Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Regulations! > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

The federal aviation regulations are under which title of the US code?

A

Title 49

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In relation to the federal aviation regulations, the airlines

A

May opted to achieve standards above the minimum standards that are laid out in the regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following types of regulations are not considered “enforceable” regulations

A

Authority and responsibility regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Part 25 of the FARS address which topic

A

Aircraft certification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are important things to consider when reading a regulation

A

To whom does it apply?
When it must be a accomplished
Where the regulations must be complied with
(All of the above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the best way to determine the intent of the regulation?

A

The best way to determine the intent of the regulation is by reviewing the preamble for the regulation. The preamble can easily be found in the federal register.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are other sources for guidance when trying to determine the intent of a regulation

A

Advisory circulars
FAA orders
FAA handbooks
(All of the above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is/are true about the expiration of a SFAR (special federal aviation regulation)?

A

Expires when the conditions no longer exist
May eventually be incorporated into the part of the regulation that the SFAR is referencing
(Both A&B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If you have questions about the regulations regarding pilot certification, you would look under which of the following parts

A

Part 61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If you were interested in the operating requirements for a domestic, flag, or supplemental operations, you would look under which of the following parts?

A

Part 121

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If you were interested in the operating requirements for commuter, and on demand operations, you would look under which of the following parts?

A

Part 135

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The administrative procedures act of 1946

A

Established the process of informal rulemaking, and the notice & comment period for proposed rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After the final rule is published, the effective date

A

Must be at least 30 days from the date of publication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The federal advisory committee act of 1972 established a requirement for formal advisory committees. These committees prevent

A

Prevents any individual or group from having undue influence on the regulatory process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The regulatory flexibility act of 1980

A

(All of the above)
States that the FAA must consider the impact on proposed entities by conducting an analysis
Analysis must consider which alternatives are accepted/rejected
Does not require an outcome of the analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The small business regulatory enforcement fairness act of 1966

A

Requires that the FAA provide compliance guides explaining the actions a small entity may take to comply with the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The freedom of information act of 1966 is a law that provides the right to access DOT, FAA, or any other agency records, unless it is reasonably for seen that the release of the information would harm an interest protected by one or more of the exemptions. These exemptions include:

A

Classified national defense/foreign relations information
Trade secrets or other confidential business information
Information involving matters of personal privacy
(all of the above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

As part of the pilots records improvement act of 1966, an air carrier must adequately investigate the pilots background before allowing the pilot to conduct commercial air carrier flights. This is investigation includes:

A

The previous five years of the pilots background
Any safety related records
(A&B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Due to a recent change in the pilots records improvement act, background information about a pilot must be…

A

Turned into a FAA database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As part of the informal rulemaking process, the general public…

A

Can make comments on proposed rules. These comments will be looked at and considered, although not always acted upon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Make sure you look at PRD extra credit questions on the back of quiz four

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that the FAA uses to identify a need for rule making?

A

Financial concerns of the airlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When the FAA receives a petition, they must act within what time Period?

A

Six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of the unfunded mandate assessment?

A

To assess the impact of the proposal on state and local governments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

After the NPRM is reviewed by several people within the FAA offices, it next is reviewed by the:

A

The secretary of transportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long is a typical comment period on an NPRM?

A

30 to 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can final rules ever be made effective sooner than 30 days from their issuance?

A

Yes, if there is good cause
Yes, if the rule relieves and existing restriction
(A&B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Airworthiness directives

A

Are mandatory
Are issued when an unsafe condition exists in a product
(B&C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following are ways that the public can participate in the rule making process?

A

Sending the FAA comments on rule making documents
Participating in an FAA sponsored public meeting
Requesting the FAA to reopen a comment Period.
(All of the above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following statements is true in regards to the comments that the FAA receives?

A

The FAA can consider comments made before, during, and after the comment period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An extension of a comment period is

A

(B&C)
Must be filed within 10 days before the end of the comment period.
Often happens when someone sends a comment requesting an extension .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When the FAA reopens a comment period due to significantly changing the substance of a proposed rule as a result of an oral communication, they will often issue a …

A

supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Examples of types of petitions to the FAA include

A

Approval of an air carrier training program
Approval for an addition to the operations specifications
Acceptance of transition plans from merging air carriers
(all of the above)

34
Q

An exemption is

A

Alternative method for complying with a regulatory requirement

35
Q

An authorization is

A

An FAA authorization for a special circumstance

36
Q

A Waiver is

A

FAA approval to put aside a specific rule

37
Q

A deviation is

A

FAA approval to diverge from part of the regulations

38
Q

Which comments are included in the preamble of a final rule?

A

Significant comment, grouped by issue

39
Q

Don’t forget to look at lithium batteries and secondary cockpit doors on quiz five

A
40
Q

If you were wondering how to become an aircraft dispatcher, which part of the FARs would you reference?

A

Part 65

41
Q

Which of the following part of the FARs addresses, aircraft types, certifications for transport category aircraft?

A

Part 25

42
Q

When a manufacturer is issued a types certificate

A

They must then apply and receive a production types certificate before they can start producing aircraft
They must also provide a type certificate data sheet
(B&C)

43
Q

An experimental aircraft would be issued a

A

Special airworthiness certificate

44
Q

What is a TSO?

A

A minimum performance standard issued by the FAA for specified materials, parts, etc

45
Q

Fractional ownership is addressed under which part of the FARs?

A

Part 91 sub part K

46
Q

“Common carriage” means

A

Operations for compensation/hire, where the operator does hold itself out to the public through advertising, etc

47
Q

Flag operations include those operations that take place

A

Between the continental US and Hawaii/Alaska, or between the continental US and anywhere outside the US
Between two destinations outside of the US
(A&C)

48
Q

Advisory circulars are

A

Organized by the part of the FAR’s they are addressing

49
Q

Airworthiness directives are

A

Mandatory

50
Q

The FAA FSIMS order 8900.1

A

Addresses policies and procedures for FAA inspectors

51
Q

Don’t forget to look at extra credit questions for commercial balloon, pilots and airport SMS quiz six

A
52
Q

What is the VDRP?

A

Voluntary disclosure reporting program
Airlines tell on themselves

53
Q

What is the ASAP program?

A

Aviation safety action program
Employees report on the airline

54
Q

What is the FOQA?

A

Flight operation quality assurance program
FAA gathering information for part 135 and 121

55
Q

What is ASRP?

A

Aviation safety reporting program
NASA form
Airman reporting themselves

56
Q

Name the primary type of surveillance which the FAA uses to measure compliance by users of the Aviation system?

A

Inspections

57
Q

To encourage voluntary compliance, name, two pieces of evidence, or sources of information that the FAA may not use against an airman or operator in an enforcement action

A

Voice recorders
NASA form ASAP form

58
Q

Name the three methods available to the FAA to address compliance, and enforcement of the FAR’s against airman/pilots

A

Civil and $ penalty
Temporary suspension of licenses and privileges
Suspended licenses and privileges

59
Q

Describe the three things which the 2012 pilots bills of right statute requires the FAA to advise the recipient in a letter of investigation

A

Evidence being used
What they’re being invested for
Miranda rights

60
Q

Identify two important issues contained in the 2012 pilots bill of rights which gives pilots additional resources to defend against an FAA certificate action

A

Evidence
No hearsay

61
Q

When receiving a notice of proposed certificate action from the FAA, the pilot can ignore the time deadline to answer without prejudice

A

False

62
Q

When receiving a notice of proposed certificate action from the FAA, the pilot certificate becomes invalid upon the receipt of the notice

A

False

63
Q

Identify the four options available to a pilot in response to receiving a notice of proposed certificate action

A

1) surrender
2) write back saying you will Lawyer up
3) Informal conference w/ FAA
4) appeal

64
Q

Identify the time period is by which FAA must file in notice of proposed certificate, action from the date of the incident for seeking a revocation or suspension of your certificate

A

Six months

65
Q

Identify the time. By which the FAA must file a notice of proposal certificate, action from the date of the incident for seeking a civil penalty.

A

Two years

66
Q

List two exceptions where the NASA form may not be used by an airman

A

Criminal
10 days past the incident

67
Q

How often will an airman receive the benefit of filing the NASA form from the FAA

A

Once every five years

68
Q

With an order of suspension when does the pilot lose his/her privileges?

A

When the pilot sends in their certificate

69
Q

With an emergency order of suspension when does the pilot lose his/her privileges

A

Immediately

70
Q

UAVs

A
71
Q

Where do I find the UAV regulations?

A

14 CFR, part 107

72
Q

When must the manufacturer of Jones include a remote transmitting device on the drone?

A

September 2023

73
Q

When must a UAV pilot comply with the remote transmitting final rule?

A

September 2023

74
Q

What are the pathways to compliance?

A

Rulemaking, certification, compliance, enforcement

75
Q

Who does part 67 apply to

A

Pilots

76
Q

Where are medicals addressed

A

Part 67

77
Q

Saraceni act

A

Comply two years after date of the final rule so June 2025

78
Q

Lithium batteries

A

Cannot carry on passenger, carrying transport as cargo
Not in the FARs , addressed by the environmental section title, 49
Must be drained to at least 30%

79
Q

Who must comply with the SMS airport requirements

A

Small, medium and large hubs
100,000 arrivals and departures
Airport with International flights

80
Q

Part five of regular SMS plans

A

Pertain to 121 airlines

81
Q

Who is allowed to ask for the operators paperwork of a drone?

A

FAA, NTSB, any law-enforcement, first responders, TSA,

Regulations! (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions