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EMT Basic Refresher > Final review > Flashcards

Final review Flashcards

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1
Q

Inadequate tissue perfusion is known as __________
Select one:

a.
hypotension

b.
shock

c.
hypervolemia

d.
anemia

A

B. Shock

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2
Q

Blood loss from both internal and external sites causes hypoperfusion. This is known as ______________
Select one:

a.
cardiogenic shock

b.
neurogenic shock

c.
hypovolemic shock

d.
septic shock

A

C. hypovolemic Shock

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3
Q

Constriction of airways always occurs during the __________.
Select one:

a.
immune response

b.
exposure response

c.
antigen response

d.
leukotriene response

A

A. Immune response

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4
Q

During the assessment of the patient with altered mental status, the EMT should look for __________.
Select one:

a.
Medications

b.
Medical alert/ identification bracelet or necklace

c.
MOI

d.
All the above

A

D. All the above

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5
Q

Gloves, gown, glasses, masks are examples of
Select one:

a.
Body Substance Insulation

b.
Patient Protection Equipment

c.
Personal Protective Equipment

d.
Body System Isolation

A

C. Personal protective equipment

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6
Q

Irregular breathing pattern, contusions, raccoon’s eyes, neurological disability are indicative of a ________________
Select one:

a.
concussion

b.
closed head injury

c.
open head injury

d.
blunt force trauma to the abdomen

A

B. closed head injury

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7
Q

Oral Glucose can take up to _____ minutes to work.
Select one:

a.
45 minutes

b.
5 minutes

c.
25 minutes

d.
10-20 minutes

A

D. 10-20 Minutes

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8
Q

Proper Lifting techniques in include the following _____________________
Select one:

a.
Lift without twisting

b.
Communicate clearly with your partner

c.
Keep the weight close to your body

d.
All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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9
Q

The FROPVD is typically restricted to pressures at or below _______.
Select one:

a.
20

b.
25

c.
30

d.
35

A

C. 30

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10
Q

The ____ ______ receives blood from the inferior/ superior vena cava.
Select one:

a.
right atrium

b.
right ventricle

c.
left atrium

d.
left ventricle

A

A. right atrium

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11
Q

The ______ phase is where the cervix completes dilation with strong, frequent and painful contractions.
Select one:

a.
Initial phase

b.
secondary phase

c.
transition phase

d.
tertiary phase

A

C. transition phase

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12
Q

The _______ nervous system allows the body to function under stress.
Select one:

a.
parasympathetic

b.
autonomic

c.
sympathetic

d.
none of the above

A

C. sympathetic

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13
Q

The ___________ is the cardiac muscle.
Select one:

a.
pericardium

b.
endocardium

c.
viseral layer

d.
myocardium

A

D. myocardium

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14
Q

The ___________ is the force exerted on the arteries during each contraction of the heart.
Select one:

a.
diastolic blood pressure

b.
cardiac cycle

c.
cardiac output

d.
systolic blood pressure

A

D. systolic blood pressure

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15
Q

The adult dose of epinephrine is ___________.
Select one:

a.
0.5mg

b.
0.25mg

c.
0.3mg

d.
0.15mg

A

C. 0.3mg

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16
Q

The collection, review and reporting of data that provides foe discovery of infractions of protocols, and procedures which may require re-testing or remedial training for the service or personnel involved is defined as ______________
Select one:

a.
Quality Assurance

b.
Quality Management

c.
Quality Improvement

d.
Quality Review

A

D. Quality Review

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17
Q

The final stage is _______________ and is where the placenta is delivered.
Select one:

a.
Tertiary phase

b.
Secondary Phase

c.
Third phase

d.
Transition phase

A

C. Third phase

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18
Q

The left ventricle receives blood from the left atrium through the ______ ______.
Select one:

a.
mitral valve

b.
tricuspid valve

c.
AV valve

d.
pulmonic valve

A

a. mitral valve

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19
Q

The most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is ________.
Select one:

a.
Stay home if you are sick

b.
Wash your Hands

c.
Always wear PPE

d.
Bleach the stretcher after every call

A

B. Wash your hands

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20
Q

The technique designed to move a patient in a series of coordinated moves is _______________.
Select one:

a.
KED technique

b.
stabilization and support technique

c.
c-spine immobilization technique

d.
rapid extrication technique

A

D. Rapid Extrication technique

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21
Q

The thin double layered sac that surrounds the heart is the ___________.
Select one:

a.
Visceral Layer

b.
Pericardium

c.
Parietal Layer

d.
myocardium

A

B. pericardium

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

Upon delivery and 5 minutes after delivery the newborn should be scored using the ______________ scale.
Select one:

a.
APCOR

b.
APGAR

c.
AGPOR

d.
AGARP

A

b. APGAR

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24
Q

Vomiting or coughing up red blood is a symptom of?
Select one:

a.
internal bleeding

b.
external bleeding

c.
sepsis

d.
hypotension

A

A. internal bleeding

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25
Q

You are dispatched to an assault. Upon arrival you do not see law enforcement, however dispatch states the scene is secure. Based on this information the next appropriate action would be _________________________.
Select one:

a. Approach the scene with caution

b. Call the residence to see if the suspect is still on the premises

c. Enter the scene, since you have been advised scene is safe

d. Advise dispatch you are staging until law enforcement arrives

A

d.
Advise dispatch you are staging until law enforcement arrives

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26
Q

You are on the scene of a “sick” call. The patient tell you he has a history of HIVand is taking medicine . He is running afever and wishes transport to the hospital. What type of PPE should you and your partner wear?
Select one:

a. Gloves

b. Eye Protection

c. N95 respirator

d. Gown

A

a.
Gloves

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27
Q

You arrive on scene to a “respiratory distress”call. Upon arrival you find a 57 y/o male,c/o difficulty breathing with a productive cough. He states he has noticed a little blood in the sputum. What is the appropriate PPE to wear during transport?
Select one:

a.
Gloves

b.
Gown, mask

c.
Eye protection, mask

d.
Gloves, N95 respirator

A

d.
Gloves, N95 respirator

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28
Q

Your ___________ __________ is the number one priority on the EMT’s list
Select one:

a.
Patient safety

b.
Personal safety

c.
Partner safety

d.
Ambulance safety

A

b.
Personal safety

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29
Q

__________ is greenish or brownish-yellow substance found in the amniotic fluid. (Fetal Bowl Movement while in utero)
Select one:

a.
Meshioum Staining

b.
Cecum Staining

c.
Mecemiom Staining

d.
Meconium Staining

A

d.
Meconium Staining

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30
Q

__________________ accounts for most of the disability and death among children.
Select one:

a.
Cerebral injuries

b.
abdominal injuries

c.
thoracic injuries

d.
all the above

A

d.
all the above

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31
Q

A 19-year-old man with Down syndrome presents with a decreased mental status. According to the patient’s mother, this is not normal for him. She further tells you that he had not been feeling well lately and has not had an appetite. As your partner provides appropriate airway management, you should:
Select one:

a. assess his blood glucose level.

b. quickly apply the cardiac monitor.

c. look for a site for vascular access.

d. perform a detailed physical exam.

A

a. assess his blood glucose level.

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32
Q

Allergic rhinitis and asthma are MOST often the result of exposure to an allergen via the ___________ route.
Select one:

a. injection

b. ingestion

c. inhalation

d. absorption

A

c. inhalation

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33
Q

Drug abuse is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:

a. the habitual use of illicit drugs for the purpose of inducing a euphoric feeling.

b. any use of drugs that causes physical, psychological, or legal harm to the user.

c. the use of legal medications that is not in accordance with a physician’s order.

d. inadvertent misuse of a licit or illicit drug that causes physical harm to the user.

A

b. any use of drugs that causes physical, psychological, or legal harm to the user.

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34
Q

Heat cramps are caused by:
Select one:

a. sodium loss due to sweating.

b. failure of the hypothalamus.

c. increased potassium levels.

d. increased urinary frequency.

A

a. sodium loss due to sweating.

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35
Q

Other than personal safety, your MOST immediate concern when caring for a submersion victim should be:
Select one:

a.
the risk of vomiting and aspiration.

b.
determining what caused the event.

c.
to insert an advanced airway device.

d.
hypothermia-induced dysrhythmias.

A

a.
the risk of vomiting and aspiration.

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36
Q

The odor of bitter almonds on a patient’s breath should make you MOST suspicious for exposure to:
Select one:

a.
cyanide.

b.
phosphorus.

c.
arsenic.

d.
turpentine.

A

a.
cyanide.

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37
Q

Your assessment begins when?
Select one:

a.
At the start of the shift

b.
With initial dispatch information

c.
As you arrive on the scene

d.
When you walk through the door

A

b.
With initial dispatch information

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38
Q

The general impression is formed during the ____________ portion of patient assessment.
Select one:

a.
Primary Assessment (Initial Assessment)

b.
Secondary Assessment

c.
Detailed Physical

d.
Reassessment

A

a.
Primary Assessment (Initial Assessment)

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39
Q

Which of the following threats for physical violence can the Healthcare Provider see and prepare for?
Select one:

a.
Clinched fists and aggressive body posturing

b.
lowered voices, somnolence, and depression

c.
severe depression

d.
delusions of granduer

A

a.
Clinched fists and aggressive body posturing

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40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of high risk for suicide?
Select one:

a.
Thoughts of death or taking ones life

b.
Depression

c.
Delusions of Grandeur

d.
Sad, tearful.

A

c.
Delusions of Grandeur

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41
Q

When the EMT-B transports an overdose patient to the Emergency room, he/she should also transport ____________ with the patient.
Select one:

a.
Law enforcement

b.
The medications and empty bottles

c.
Family members

d.
Bystanders

A

b.
The medications and empty bottles

42
Q

Organs of excretion include all of the following except.
Select one:

a.
Kidneys

b.
Intestines

c.
Lungs

d.
Sweat glands

e.
Gonads

f.
Mammary glands

g.
Salivary glands

A

e.
Gonads

43
Q

If a paramedic or EMT receives orders from an online physician for a medication that is clearly contra-indicated and administers that medication with tragic results, who is responsible for this mistake?
Select one:

a.
The Physician giving the Order

b.
The Medical director

c.
The Paramedic or EMT Giving the medication.

d.
The receiving RN

A

c.
The Paramedic or EMT Giving the medication.

44
Q

What is the specific purpose for drug legislation?
Select one:

a.
To designate what is legal and Illegal.

b.
To protect the public from adulterated or mislabeled drugs

c.
To help the dealers make more money.

d.
To protect medical professionals from litigation.

A

b.
To protect the public from adulterated or mislabeled drugs

45
Q

___________ involves careful handling to prevent contamination.
Select one:

a.
Sterile technique

b.
Medically clean

c.
BSI

d.
Basic PPE

A

b.
Medically clean

46
Q

IM injections should be given at a _____ degree angle.
Select one:

a.
60

b.
90

c.
45

d.
30

A

b.
90

47
Q

_______ is defined as free of all forms of life.
Select one:

a.
Medical asepsis

b.
Sterile

c.
Medically clean

A

b.
Sterile

48
Q

__________ is a highly infectious disease, caused by a virus, that affects the grey matter of the Central Nervous System (CNS). The virus lives in the throat and intestinal tract. It is most often spread through person-to-person contact with the stool of an infected person and may also be spread through oral/nasal secretions. ________ used to be very common in the United States and caused severe illness in thousands of people each year before the _____ vaccine was introduced in 1955.
Select one:

a.
Spina Bifida

b.
Poliomyelitis

c.
Myasthenia Gravis

d.
Muscular Dystrophy

A

b.
Poliomyelitis

49
Q

Should a legal case be brought against you, your best defense in court is usually:
Select one:

a.
A complete and thorough PCR

b.
Your immediate recollection of events

c.
Your partner’s supporting testimony

d.
Dispatch records.

A

a.
A complete and thorough PCR

50
Q

“What were you doing when the pain started” is a question the Healthcare Provider asks to determine ______________.
Select one:

a.
The activities that could have caused the pain to begin

b.
How bad the pain is

c.
How many heart attacks the patient has had.

d.
If the patient could possibly have taken viagra

A

a.
The activities that could have caused the pain to begin

51
Q

Cardiac patients should be transported in which position?
Select one:

a.
Fowlers

b.
Semi-Fowlers

c.
Supine

d.
Position of Comfort

A

d.
Position of Comfort

52
Q

Preparation of the skin before applying the ECG electrodes should include all of the following except:
Select one:

a.
Clean the area with alcohol

b.
Abrade the skin with sandpaper

c.
Shave away excess hair

d.
Spray the area with cologne

A

d.
Spray the area with cologne

53
Q

Shock, if left untreated, results in ______________. Choose ALL correct answers
Select one or more:

a.
cell malfunction

b.
organ malfunction

c.
death

d.
multisystem organ failure

A

All of the above

54
Q

Some of the everyday hazards associated with working in EMS include_____. Choose ALL Correct!
Select one or more:

a.
Exposures to disease

b.
Cuts

c.
Scrapes

d.
Breaks

A

All of the above

55
Q

Elements of a properly written EMS document include:
Select one or more:

a.
Accurate

b.
Legible

c.
Timely

d.
Unaltered If alterations are necessary, make sure they have been completed properly and added to all outstanding copies (hospital, billing, etc.)

e.
Free of non-professional/extraneous information.

A

All of the above

56
Q

Shock, if left untreated, results in ______________
Choose ALL correct answers

Select one or more:

a.
cell malfunction

b.
organ malfunction

c.
death

d.
multisystem organ failure

A

All of the above

57
Q

A normal delivery consists of the fetus, membranes, umbilical cord and placenta being delivered outside of the woman’s uterus.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

58
Q

A patient with hypoxia may present with an altered mental status.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

59
Q

Adults can maintain their blood pressure until their blood volume is more than half gone.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

60
Q

After personal safety, maintaining an open airway is the highest priority in patient care for all healthcare providers.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

61
Q

Arteries carry blood to the heart.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

62
Q

Artificial ventilation for the basic level healthcare provider consists of, in order of preference: Mouth-to-mask with supplemental oxygen, One person bag-valve-mask, Flow restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device, Two person bag-valve-mask
Select one:
True
False

A

False

63
Q

Bronchitis and Emphysema are classified as COPD.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

64
Q

EMS should stage and wait for law enforcement for any potentially violent scene.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

65
Q

If the mother states she feels pressure in the vaginal area the health care provider needs to check for crowning during a contraction and ask if the mother feels the need to push.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

66
Q

It is always a good idea to use some form of airway adjunct when providing ventilatory assistance for a patient.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

67
Q

One of the most important things a healthcare provider can do for a newborn is provide blow-by oxygen immediately following delivery.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

68
Q

Premature births occur before the 37th week of pregnancy.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

69
Q

The EMT should request any patient with a respiratory illness that may be contagious to wear a mask for everyone.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

70
Q

The human body must have what is referred to as a primary response to a particular antigen.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

71
Q

The onset of labor is defined as regular, painful uterine contractions resulting in progressive cervical effacement and dilatation.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

72
Q

Trauma is the leading cause of death worldwide.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

73
Q

When suctioning an adult patient the healthcare provider should not suction for more than 15 seconds.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

74
Q

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction causing a life threatening response that involves the entire body
Select one:
True
False

A

True

75
Q

Accurate patient assessment is something the healthcare provider must master in order to make quick decisive decisions to manage each patient and make the appropriate choice to transport the patient to the right facility for definitive care
Select one:
True
False

A

True

76
Q

Additional areas of circulation assessment include controlling excessive bleeding, skin temperature, color, and condition
Select one:
True
False

A

True

77
Q

Pertinent negatives are signs and symptoms associated with a particular complaint that should be present but are not.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

78
Q

The windshield assessment is completed as the unit arrives on the scene.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

79
Q

While enroute you can start thinking about things such as the time of day, area you are responding too, and temperature outside.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

80
Q

Chronic psychiatric patients generally have poor appearance and characteristics that are not acceptable to society
Select one:
True
False

A

True

81
Q

When treating the patient suffering from a behavioral emergency, approach the patient with a calm and sure manner. Don’t be overbearing, but also do not allow the patient to control the scene either.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

82
Q

Some pediatric dosages are based on the patients body surface area.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

83
Q

The physiological affects of aging will not alter pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of medications.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

84
Q

When the EMT B administers a medication, the ordering physcian is responsible for the outcome of the patient receiving the medication.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

85
Q

When withdrawing medications from glass ampules, you should use a Filter Needle, draw up the medication by inserting the needle into the ampule and withdrawing the medication.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

86
Q

Stridor, snoring, wheezing, and rales are examples of abnormal breath sounds.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

87
Q

Snoring is the complete upper airway obstruction caused by the tongue.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

88
Q

Wheezing is the whistling sound caused by narrowing of the airways from edema, bronchospasm, or obstruction.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

89
Q

Croupe is a rattling sound caused by a lower airway obstruction, found primarily in young children.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

90
Q

Rales are a buildup of fluid in the smaller airways, caused by CHF and pulmonary edema.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

91
Q

Status epilepticus is the most serious seizure disorder and a medical emergency because the seizure does not stop. Electrical discharges occur throughout the brain, causing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Status epilepticus is diagnosed when a seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or when people do not completely regain consciousness between seizures. People have convulsions with intense muscle contractions and cannot breathe adequately. Body temperature increases. Without rapid treatment, the heart and brain can become overtaxed and permanently damaged, sometimes resulting in death
Select one:
True
False

A

True

92
Q

People with autistic disorder usually have significant language delays, social and communication challenges, and unusual behaviors and interests. Many people with autistic disorder also have intellectual disability. <br></br>
Select one:
True
False

A

True

93
Q

Cerebral palsy (CP) is a group of disorders that affect the brain and nervous system and affect a person’s ability to move and maintain balance and posture. CP is the most common motor disability in childhood. <br></br>
Select one:
True
False

A

True

94
Q

Children diagnosed with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome may be at greater risk for abuse and/or neglect. <br></br>
Select one:
True
False

A

True

95
Q

Handwritten ACRs should be written legibly.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

96
Q

The accuracy of an ACR/PCR depends on each piece of information on the report.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

97
Q

Improperly placed electrodes or poorly prepped skin could lead to a poor tracing of the ECG.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

98
Q

It is acceptable to defibrillate in a moving ambulance.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

99
Q

Capnography can be used to Detect effective CPR.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

100
Q

Capnography can be used to detect a disconnection from the BVM or Ventilator.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

101
Q

To prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage, the healthcare provider should ____________.

a.
perform a fundal massage

b.
perform a nuchal massage

c.
place a transparent film dressing over the vaginal opening

d.
place a non-adherent wet dressing over the vaginal opening

A

a.
perform a fundal massage

EMT Basic Refresher (3 decks)

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