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Clin Lab 3 > Final review > Flashcards

Final review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for WBCs in the urine? What could this indicate?

A

pyuria. indicates infection

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2
Q

What color indicates hematuria? What color will the supernatent be once the urine is centrifuged?

A

reddish-brown. Supernatent is clean, sediment is reddish-brown

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3
Q

What is another term for FUS? What does this indicate?

A

FLUTDz- feline lower urinary tract disease

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4
Q

Which pad on the reagent strip could be positive in a diabetic patient?

A

glucose

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5
Q

Which collection method will yield the most bacteria? the least?

A

free catch= most bacteria

cystocentesis= least bacteria

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6
Q

What useful information is determined from passing a catheter? What complications could there be from catheterization?

A

patency of the urethra. increased risk of infection

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7
Q

urine should be read within _____ minutes or kept in the refrigerator for _____ hours.

A

30-60 minutes

6-12 hours

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8
Q

what does clear urine indicate?

A

dilute urine. indicates polydipsia, diabetes, or renal dz

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9
Q

what does turbidity refer to?

A

cloudiness

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10
Q

What could a cloudy urine sample indicate?

A

bacteria

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11
Q

What is the average urine specific gravity measure of dogs and cats? What instrument is used?

A

use refractometer.
dogs= 1.025
cats= 1.030

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12
Q

what could a sweet smell to the urine indicate?

A

ketones, bacteria, diabetes

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13
Q

What could alkaline urine indicate?

A

dietary factors- herbivores

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14
Q

what could high protein indicate?

A

proteinuria

UTI, hematuria, glomerular dz

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15
Q

what other conditions (besides diabetes) could cause in increase in glucose?

A

transient hyperglycemia=stress-related, pancreatitis

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16
Q

what could cause an increase in ketones?

A

lactation, starvation, malnutrition

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17
Q

is urobilinogen useful in diagnostics for animals?

A

no, not reliable

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18
Q

how can you tell if a sample is truly hematuria?

A

once centrifuged, the supernatant will be clear

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19
Q

what could WBCs in the urine be confused with?

A

renal tubular epithelial cells

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20
Q

What are urinary casts made of?

A

protein and mucoprotein

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21
Q

where do granular casts come from?

A

younger casts that have recently formed and haven’t broken down yet

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22
Q

what is the most common type of casts in cats?

A

fatty cast

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23
Q

what could fatty casts indicate in dogs?

A

renal dz

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24
Q

which is the largest epithelial cell?

A

squamous

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25
Q

where do transitional epithelial cells come from?

A

renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra

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26
Q

how are crystals recorded?

A

occasional, moderate, many, or #/LPF

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27
Q

what is the most common type of crystal in dogs and cats?

A

struvite

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28
Q

what do cystine crystals look like?

A

“stop signs,” hexagons, normally seen in layers

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29
Q

in which breed will ammonium urates occur?

A

dalmations and english bulldogs

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30
Q

which crystal is common in horses, rabbits, guinea pigs, and goats?

A

calcium carbonate

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31
Q

which crystal indicates severe liver dz?

A

leucine and/or tyrosine

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32
Q

parasites/eggs that could be seen in urine

A

microfilaria (heartworm), capillaria plica (bladder worm), giant kidney worm

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33
Q

which stains can be used for urinalysis?

A

best choice= Sterheimer-Malbin (sedi-stain)

or NMB (not as common)

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34
Q

neutrophils that are hypersegmented, condensed nucleus, loss of nuclear membrane, fragmented nucleus

A

degenerative neutrophil

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35
Q

technique using 21-25 g needle and 3-12 ml syringe

A

FNA (fine needle aspirate

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36
Q

term used to describe cancer cells that divide rapidly and bear little to no resemblance to normal cells

A

anaplasia

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37
Q

round with round to oval nucleus, may react to fluid and change shape. found in the thorax. resembles macrophages

A

mesothelial cells

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38
Q

technique used for ear cytology

A

swab

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39
Q

inflammation with mast cells, plasma cells, lymphocytes may be present

A

eosinophilic

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40
Q

oval cell with odd-shaped nucleus, basophils, cytoplasm, perinuclear clear zone

A

plasma cell

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41
Q

technique used to by exposing a piece of tissue to a slide

A

impression

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42
Q

slide preparation used to expel content onto the middle of the slide

A

linear smear

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43
Q

abnormal increase in the number of cells

A

hyperplasia

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44
Q

stain that gives excellent nuclear detail

A

new methylene blue (NMB)

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45
Q

inflammation with 85% neutrophis

A

purulent

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46
Q

stain not good for mast cell, bone marrow and lymph node biopsies

A

Romanowsky

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47
Q

1/3 sample in middle, 1/3 squash, 1/3 line smear

A

combination

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48
Q

increase of the size of an organ or in a select area of the same tissue

A

hypertrophy

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49
Q

inflammation with few neutrophils

A

granulomatous

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50
Q

change in the type of adult cells in a tissue to a form that is abnormal for that tissue

A

metaplasia

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51
Q

inflammation with 75% neutrophils

A

pyogranulous

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52
Q

the pathological process that results in the formation and growth of a tumor. can be benign or malignant

A

neoplasia

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53
Q

slide preparation using needle to drag sample at various lengths and directions

A

starfish

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54
Q

tissue biopsy obtained with a scalpel

A

wedge biopsy

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55
Q

opposite of malignant

A

benign

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56
Q

most commonly used stain in clinics

A

Diff-quik

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57
Q

round to oval, numerous blue to purple cytoplasmic granules containing histamine and heparin

A

mast cell

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58
Q

tissue biopsy obtained with a key tool

A

punch biopsy

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59
Q

abnormal development in size, shape and organization of adult cells

A

dysplagia

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60
Q

technique used by obtaining cells with a scalpel blade

A

skin scrape

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61
Q

list the four vaginal epithelial cells

A

basal cells, parabasal, intermediate, superficial

62
Q

list the four stages of the estrous cycle

A

proestrus, estrus, diestrus, anestrus

63
Q

what is the average age of occurrence of vaginal neoplasias?

A

10 years

64
Q

what is the most common form of reproductive neoplasia?

A

mammary neoplasia

65
Q

vaginitis occurs regardless of___, ____, ______.

A

age, breed, reproductive status

66
Q

these are the oldest vaginal epithelial cells and may or may not have a nucleus

A

superficial cells

67
Q

the youngest vaginal epithelial cells

A

basal cells

68
Q

during which stage of estrous will a bitch stand to be bred?

A

estrus

69
Q

why do we perform vaginal cytology?

A

determine stage of estrous, evaluate vaginal dz

70
Q

why do we perform a semen collection?

A

prelude to artificial insemination, assess potential fertility issues

71
Q

what is the color of normal ejaculate?

A

milky and moderately viscous

72
Q

what would serous, greenish, or grayish ejaculate indicate?

A

inflammation or infection

73
Q

normal semen should be ___% motile

A

70%

74
Q

what stain is the most commonly used stain for sperm morphology?

A

nigrosin-eosin stain

75
Q

list 5 abnormalities of sperm

A 
mishapen head
double-headed
detached head
bent tail/midpiece
coiled tail
76
Q

where would you obtain interstitial cells from and by what method?

A

obtained from testicle

FNA (fine needle aspirate)

77
Q

sertoli cell tumors are always _____.

A

benign

78
Q

proestrus

A

immediately precedes estrus

  • increase in estrogen
  • attractive to male but will not stand for breeding
79
Q

estrus

A

females will seek out males and stand for them prior to breeding

80
Q

diestrus

A

stage where corpora lutea are present (functional and secrete increased amounts of progesterone)
-increased progesterone

81
Q

anestrus

A

prolonged period of sexual rest

-length- approx 70-80 days depending on whether or not bitch is pregnant

82
Q

stain used for vaginal cytology

A

Diff-quik

83
Q

how do you place vaginal cytology sample on the slide?

A

rolling motion (not sliding or rubbing)

84
Q

how do you stain a vaginal cytology sample?

A

diff-quik
treat like blood smear
10-10-15

85
Q

predominant cell type in proestrus sample?

A

RBCs (normal in large numbers)

86
Q

predominant cell type in estrus sample

A

90% superficial cells (fully cornified-no nucleus)

87
Q

predominant cell type in diestrus

A

superficial cells decrease by 20%

  • looks similar to proestrus
  • reappearance of intermediate/parabasal cells
88
Q

dogs ovulate _______ days prior to the onset of diestrus

A

5-7 days

89
Q

predominant cell of anestrus sample

A

parabasal and intermediate cells

-superficial cells are NOT presentq

90
Q

clinical signs of vaginitis

A

mucoid (purulent) discharge, pollakuria (frequent urination), licking vulva

91
Q

pyometra and metritis

A

large numbers of degenerative neutrophils and bacteria

92
Q

vaginal neoplasia

A

second most common form of reproductive neoplasia, following mammary neoplasia

93
Q

semen collection methods

A
  • teaser female
  • artificial vagina
  • digital manipulation
  • electroejaculation
94
Q

what objective do you observe sperm with?

A

40x

95
Q

sperm concentration

A

typically performed on a hemacytometer- tedious

or spectrophotometer-measures the amount of light absorbed by a sample

96
Q

an important part of any breeding soundness exam is an -__________________.

A

evaluation of sperm morphology

97
Q

live sperm appear _____ with nigrosin-eosin stain

A

white

dead= gray/pinkish

98
Q

less than ____% of spermatozoa are abnormal in a normal animal

A

10-20%

99
Q

normal cells seen in testicle tissue sample (FNA)

A

spermatozoa, sertoli cells, interstitial cells, blood (contamination from FNA)

100
Q

sertoli cell tumors

A

usually always benign

  • occurs in older dogs and cryptorchid dogs
  • firmest of the canine testicular tumors
  • typically nodular
  • white/gray in color
101
Q

seminomas

A

cancerous

  • cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor
  • semi-firm with a homogenous glistening gray/white appearance on cut surface (looks fatty)
102
Q

interstitial cell tumors

A

cancerous

  • small, yellow to brown, soft
  • metastasis is extremely rare- thought to be the least likely of the testicular tumors to metastisize
103
Q

effusion

A

escape of fluid into a body part

104
Q

pleural effusion

A

fluid effusion in the chest/thoracic cavity

-CS- elbows abducted away from chest, extension of head and neck

105
Q

abdominal effusion

A

fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity

-CS- abdominal distension

106
Q

thoracocentesis

A

for pleural effusions

  • sternal/standing
  • 18-20 g over-the-needle catheter
  • syringe
  • 3-way stop-cock
107
Q

abdominocentesis

A

for abdominal effusions

  • sternal or standing
  • 1-2 cm caudal to umbilicus
108
Q

when sending effusion samples to lab, it is best to send a ______ and _______ slide, and ______ tube.

A

stained and unstained and EDTA tube

109
Q

best stain for effusion samples

A

Diff-quik

110
Q

other stains that can be used for effusion samples

A
  • Wright’s
  • New Methylene Blue
  • Papanicolaou
  • Gram stain
111
Q

normally there is only enough fluid within the thoracic and abdminal cavities to __________________________.

A

lubricate the surface of organs/cavity wall

112
Q

normal fluid

A

clear to slightly turbid, colorless to straw, TP=less than 2.5 g/dl, SG=less than 1.015, TNCC= 2000-6000/ul

113
Q

predominant cell type in effusions

A

neutrophils (degenerative and non-degenerative)

114
Q

toxic neutrophils

A

develop in the marrow in response to inflammation, frothy cytoplasm, and vacuoles

115
Q

mesothelial cells

A

line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces

116
Q

macrophages

A

single oval to bean-shaped nucleus, nuclear chromatin is lacy, vacuoles in cytoplasm, may be confused with mesothelial cells

117
Q

basket cells

A

smudge cell/ruptured nucleated cell, chromatin spreads out and stains eosinophilic

118
Q

fluid accumulation within body cavities can be classified as either _____, ______, or ______.

A

transudate, modified transudate, and exudate

119
Q

transudate

A

(hint- less than)
typically large amount non-inflammatory origin
-from physiological problem
ascetic effusions (ascites)

120
Q

transudates can be due to ________.

A
  • low albumin in blood (hypoalbuminemia)- renal glomerular dz, hepatic insufficiency
  • masses- neoplasia
  • uroperitoneum (urine in abdomen)
  • secondary due to CHF
121
Q

parameters of transudates

A

-colorless
-clear
-SG= <1500 cells/ul
TNCC= 3 g/dl

122
Q

modified transudates

A

(hint- variable/range)
occurs as a result of fluid leaking from lymphatic system
-least useful from a diagnostic point due to their variability

123
Q

modified transudates can be due to ________.

A
  • FIP- abdominal and thoracic effusions, fluid high in protein
  • chylous effusion
  • lymphatic fluid
  • cardiovascular dz- one of most common causes in dogs and cats
  • neoplastic dz
  • ruptured bladder (uroperitoneum)
124
Q

parameters of mod. transudates

A 
variable amt of fluid
-color- variable
-turbidity- usually clear (amber, white, red, milky white, yellow)
-SG- variable
-TP= 2.5-7.5 g/dl (high)
TNCC=1000-7000/ul
-coagulation is possible
125
Q

exudates

A

(hint- greater than)

occurs most commonly due to inflammation

126
Q

predominant cell type in inflammation

A

degenerative neutrophils

127
Q

exudates can be due to _______.

A
  • inflammation
  • infection (bacteria)
  • necrosis
128
Q

septic infection (exudates)

A

denotes the presence of bacteria, mostly degenerative neutrophils

129
Q

nonseptic infection (exudates)

A

denotes absence of bacteria, predominant cell is variable

130
Q

parameters of exudate

A 
variable amt of fluid
-color-amber to white to red
-turbidity- turbid (cloudy)
-SG= >1.018
-TP= >3 g/dl
TNCC= >5000-7000/ul
131
Q

peritonitis

A

inflammation of peritoneal/abdominal cavity

132
Q

pleuritis

A

inflammation of pleural/thoracic cavity

133
Q

causes of infectious peritonitis/pleuritis

A
  • bacterial infx
  • fungal, protozoal
  • viral- FIP
  • neoplasia
134
Q

fusobacterium

A

anaerobic gram (-), normal flora in mouth, causitive agent for infected dog/cat bite wounds

135
Q

FIP

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

  • modified transudate, exudate
  • occurs in cats of all ages
  • coronovirus
  • mortality is 100%
  • fluid in abdomen and/or thorax
136
Q

FIP parameters

A
  • odorless
  • straw/golden color
  • turbidity- sticky (tenacious), may contain flecks of fibrin
  • fluid will foam when shaken
137
Q

wet FIP

A

peritoneal and pleural effusions

138
Q

dry FIP

A

pyogranulomatous inflammation with neutrophils

139
Q

uroperitoneum

A

urine in abdomen/peritoneal cavity

  • causes- ruptured badder, ureters, urethra
  • BUN and CREAT will be high
  • bacteria may or may not be present
  • will sometimes see crystals
140
Q

effusions secondary to cardiovascular dz

A

fluid is yellow to milky white

-predominant cell type is lymphocytes

141
Q

cats develop pericardial effusions 28% of the time due to _____, and 17% of the time due to ____.

A

CHF, FIP

142
Q

chylous effusions

A 
contain chyle (lipoproteins from intestines, travels through lymph system)
-could be due to obstruction of lymphatic system (possible neoplasia)
143
Q

parameters of chyous effusions

A

-odorless
-color- varies, milky white
TNCC- neutrophils/macrophages are predominant

144
Q

causes for chylous effusions

A
  • ruptured thoracic duct (very rare)
  • commonly due to cardiovascular dz or lymphoma
  • trauma
145
Q

pseudochylous effusion

A

milky white but does not contain chyle

  • milky white color due to cellular debris
  • clear upon centrifugation
  • common in human medicine, RARE in veterinary medicine
146
Q

stain used for histological evaluations

A

Hematoxin/eosin stain (for tissue samples)

147
Q

stain commonly used in human gynecological exams (pap smear)

A

Papanicolaou stain

-good nuclear detail

148
Q

Epithelial cell tumors

A

AKA: carcinoma

  • large cells with cellular variation and change in nuclei
  • cellularity- usually high
  • clumps/clusters
149
Q

mesenchymal tumors

A

AKA: sarcoma
-shape- spindle to stellate (star-shaped)
cellularity- usually low
no clumps/clusters

150
Q

Discrete round cell tumor

A

AKA: round cell tumors

  • shape- round
  • cellularity- usually high
  • no clumps/clusters

Clin Lab 3 (2 decks)

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