal ejaculate?
milky and moderately viscous
72
what would serous, greenish, or grayish ejaculate indicate?
inflammation or infection
73
normal semen should be ___% motile
70%
74
what stain is the most commonly used stain for sperm morphology?
nigrosin-eosin stain
75
list 5 abnormalities of sperm
``` mishapen head double-headed detached head bent tail/midpiece coiled tail ```
76
where would you obtain interstitial cells from and by what method?
obtained from testicle | FNA (fine needle aspirate)
77
sertoli cell tumors are always _____.
benign
78
proestrus
immediately precedes estrus - increase in estrogen - attractive to male but will not stand for breeding
79
estrus
females will seek out males and stand for them prior to breeding
80
diestrus
stage where corpora lutea are present (functional and secrete increased amounts of progesterone) -increased progesterone
81
anestrus
prolonged period of sexual rest | -length- approx 70-80 days depending on whether or not bitch is pregnant
82
stain used for vaginal cytology
Diff-quik
83
how do you place vaginal cytology sample on the slide?
rolling motion (not sliding or rubbing)
84
how do you stain a vaginal cytology sample?
diff-quik treat like blood smear 10-10-15
85
predominant cell type in proestrus sample?
RBCs (normal in large numbers)
86
predominant cell type in estrus sample
90% superficial cells (fully cornified-no nucleus)
87
predominant cell type in diestrus
superficial cells decrease by 20% - looks similar to proestrus - reappearance of intermediate/parabasal cells
88
dogs ovulate _______ days prior to the onset of diestrus
5-7 days
89
predominant cell of anestrus sample
parabasal and intermediate cells | -superficial cells are NOT presentq
90
clinical signs of vaginitis
mucoid (purulent) discharge, pollakuria (frequent urination), licking vulva
91
pyometra and metritis
large numbers of degenerative neutrophils and bacteria
92
vaginal neoplasia
second most common form of reproductive neoplasia, following mammary neoplasia
93
semen collection methods
- teaser female - artificial vagina - digital manipulation - electroejaculation
94
what objective do you observe sperm with?
40x
95
sperm concentration
typically performed on a hemacytometer- tedious or spectrophotometer-measures the amount of light absorbed by a sample
96
an important part of any breeding soundness exam is an -__________________.
evaluation of sperm morphology
97
live sperm appear _____ with nigrosin-eosin stain
white dead= gray/pinkish
98
less than ____% of spermatozoa are abnormal in a normal animal
10-20%
99
normal cells seen in testicle tissue sample (FNA)
spermatozoa, sertoli cells, interstitial cells, blood (contamination from FNA)
100
sertoli cell tumors
usually always benign - occurs in older dogs and cryptorchid dogs - firmest of the canine testicular tumors - typically nodular - white/gray in color
101
seminomas
cancerous - cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor - semi-firm with a homogenous glistening gray/white appearance on cut surface (looks fatty)
102
interstitial cell tumors
cancerous - small, yellow to brown, soft - metastasis is extremely rare- thought to be the least likely of the testicular tumors to metastisize
103
effusion
escape of fluid into a body part
104
pleural effusion
fluid effusion in the chest/thoracic cavity | -CS- elbows abducted away from chest, extension of head and neck
105
abdominal effusion
fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity | -CS- abdominal distension
106
thoracocentesis
for pleural effusions - sternal/standing - 18-20 g over-the-needle catheter - syringe - 3-way stop-cock
107
abdominocentesis
for abdominal effusions - sternal or standing - 1-2 cm caudal to umbilicus
108
when sending effusion samples to lab, it is best to send a ______ and _______ slide, and ______ tube.
stained and unstained and EDTA tube
109
best stain for effusion samples
Diff-quik
110
other stains that can be used for effusion samples
- Wright's - New Methylene Blue - Papanicolaou - Gram stain
111
normally there is only enough fluid within the thoracic and abdminal cavities to __________________________.
lubricate the surface of organs/cavity wall
112
normal fluid
clear to slightly turbid, colorless to straw, TP=less than 2.5 g/dl, SG=less than 1.015, TNCC= 2000-6000/ul
113
predominant cell type in effusions
neutrophils (degenerative and non-degenerative)
114
toxic neutrophils
develop in the marrow in response to inflammation, frothy cytoplasm, and vacuoles
115
mesothelial cells
line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces
116
macrophages
single oval to bean-shaped nucleus, nuclear chromatin is lacy, vacuoles in cytoplasm, may be confused with mesothelial cells
117
basket cells
smudge cell/ruptured nucleated cell, chromatin spreads out and stains eosinophilic
118
fluid accumulation within body cavities can be classified as either _____, ______, or ______.
transudate, modified transudate, and exudate
119
transudate
(hint- less than) typically large amount non-inflammatory origin -from physiological problem ascetic effusions (ascites)
120
transudates can be due to ________.
- low albumin in blood (hypoalbuminemia)- renal glomerular dz, hepatic insufficiency - masses- neoplasia - uroperitoneum (urine in abdomen) - secondary due to CHF
121
parameters of transudates
-colorless -clear -SG= <1500 cells/ul TNCC= 3 g/dl
122
modified transudates
(hint- variable/range) occurs as a result of fluid leaking from lymphatic system -least useful from a diagnostic point due to their variability
123
modified transudates can be due to ________.
- FIP- abdominal and thoracic effusions, fluid high in protein - chylous effusion - lymphatic fluid - cardiovascular dz- one of most common causes in dogs and cats - neoplastic dz - ruptured bladder (uroperitoneum)
124
parameters of mod. transudates
``` variable amt of fluid -color- variable -turbidity- usually clear (amber, white, red, milky white, yellow) -SG- variable -TP= 2.5-7.5 g/dl (high) TNCC=1000-7000/ul -coagulation is possible ```
125
exudates
(hint- greater than) | occurs most commonly due to inflammation
126
predominant cell type in inflammation
degenerative neutrophils
127
exudates can be due to _______.
- inflammation - infection (bacteria) - necrosis
128
septic infection (exudates)
denotes the presence of bacteria, mostly degenerative neutrophils
129
nonseptic infection (exudates)
denotes absence of bacteria, predominant cell is variable
130
parameters of exudate
``` variable amt of fluid -color-amber to white to red -turbidity- turbid (cloudy) -SG= >1.018 -TP= >3 g/dl TNCC= >5000-7000/ul ```
131
peritonitis
inflammation of peritoneal/abdominal cavity
132
pleuritis
inflammation of pleural/thoracic cavity
133
causes of infectious peritonitis/pleuritis
- bacterial infx - fungal, protozoal - viral- FIP - neoplasia
134
fusobacterium
anaerobic gram (-), normal flora in mouth, causitive agent for infected dog/cat bite wounds
135
FIP
Feline Infectious Peritonitis - modified transudate, exudate - occurs in cats of all ages - coronovirus - mortality is 100% - fluid in abdomen and/or thorax
136
FIP parameters
- odorless - straw/golden color - turbidity- sticky (tenacious), may contain flecks of fibrin - fluid will foam when shaken
137
wet FIP
peritoneal and pleural effusions
138
dry FIP
pyogranulomatous inflammation with neutrophils
139
uroperitoneum
urine in abdomen/peritoneal cavity - causes- ruptured badder, ureters, urethra - BUN and CREAT will be high - bacteria may or may not be present - will sometimes see crystals
140
effusions secondary to cardiovascular dz
fluid is yellow to milky white | -predominant cell type is lymphocytes
141
cats develop pericardial effusions 28% of the time due to _____, and 17% of the time due to ____.
CHF, FIP
142
chylous effusions
``` contain chyle (lipoproteins from intestines, travels through lymph system) -could be due to obstruction of lymphatic system (possible neoplasia) ```
143
parameters of chyous effusions
-odorless -color- varies, milky white TNCC- neutrophils/macrophages are predominant
144
causes for chylous effusions
- ruptured thoracic duct (very rare) - commonly due to cardiovascular dz or lymphoma - trauma
145
pseudochylous effusion
milky white but does not contain chyle - milky white color due to cellular debris - clear upon centrifugation - common in human medicine, RARE in veterinary medicine
146
stain used for histological evaluations
Hematoxin/eosin stain (for tissue samples)
147
stain commonly used in human gynecological exams (pap smear)
Papanicolaou stain | -good nuclear detail
148
Epithelial cell tumors
AKA: carcinoma - large cells with cellular variation and change in nuclei - cellularity- usually high - clumps/clusters
149
mesenchymal tumors
AKA: sarcoma -shape- spindle to stellate (star-shaped) cellularity- usually low no clumps/clusters
150
Discrete round cell tumor
AKA: round cell tumors - shape- round - cellularity- usually high - no clumps/clusters