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NURS 305 - Final > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the indications of testosterone (androderm)? (2)

A
  • Hypogonadism
  • Disorders of the testes / pituitary / hypothalamus
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2
Q

What are the contraindications of testosterone (androderm)? (2)

A
  • Prostate cancer
  • Male breast cancer
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3
Q

What are the adverse effects of testosterone (androderm)? (3)

A
  • Thromboembolic events
  • Cardiovascular events
  • BPH
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4
Q

What are the side effects of oral contraceptives? (3)

A
  • Thromboembolic events
  • Breakthrough bleeding
  • Breast cancer
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5
Q

What is the effect of oral contraceptive interactions with warfarin / oral hypoglycemics?

A

Decreased effectiveness of warfarin / oral hypoglycemics

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6
Q

What is the effect of oral contraceptive interactions with antibiotics / phenytoin / rifampin?

A

Decreased effectivenss of oral contraceptive

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7
Q

Describe the education associated with oral contraceptives (4)

A
  • Take at same time every day
  • Pregnancy test if > 2 periods are missed
  • Routine breast cancer screening
  • Monitor glucose in diabetics
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8
Q

______ refers to the actions of the body as medication passes through

A

Pharmacokinetics

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9
Q

What are the 4 main components of pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Absorption
  • Distribution
  • Metabolism
  • Excretion
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10
Q

How the medication enters the blood stream after administration refers to ______

A

Absorption

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11
Q

Absorption is dependent on the ______

A

Route of administration

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12
Q

______ is the extent of absorption

A

Bioavailability

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13
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

How quickly / how much of a drug reaches its target

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14
Q

How the medication exits the bloodstream and enters the cells to exert effect refers to ______

A

Distribution

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15
Q

______ are too large to pass through capillary walls

A

Protein bound drugs

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16
Q

What occurs as a result of low albumin levels? (2)

A
  • Increased free drugs
  • Increased risk of toxicity
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17
Q

Breakdown of medication (typically by the liver) to an inactive form refers to ______

A

Metabolism

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18
Q

Absorption rate should match ______ rate

A

Excretion

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19
Q

______ refers to what a medication does to the body

A

Pharmacodynamics

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20
Q

What are the 3 effects of pharmacodynamics?

A
  • Agonists
  • Antagonists
  • Partial agonists
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21
Q

Describe the administration of carbamide peroxide (Debrox) (3)

A
  • 4 drops twice daily
  • Continue for 4 days
  • Flush ear with warm water on the 5th day
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22
Q

Describe the MOA of earwax emulsifiers / cerumenolytics (2)

A
  • Loosen / remove cerumen
  • Release hydrogen peroxide and oxygen
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23
Q

Earwax emulsifiers / cerumenolytics are combined with ______

A

Glycerin

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24
Q

Which otic medications can be used with a perforated eardrum? (2)

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Ofloxacin
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25
Q

Describe otic administration (3)

A
  • Warm eardrops to body temperature
  • Lay with affected ear up for 5 minutes
  • Gently massage the tragus
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26
Q

Cold eardrops may cause ______

A

Vomiting / dizziness

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27
Q

Prior to eardrop administration, it is important to assess ______

A

Baseline hearing / auditory status

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28
Q

What are the general side effects associated with eye drops? (6)

A
  • Burning / discomfort
  • Blurred vision
  • Photophobia
  • Lacrimation
  • Blepharitis
  • Keratitis
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29
Q

It is important to have caution when combining ______ with eye drops, as they may enhance the effect

A

Systemic beta-blockers / cardiac drugs

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30
Q

Describe the administration of eye drops (3)

A
  • Look up to the ceiling
  • Place the drop in the conjunctival sac
  • Apply pressure to the inner canthus for 1 minute
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31
Q

Describe the application of ophthalmic ointments

A

Apply a thin layer to the conjunctival sac

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32
Q

What is the purpose of applying pressure to the inner canthus after administering eye drops?

A

Reduces systemic absorption of the drug

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33
Q

Wait ______ between administration of different eye drops

A

5 minutes

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34
Q

Wait ______ to insert content lenses after administration of eye drops

A

15 minutes

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35
Q

Describe the MOA of benzodiazepines

A

Enhance GABA - causes sedation

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36
Q

What are the general indications of benzodiazepines? (4)

A
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
  • Seizures
  • Pre-medication for sedation
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37
Q

What is the primary indication of midazolam (Versed)?

A

Pre-op to prepare for general anesthesia

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38
Q

benzodiazepines are harmful when combined with ______

A

Alcohol

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39
Q

What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A

flumazenil (Romazicon)

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40
Q

What are the manifestations of benzodiazepine toxicity? (4)

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Diminished reflexes
  • Somnolence
  • Coma
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41
Q

What are the side effects of corticosteroids? (4)

A
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Immunosuppression
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Decreased calcium - risk of osteoporosis
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42
Q

Describe the education associated with corticosteroids (2)

A
  • Do not take with alcohol, aspirin, or NSAIDs
  • Take with food
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43
Q

What is the primary side effect of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Oral candidiasis

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44
Q

Describe the monitoring associated with corticosteroids (5)

A
  • Blood glucose
  • Blood pressure
  • Temperature
  • Weight
  • WBCs
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45
Q

What is the primary indication of nitrates?

A

Angina

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46
Q

What is the primary interaction of nitrates?

A

Erectile dysfunction drugs - increased hypotensive effects

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47
Q

Describe the pre-admission assessment for nitrates

A

BP - hold if systolic < 90

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48
Q

Describe the storage of SL NTG

A

Must be protected from the light (dark bag cover)

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49
Q

Describe the education associated with SL NTG (3)

A
  • Do not chew
  • Tingling / burning indicates effectiveness
  • 3 tablets, 5 min apart
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50
Q

Describe the MOA of digoxin (2)

A
  • Slows conduction
  • Decreases oxygen demand
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51
Q

What are the therapeutic levels of digoxin?

A

0.8 - 2 mg / mL

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52
Q

What is the primary side effect of digoxin?

A

Bradycardia

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53
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of digoxin?

A

Dysrhythmias

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54
Q

It is important to avoid interactions with drugs that decrease ______ when administering digoxin

A

Potassium / magnesium

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55
Q

What important factors are included in the pre-admission assessment for digoxin? (2)

A
  • HR - hold if < 60
  • Potassium - hold if hypokalemia
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56
Q

Describe the relationship between digoxin and potassium (2)

A
  • They compete for the same receptor site
  • When potassium levels are too low, more digoxin binds - leading to toxicity
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57
Q

What are the interactions of digoxin - associated with risk of digoxin toxicity? (4)

A
  • furosemide
  • hydrochlorothiazide
  • amiodarone
  • atropine
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58
Q

What is the primary manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

A

Visual hallucinations (white / green / yellow halos around objects)

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59
Q

What is the antidote / reversal agent for digoxin toxicity?

A

Digibind

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60
Q

What is the antidote / reversal agent of acetaminophen?

A

acetylcysteine

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61
Q

What is the reversal agent for cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Atropine

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62
Q

Describe the MOA of naloxone (Narcan) (2)

A
  • Competes for opioid receptor sites
  • Reverses opioid effects
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63
Q

______ are the first line therapy for hypertension

A

Diuretics

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64
Q

What is the drug class of furosemide (Lasix)?

A

Loop diuretic / potassium-wasting diuretic

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65
Q

Where does the MOA of furosemide (Lasix) occur?

A

Ascending loop of Henle

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66
Q

Describe the MOA of furosemide (Lasix)

A

Sodium / chloride / potassium excretion

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67
Q

What is the drug class of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?

A

Thiazide diuretic / potassium-wasting diuretic

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68
Q

Describe the MOA of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

A

Sodium / chloride / potassium excretion

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69
Q

Describe the education associated with potassium-wasting diuretics

A

Consume potassium-rich foods

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70
Q

What is the drug class of spironolactone (Aldactone)?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretic

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71
Q

Describe the MOA of spironolactone (Aldactone) (2)

A
  • Sodium / water excretion
  • Inhibits aldosterone
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72
Q

What are the contraindications of spironolactone (Aldactone)? (2)

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Adrenal insufficiency
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73
Q

What is the primary interaction associated with spironolactone (Aldactone)?

A

ACE inhibitors - risk of hyperkalemia

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74
Q

Describe the education associated with potassium-sparing diuretics (2)

A
  • Limit dietary intake of potassium
  • Cautious use of salt substitutes
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75
Q

Describe the education associated with diuretics (2)

A
  • Change positions slowly - dizziness
  • Take in morning - sleep disturbances
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76
Q

What are the 2 types of beta adrenergic agonist inhalers?

A
  • Short-acting (rescue)
  • Long-acting (maintenance)
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77
Q

What is an example of a short-acting beta-adrenergic agonist (rescue inhaler)?

A

Albuterol

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78
Q

______ is more common with albuterol than xopenex

A

Tachycardia

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79
Q

What is the maximum dose of short-acting beta-adrenergic agonists?

A

12 puffs per day

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80
Q

Long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists are often combined with ______

A

Anti-inflammatory drugs (steroids)

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81
Q

What is an example of a long-acting beta-adrenergic agonist (maintenance inhaler)?

A

Salmeterol

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82
Q

Long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists are NOT used for ______

A

Acute symptom management

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83
Q

Describe the education associated with a metered dose inhaler (3)

A
  • Shake inhaler
  • Hold breath for 10 seconds
  • Wait 1 - 2 minutes before second puff
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84
Q

Separate different inhalers by ______

A

5 minutes

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85
Q

Describe the education associated with a corticosteroid inhaler

A

Gargle and rinse mouth with lukewarm water after

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86
Q

Describe the education regarding the order of inhalers

A

Use the bronchodilator inhaler several minutes before the corticosteroid inhaler

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87
Q

Describe the monitoring associated with erythropoietin (epogen, Procrit) (4)

A
  • BP
  • Hgb
  • DVT
  • Iron / folic acid / B12
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88
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with Hgb for erythropoietin (epogen, Procrit) (2)

A
  • Hold if Hgb > 11
  • Seizure precautions if Hgb increases too quickly
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89
Q

Describe the monitoring associated with filgrastim (Neupogen) (2)

A
  • Bone pain
  • LUQ / shoulder pain
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90
Q

Describe the nursing intervention associated with WBCs for filgrastim (Neupogen)

A

Decrease dose if WBC > 100,000

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91
Q

Describe the MOA of warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Inhibits vitamin K synthesis

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92
Q

When administering warfarin, it is important to monitor ______

A

INR

93
Q

What is a therapeutic INR?

A

2 - 3.5

94
Q

Describe INR

A
  • Low INR = increased risk of clots
  • High INR = increased risk of bleeding
95
Q

What is the primary side effect of warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

Ecchymosis

96
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

Bleeding

97
Q

The onset of warfarin (Coumadin) is about ______

A

48 hours (slow - use bridge therapy)

98
Q

When is warfarin (Coumadin) usually given?

A

In the evening

99
Q

Describe the most significant concern associated with warfarin toxicity

A

Change in mental status - indication of intercranial bleeding

100
Q

What are the 2 antidotes / reversal agents for warfarin toxicity?

A
  • Fresh frozen plasma
  • Vitamin K
101
Q

What is the effect of vitamin K use for reversal of warfarin toxicity?

A

Warfarin resistance for up to 7 days

102
Q

What is bridge therapy?

A

Use of heparin / LMWH when warfarin therapy is interrupted

103
Q

What is the purpose of bridge therapy?

A

Minimize the risk of blood clots while the patient is not fully anti-coagulated

104
Q

What is the primary side effect associated with direct oral anticoagulants?

A

Increased risk of GI bleed compared to warfarin

105
Q

What is the primary side effect of heparin?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

106
Q

When administering heparin, it is important to monitor ______

A

aPPT

107
Q

What is a therapeutic aPPT?

A

1.5 - 2.5

108
Q

What is the antidote / reversal agent for heparin toxicity?

A

Protamine sulfate

109
Q

What is the route of heparin?

A

SQ - teach self injections

110
Q

What is primary the indication of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet)?

A

Parkinson’s disease

111
Q

Describe the nursing considerations associated with carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) (4)

A
  • Take before breakfast to decrease dysphagia
  • Avoid protein (decreases absorption)
  • B6 supplementation
  • Fall precautions - orthostatic hypotension
112
Q

Anticholinergic inhalers are used more in ______ than asthma

A

COPD

113
Q

What is an example of an anticholinergic inhaler used for COPD?

A

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)

114
Q

Describe the administration of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) (2)

A
  • 2 sprays per nostril
  • 2 - 4 times per day
115
Q

Describe the MOA of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) (2)

A
  • Blocks acetylcholine
  • Bronchodilation
116
Q

What are the 3 subclasses of nasal decongestants?

A
  • Adrenergics
  • Anticholinergics
  • Corticosteroids
117
Q

What side effect is associated with Afrin?

A

Rebound congestion

118
Q

Afrin should be used for no more than ______

A

3 days

119
Q

Describe the effects of oral nasal decongestants (2)

A
  • Systemic
  • No rebound congestion
120
Q

Describe the effect of inhaled / topical nasal decongestants

A

Risk of rebound congestion with adrenergics

121
Q

Long-term use of pantoprazole (Protonix) may cause ______

A

C. diff

122
Q

Describe the education associated with pantoprazole (Protonix)

A

DO NOT crush

123
Q

Describe the education associated with antacids

A

Administer other meds at least 2 hours before / after antacids

124
Q

How long is aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) effective if taken on an empty stomach?

A

30 - 60 minutes

125
Q

Describe education associated with misoprostol (Cytotec) (3)

A
  • Take with meals
  • Take at bedtime
  • Use birth control measures
126
Q

Describe the MOA of psyllium (Metamucil)

A

Increases bulk

127
Q

Describe the MOA of docusate sodium (Colace)

A

Softens stool

128
Q

Describe the MOA of docusate sodium / Senna (Peri-Colace / Senokot-S) (2)

A
  • Softens stool
  • Stimulates peristalsis
129
Q

Describe the MOA of bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

A

Stimulates peristalsis

130
Q

What types of healthy human cells are affected by chemotherapy? (3)

A
  • Hair follicles - hair loss
  • GI tract - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  • Bone marrow cells - decreased RBCs, WBCs, platelets
131
Q

Describe the targeted drug therapy associated with chemotherapy (3)

A
  • Specific
  • Deliberate
  • Cytostatic - precision chemo
132
Q

What is the primary antimetabolite associated with chemotherapy?

A

methotrexate

133
Q

Describe the use of antimetabolites

A

Used in combination with chemotherapy

134
Q

What are the adverse effects of antimetabolites? (4)

A
  • Tumor lysis syndrome
  • Palmar-plantar dysesthesia
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  • Toxic epidermal necrolysis
135
Q

Describe tumor lysis syndrome

A

Excessive cellular waste products and electrolytes (increased uric acid, phosphates, potassium)

136
Q

Describe the treatment of tumor lysis syndrome (3)

A
  • Limit potassium intake
  • Loop diuretics
  • IV regular insulin with dextrose
137
Q

Describe the use of mitotic inhibitors

A

Used in combination with chemotherapy

138
Q

Describe the assessment associated with chemo agents (3)

A
  • Assess baseline blood counts prior to administering
  • Monitor for infection
  • Monitor for stomatitis
139
Q

Antiemetics often work best if given ______ before chemotherapy is started

A

30 - 60 minutes

140
Q

Describe the MOA of atorvastatin (Lipitor)

A

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

141
Q

What are the contraindications of atorvastatin (Lipitor)? (2)

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Liver impairment
142
Q

What are the side effects of atorvastatin (Lipitor)? (2)

A
  • Myalgias
  • Rhabdomyolysis
143
Q

Describe the education associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor)

A

Can cause dark colored urine - due to breakdown of muscle proteins (rhabdomyolysis)

144
Q

When should atorvastatin (Lipitor) be taken?

A

At bedtime

145
Q

With atorvastatin (Lipitor), it is important to monitor reports of ______

A

Muscle aches

146
Q

What is the primary indication of finasteride (propecia, proscar)?

A

BPH

147
Q

What are the side effects of finasteride (propecia, proscar)? (3)

A
  • Decreased libido
  • Gynecomastia
  • Increased hair growth
148
Q

Describe the education associated with finasteride (propecia, proscar) (2)

A
  • Therapeutic effects may take at least 6 months
  • Not to be handled by pregnant women – wear gloves
149
Q

What is the primary indication of tamsulosin (Flomax)?

A

BPH

150
Q

Describe the education associated with tamsulosin (Flomax)

A

Avoid antihypertensives (NTG, erectile dysfunction drugs) - risk of severe hypotension

151
Q

Chemotherapy drugs have a ______

A

Narrow therapeutic index

152
Q

Chemotherapy is harmful to ______

A

All rapidly growing cells - chemo cannot distinguish between healthy cells / cancer cells

153
Q

What is the primary safety concern of ALL antiepileptics?

A

Suicidal thoughts - ask “do you have thoughts of harming yourself?”

154
Q

What are the general adverse effects of antiepileptics? (2)

A
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Hepatotoxicity
155
Q

What is the primary side effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A

Gingival hyperplasia

156
Q

Describe the nursing considerations associated with phenytoin (Dilantin) (3)

A
  • Cardiac monitoring
  • Use filter - risk of precipitation
  • Long half-life - daily / BID
157
Q

What are the signs of phenytoin (Dilantin) toxicity? (4)

A
  • Ataxia
  • Dysarthria
  • Nystagmus
  • Encephalopathy
158
Q

What are the therapeutic levels of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A

10 - 20 mcg / mL

159
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol)?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

160
Q

Describe the education associated with valproic acid (Depakote)

A

DO NOT mix syrup with carbonated beverages - risk of mouth / throat irritation

161
Q

What are the therapeutic levels of valproic acid (Depakote)?

A

50 - 100 mcg / mL

162
Q

What is the primary indication of cyclosporine (Sandimmune)?

A

Prevention of organ rejection

163
Q

cyclosporine (Sandimmune) has a ______ therapeutic index

A

Narrow

164
Q

What are the black box warnings associated with cyclosporine (Sandimmune)? (3)

A
  • Skin cancer
  • Fatal infections
  • Encephalopathy (higher risk for diabetics)
165
Q

Describe the education associated with cyclosporine (Sandimmune) (4)

A
  • Dilute in orange / apple juice
  • No live virus vaccines
  • Avoid UV exposure
  • Monitor trough levels between doses
166
Q

What is the drug class of alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Bisphosphonate

167
Q

What is the primary contraindication of alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Esophageal dysfunction

168
Q

______ can occur if alendronate (Fosamax) lodges in the esophagus before reaching the stomach

A

Esophageal burns

169
Q

Describe the education associated with alendronate (Fosamax) (3)

A
  • Take in the morning
  • Take with a full glass of water
  • Take 30 minutes before eating
170
Q

After taking alendronate (Fosamax), the patient must …

A

Sit upright for 30 minutes

171
Q

What are the 2 types of antiplatelet agents?

A
  • aspirin (ASA)
  • clopidogrel (Plavix)
172
Q

What are the side effects of antiplatelet agents? (3)

A
  • Anemia
  • Bleeding
  • Thrombocytopenia
173
Q

What are the contraindications of aspirin (ASA)? (2)

A
  • Reye’s syndrome
  • GI ulcers
174
Q

What is the primary indication of levothyroxine (Synthroid)?

A

Hypothyroidism

175
Q

What are the side effects of levothyroxine (Synthroid)? (2)

A
  • Diaphoresis
  • Weight loss
176
Q

Describe the education associated with levothyroxine (Synthroid) (3)

A
  • Take in the morning
  • Take with a full glass of water
  • Take 30 - 60 minutes before eating
177
Q

What is the primary concern associated with antipsychotics?

A

Extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS)

178
Q

What is the drug class of haloperidol (Haldol)?

A

Antipsychotic

179
Q

Why are atypical / second generation antipsychotics preferred over conventional antipsychotics?

A

They block SPECIFIC dopamine / serotonin receptors - decreased risk of EPS

180
Q

Describe the MOA of alteplace (Activase, tpa) (2)

A
  • Converts plasminogen to plasmin
  • Breakdown of clots
181
Q

What are the indications of alteplace (Activase, tpa)? (3)

A
  • Existing clots
  • Ischemic stroke
  • MI
182
Q

Before administering alteplace (Activase, tpa), it is important to wait ______ after onset of ischemic stroke symptoms

A

3 - 4.5 hours

183
Q

What are the side effects of anticholinergic agents? (4)

A
  • Blurred vision
  • Urinary retention
  • Dry mouth
  • Constipation
184
Q

Describe the characteristics of water soluble vitamins (B, C) (3)

A
  • Low risk of toxicity
  • Daily intake needed
  • Deficiency symptoms appear quickly
185
Q

Describe the characteristics of fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) (3)

A
  • High risk of toxicity
  • Daily intake not needed
  • Deficiency symptoms develop slowly
186
Q

Name some examples of isotonic fluids (2)

A
  • 0.9% NSS
  • Lactated Ringer’s
187
Q

Name an example of a hypertonic solution

A

3% saline

188
Q

Name an example of a hypotonic solution

A

0.45% saline

189
Q

______ solutions leave the vessel

A

Hypotonic

190
Q

______ solutions enter the vessel

A

Hypertonic

191
Q

What is the primary indication of sildenafil (Viagra)?

A

Erectile dysfunction

192
Q

Describe the education associated with sildenafil (Viagra) (2)

A
  • Take 30 minutes - 4 hours before sexual activity
  • DO NOT take with nitrates / vasodilators
193
Q

What are the side effects of “azosin” prazosin (minipress)? (3)

A
  • Dizziness
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
194
Q

Describe the education associated with alpha-1 blockers (2)

A
  • Take at bedtime - risk of unconsciousness
  • Avoid dangerous activities for 24 hours
195
Q

Why is cautious use of beta blockers necessary in diabetics?

A

They mask s/s of hypoglycemia

196
Q

What is the primary side effect of non-selective beta blockers?

A

Bronchospasm

197
Q

What important factors are included in the pre-admission assessment for selective beta blockers? (2)

A
  • HR - hold if < 60
  • BP - hold if systolic < 90
198
Q

What is the drug class of lisinopril (Prinivil)?

A

ACE inhibitor

199
Q

What is primary contraindication of lisinopril (Prinivil)?

A

Hyperkalemia

200
Q

What is the primary side effect of lisinopril (Prinivil)?

A

Dry cough - can switch to ARBs instead

201
Q

What is the primary side effect of amlodipine (Norvasc)?

A

Reflex tachycardia

202
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)?

A

Cyanide toxicity

203
Q

What is the onset / peak / duration of rapid-acting insulin?

A

Onset: 15 - 30 minutes

Peak: 1 - 2 hours

Duration: 3 - 5 hours

204
Q

What is the onset / peak / duration of short-acting insulin?

A

Onset: 30 - 60 minutes

Peak: 1 - 5 hours

Duration: 6 - 10 hours

205
Q

What is the onset / peak / duration of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

Onset: 1 - 2 hours

Peak: 6 - 14 hours

Duration: 10 - 18 hours

206
Q

What is the onset / peak / duration of long-acting insulin?

A

Onset: 1 - 2 hours

Peak: none

Duration: 24 hours

207
Q

Administer rapid insulin within ______ minutes prior to meal

A

15

208
Q

What are the first line drugs used to treat TB? (2)

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin
209
Q

What is the primary contraindication of isoniazid (INH) / rifampin?

A

Liver impairment

210
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid (INH)? (2)

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Optic neuritis
211
Q

What unique characteristic of rifampin is important in patient teaching?

A

Colors all body fluid reddish orange

212
Q

What is the biggest concern associated with opioids?

A

Respiratory depression

213
Q

RR of ______ is a concern when taking opioids

A

< 8

214
Q

What are the contraindications of opioids? (5)

A
  • ICP
  • Sleep apnea
  • Severe asthma
  • Morbid obesity
  • Myasthenia gravis (MG)
215
Q

It is important to start treatment of _______ with the first opioid dose

A

Constipation

216
Q

______ is expected especially with morphine

A

Itching - due to histamine response

217
Q

Describe the education associated with Duragesic (fentanyl patch)

A

Remove / reapply every 72 hours

218
Q

What is the primary concern associated with hydromorphone (Dilaudid)?

A

Commonly mistaken with morphine - risk of accidental overdose due to increased potency

219
Q

What are the therapeutic levels of theophylline?

A

5 - 15 mcg / mL

220
Q

What are the therapeutic levels of lithium?

A

0.6 - 1.2 mEq / mL

221
Q

Lithium levels above ______ begin to produce toxicity

A

1.5

222
Q

Describe the assessment associated with penicillins

A

Monitor for 30 minutes after IV administration (allergy risk)

223
Q

______ have a risk of cross-sensitivity with penicillin allergy

A

Cephalosporins

224
Q

______ are the primary alternate for a patient with penicillin allergy

A

Sulfonamides

225
Q

What medication is used to treat an allergic reaction / anaphylaxis?

A

diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

226
Q

What allergy is a contraindication of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?

A

Sulfa

227
Q

What allergy is a contraindication of amiodarone (Cordarone)?

A

Iodine

228
Q

What are the contraindications of vaccines? (3)

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Active infection
  • Egg allergy

NURS 305 - Final (3 decks)

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