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NURS 305 - Final > Drug Class Review > Flashcards

Drug Class Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the drug class of betaxolol (Betoptic)?

A

Selective beta 1 blocker (optic)

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2
Q

Describe the MOA of betaxolol (Betoptic) (2)

A
  • Decreases aqueous humor formation
  • Decreases interocular pressure
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3
Q

Describe the primary nursing intervention associated with betaxolol (Betoptic)

A

Apply pressure to inner canthus to prevent systemic absorption

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4
Q

What is the drug class of carbamide peroxide (Debrox)?

A

Earwax emulsifier / cerumenolytic

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5
Q

Describe the MOA of carbamide peroxide (Debrox)

A

Releases hydrogen peroxide and oxygen

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6
Q

What is the primary indication of otic antibiotics?

A

Otitis media

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7
Q

Otic antibiotics are often combined with ______

A

Steroids

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8
Q

Which otic medications can be used with a perforated eardrum? (2)

A
  • ciprofloxacin
  • ofloxacin
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9
Q

What is the first line medication used for otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin

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10
Q

What is the drug class of methotrexate?

A

DMARD I (non-biologic DMARD)

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11
Q

Describe the MOA of methotrexate (3)

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Decreases inflammation
  • Inhibits folic acid metabolism
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12
Q

What is the primary indication of methotrexate?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

What monitoring is associated with methotrexate?

A

Liver function - hepatotoxic

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14
Q

Describe the education associated with methotrexate

A

No live vaccines

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15
Q

What are the general adverse effects associated with DMARDs due to their immunosuppressive properties? (2)

A
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Leukopenia
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16
Q

______ should be taken daily with Methotrexate to reduce side effects

A

Folic acid (1 mg)

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17
Q

What is the drug class of etanercept (Enbrel)?

A

DMARD II (biologic DMARD)

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18
Q

Describe the MOA of etanercept (Enbrel)

A

Binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

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19
Q

What is the primary indication of etanercept (Enbrel)?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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20
Q

Describe the education associated with etanercept (Enbrel) (2)

A
  • Teach self-injections
  • No live vaccines
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21
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of etanercept (Enbrel)?

A

Severe infection

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22
Q

What is the drug class of alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Bisphosphonate

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23
Q

Describe the MOA of alendronate (Fosamax) (2)

A
  • Inhibits osteoclast activity
  • Increases bone density
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24
Q

What is the primary indication of alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Postmenopausal osteoporosis

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25
Q

What monitoring is associated with alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Calcium levels

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26
Q

Why is it important to sit upright for 30 minutes after taking alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

Decreases the risk of esophageal burns

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27
Q

What is the drug class of raloxifene (Evista)?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

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28
Q

Describe the MOA of raloxifene (Evista) (2)

A
  • Stimulates estrogen receptors
  • Increases bone density
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29
Q

Describe the education associated with raloxifene (Evista)

A

Discontinue 72 hours prior to prolonged immobility (surgery / traveling)

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30
Q

What is the primary concern associated with raloxifene (Evista)?

A

Venous thromboembolism

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31
Q

What is the primary interaction associated with raloxifene (Evista)?

A

Warfarin - decreased effects

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32
Q

Describe the MOA of NSAIDs / COX inhibitors (2)

A
  • Prostaglandin synthesis
  • Decrease inflammation
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33
Q

What are the benefits of COX II inhibitors? (2)

A
  • Increased specificity
  • Less GI adverse effects
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34
Q

What is the drug class of ibuprofen (Advil)?

A

COX I & II inhibitor

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35
Q

What is the drug class of celecoxib (Celebrex)?

A

COX I inhibitor

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36
Q

What are the adverse effects of NSAIDS / COX inhibitors? (3)

A
  • MI
  • Stroke
  • GI bleed
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37
Q

Describe the education associated with NSAIDs / COX inhibitors

A

Discontinue 1 week prior to elective surgery

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38
Q

Describe the MOA of levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A

Replaces thyroid hormone

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39
Q

What are the types of anti-thyroid drugs? (2)

A
  • methimazole
  • PTU
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40
Q

Describe the MOA of methimazole / PTU

A

Inhibition of thyroid hormone

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41
Q

What is the drug class of somatropin (Genotropin)?

A

Growth hormone

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42
Q

What are the contraindications of somatropin (Genotropin)? (2)

A
  • Closed growth plates
  • Tumors
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43
Q

______ is used as an endogenous source when not enough is produced by the pancreas

A

Insulin

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44
Q

Aspart / Lispro / Glulisine insulin is ______

A

Rapid-acting

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45
Q

Regular insulin is ______

A

Short-acting

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46
Q

NPH insulin is ______

A

Intermediate-acting

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47
Q

Glargine insulin is ______

A

Long-acting

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48
Q

Describe the steps of mixing insulin

A
  • Inject air into NPH (cloudy)
  • Inject air into regular (clear)
  • Withdraw regular (clear)
  • Withdraw NPH (cloudy)
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49
Q

What is the drug class of metformin (Glucophage)?

A

Biguanide

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50
Q

What is the primary indication of metformin (Glucophage)?

A

Type II diabetes

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51
Q

Describe the MOA of metformin (Glucophage) (2)

A
  • Increases glucose sensitivity
  • Does NOT cause hypoglycemia
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52
Q

Describe the education associated with DPP-IV inhibitors

A

DO NOT take with insulin

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53
Q

Describe the MOA of anticholinergics (2)

A
  • Blocks acetylcholine
  • Bronchodilation
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54
Q

Name an example of a 1st generation antihistamine

A

diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

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55
Q

Name an example of a 2nd generation antihistamine

A

loratadine (Claritin)

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56
Q

Describe the MOA of adrenergics (sympathomimetics) (2)

A
  • Respiratory tract vasoconstriction
  • Stimulation of SNS
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57
Q

What are the types of adrenergics (sympathomimetics)? (2)

A
  • Sudafed
  • Afrin
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58
Q

What is the max dosage of Sudafed?

A

8 tabs / 24 hours

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59
Q

What is the primary concern associated with Afrin?

A

Rebound congestion

60
Q

What are the types of intranasal corticosteroids? (2)

A
  • Rhinocort
  • Nasacort
61
Q

Describe the MOA of antitussives

A

Suppression of cough reflex

62
Q

What is the primary concern associated with opioid antitussives?

A

Respiratory depression

63
Q

What is the drug class of Tessalon?

A

Non-opioid antitussive

64
Q

Describe the education associated with Tessalon

A

DO NOT chew - risk of numbness in mouth / throat (leading to aspiration)

65
Q

What is the drug class of guaifenesin (Mucinex)?

A

Expectorant

66
Q

Describe the education associated with guaifenesin (Mucinex)

A

Ensure adequate fluid intake

67
Q

Name an example of a short-acting beta 2 agonist

A

Albuterol

68
Q

What is the max dosage of Albuterol?

A

12 puffs / day

69
Q

______ is an alternative to Albuterol with decreased adverse effects

A

Xopenex

70
Q

Name an example of a long-acting beta 2 agonist

A

Salmeterol

71
Q

What is the therapeutic dosage of Salmeterol?

A

1 puff 2 times per day

72
Q

What is the drug class of ipratropium bromide?

A

Anticholinergic inhaler

73
Q

What is the primary indication of ipratropium bromide?

A

COPD (more than asthma)

74
Q

ipratropium bromide is used as a ______ medication

A

Controller

75
Q

Describe the education associated with aminophylline (Theophylline)

A

Avoid caffeine

76
Q

What is the therapeutic range of aminophylline (Theophylline)?

A

5 - 15 mcg / mL

77
Q

Why are inhaled corticosteroids preferred over oral?

A

Less systemic effects

78
Q

What are the contraindications of digoxin? (2)

A
  • HR < 60
  • Hypokalemia - increases available receptor sites causing toxicity
79
Q

What is the therapeutic range of digoxin?

A

0.8 - 2 mg / mL

80
Q

Describe the MOA of nitrates (2)

A
  • Vasodilation
  • Decreased myocardial oxygen demand
81
Q

What is the primary interaction associated with nitrates?

A

Erectile dysfunction drugs - increased hypotensive effects

82
Q

What is the drug class of prazosin?

A

Alpha 1 blocker

83
Q

Describe the MOA of beta blockers (2)

A
  • Decrease BP
  • Decrease SNS activity
84
Q

What are the contraindications of beta blockers? (2)

A
  • HR < 60
  • Systolic BP < 90
85
Q

What is the primary concern associated with beta blockers?

A

Masks signs of hypoglycemia - caution in diabetics

86
Q

What is the primary side effect of non-selective beta blockers?

A

Bronchospasm

87
Q

Name an example of a non-selective beta blocker

A

Propanolol

88
Q

Name an example of a selective beta blocker

A

Metoprolol

89
Q

What is the drug class of lisinopril?

A

ACE inhibitor

90
Q

Describe the MOA of lisinopril

A

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

91
Q

What are the contraindications of lisinopril? (2)

A
  • Systolic BP < 90
  • Hyperkalemia
92
Q

What is the primary side effect of lisinopril?

A

Dry, non-productive cough - can switch to an ARB instead

93
Q

What is the primary concern associated with lisinopril?

A

Angioedema

94
Q

What is the drug class of losartan?

A

ARB

95
Q

Describe the MOA of losartan (2)

A
  • Blocks angiotensin II receptors
  • Inhibits aldosterone
96
Q

What are the types of calcium channel blockers? (2)

A
  • amlodipine (Norvasc)
  • diltiazem (Cardizem)
97
Q

What is the primary concern associated with amlodipine (Norvasc)?

A

Reflex tachycardia - due to triggered baroreceptors

98
Q

What is the drug class of atorvastatin (Lipitor)?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

99
Q

What is the primary concern associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor)?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

100
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

Breakdown of muscle protein

101
Q

Statin therapy results in ______ due to muscle breakdown

A

Dark urine

102
Q

What is the monitoring associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor)?

A

Liver function

103
Q

Describe the education associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) (2)

A
  • Take at bedtime
  • Report muscle aches - risk of rhabdomyolysis
104
Q

Describe the MOA of warfarin (Coumadin) (2)

A
  • Inhibits vitamin K synthesis
  • Prevents clotting
105
Q

What monitoring is associated with warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

PT / INR (therapeutic range = 2 - 3.5)

106
Q

Describe the nursing considerations associated with warfarin (Coumadin)? (2)

A
  • Highly protein bound - many interactions
  • Slow onset - use bridge therapy (heparin / LMWH)
107
Q

What are the reversal agents for warfarin (Coumadin)? (2)

A
  • Fresh frozen plasma
  • Vitamin K
108
Q

What is the primary concern associated with warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

Bleeding

109
Q

What is the drug class of alteplace (TPA)?

A

Thrombolytic

110
Q

Describe the MOA of alteplace (TPA) (2)

A
  • Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
  • Breakdown of clots
111
Q

When is alteplace (TPA) used?

A

Emergent situations (within 3 - 4.5 hours of symptoms)

112
Q

What monitoring is associated with heparin? (2)

A
  • aPTT (therapeutic range = 1.5 - 2.5)
  • anti Xa
113
Q

What is the reversal agent for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

114
Q

What is the primary indication of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

A

Bridge therapy

115
Q

What is the drug class of clopidogrel (Plavix)?

A

Antiplatelet agent

116
Q

What is the drug class of aspirin (ASA)?

A

Antiplatelet agent

117
Q

What is the lifespan of aspirin (ASA)?

A

7 days

118
Q

What is the drug class of lidocaine?

A

Sodium channel blocker

119
Q

IV administration of lidocaine is used for treatment of ______

A

Ventricular dysrhythmias

120
Q

What are the contraindications of amiodarone? (2)

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Iodine allergy
121
Q

What is the primary indication of adenosine?

A

Tachycardia

122
Q

Describe the MOA of atropine

A

Increases HR

123
Q

______ is the most widely used non-opioid analgesic

A

acetaminophen

124
Q

Describe the MOA of acetaminophen (3)

A
  • Decreases prostaglandin synthesis
  • Regulates temperature (hypothalamus)
  • NO anti-inflammatory effects
125
Q

What is the max dosage of acetaminophen?

A

4 grams / 24 hours

126
Q

What is the reversal agent for acetaminophen?

A

Acetylcysteine

127
Q

Opioids have no ______

A

Ceiling effect - titrate to desired effect

128
Q

What is the primary concern associated with opioids?

A

Respiratory depression

129
Q

What monitoring is associated with opioids? (2)

A
  • LOC
  • RR
130
Q

What is the drug class of naloxone (Narcan)?

A

Opioid antagonist

131
Q

What is the primary indication of naloxone (Narcan)?

A

Reversal of opioid overdose / respiratory depression

132
Q

What is the primary indication of zolpidem (Ambien)?

A

Insomnia

133
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of zolpidem (Ambien)?

A

Angioedema

134
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A

Gingival hyperplasia

135
Q

What is the therapeutic range of phenytoin (Dilantin)?

A

10 - 20 mcg / mL

136
Q

What is the primary indication of levetiracetam (Keppra)?

A

Prevention of seizures after head injury / trauma

137
Q

What is the primary indication of valproic acid (Depakote)?

A

All seizures (broad spectrum)

138
Q

What are the indications of amphetamine (Adderall)? (2)

A
  • ADHD
  • Narcolepsy
139
Q

Describe the MOA of amphetamine (Adderall) (2)

A
  • SNS stimulation
  • Increases effects of dopamine / norepinephrine
140
Q

Describe the education associated with amphetamine (Adderall)

A

Important to take drug holidays

141
Q

What is the primary indication of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet)?

A

Parkinson’s disease

142
Q

What is the drug class of donepezil (Aricept)?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor

143
Q

What are the side effects of donepezil (Aricept)? (2)

A
  • GI upset
  • Vivid dreams
144
Q

Describe the education associated with donepezil (Aricept)

A

Take in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances

145
Q

What is the primary indication of sumatriptan (Imitrex)?

A

Acute migraines

146
Q

Describe the education associated with sumatriptan (Imitrex)

A

Take at first sign of migraine

NURS 305 - Final (3 decks)

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