Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

positioning > final review > Flashcards

final review Flashcards

1
Q

where is the top of the IR for an esophagram

A

2 inches above shoulder, mouth level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where is the CR for UGI images

A

L1, 2” above lower rib margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what contrast is given if suspected abdominal perforation / recent intestinal surgery

A

water soluble - gastrografin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

inner layer of the stomach contains folds called

A

rugae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the first portion of the small intestine

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

on an LPO UGI - where is the barium in the stomach

A

fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

on a RAO UGI - where is the barium in the stomach

A

pylorus , lower body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the 4 body habitus in order from smallest to largest

A

asthenic, hyposthenic, sthenic , hypersthenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what body habitus is the highest % of the population

A

sthenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

shortest & widest section of the small intestine

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

longest section of the duodenum

A

ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the pouches in the large intestine are called?

A

haustra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the haustra held together by

A

teni coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when is a small bowel exam complete

A

when barium passes the ileocecal valve (sphincter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the maximum height that a BE bag should hang

A

24 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is it called where the small intestine ends and the large intestine begins

A

ileocecal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

for the BE AP axial projection , where is the CR , how much angle & direction , what does it demonstrate

A

CR 2” below ASIS, 30-40 degrees cephalic , looking at the sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

for a BE lateral projection , where is the CR , what does it demonstrate

A

CR @ ASIS , rectum is demonstrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do the RPO & LPO projections demonstrate for a BE ?

A

side up, splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

on a left lateral decubitus BE where is the barium

A

lateral half of descending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the prep for a small bowel and BE

A

NPO 8 hrs , no smoking / chewing gum , low residue diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what filters the blood

A

glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the opening on the medial border of a kidney

A

hilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what supplies blood to the glomerulus

A

afferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the CR for AP IVU

A

iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how much is the patient rotated for AP obliques IVP

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the breathing for IVU images

A

expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

are scout images done for IVU

A

yes - to see if they prepped and/or stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is it called when fluid is injected into tissues instead of a vein

A

infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what could be a common and and anaphylactic reaction

A

anxiety & passing out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define cystogram

A

examination of urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where is the CR for AP bladder

A

2” above symphysis pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

retrograde technique is used to visualize what anatomy

A

bladder , lower ureters , urethra
* nonfunctional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which contrast , ionic or nonionic, is more expensive

A

nonionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what contrast has more reactions from patients

A

ionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

is the same amount of contrast used if ionic or nonionic

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what houses the pituitary gland

A

sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what bones articulate with the perpendicular plate

A

frontal , & sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the breathing instructions for skull radiographs

A

suspend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

for a PA skull what line is perpendicular to the IR

A

OML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where are the petrous ridges on a PA

A

fill orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

where are the petrous ridges on a caldwell

A

lower 1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where is the CR for a PA

A

exits nasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CR for caldwell?

A

exits nasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the tube angle for caldwell

A

15 degrees caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is in the foramen magnum on a towne

A

dorsum sellae & posterior clinoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

if you your patient cannot achieve a perpendicular OML , what can be done

A

IOML , 37 degree caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what line is perpendicular to the IR for the Towne

A

OML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CR & angle for an AP axial towne

A

2.5” above glabella , 30 degrees caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what bones form the hard palate

A

maxilla & palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

largest movable facial bone

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

largest immovable facial bone

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

body position for sinus images

A

upright, to demonstrate air - fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CR for waters , what touches IR?

A

acanthion, chin

55
Q

what touches IR for caldwell

A

nose & forehead

56
Q

what sinus projection demonstrates all 4 sinuses

A

lateral

57
Q

where are the ethmoid sinuses in relation to the maxillary sinuses on a lateral projection

A

superior

58
Q

what projection best demonstrates a blowout fracture of the orbits

A

modified waters

59
Q

what is the membrane around the lungs

A

pleura

60
Q

inner layer of lungs, outer ?

A

inner - visceral
outer - parietal

61
Q

why is a chest x-ray done upright

A

prevent distortion of the heart , allows for deeper inspiration

62
Q

pronation

A

palm down

63
Q

supination

A

palm up

64
Q

retroperitoneal structures

A

kidneys , ureters , adrenal glands , pancreas

65
Q

what organ functions in both digestive and respiratory systems

A

pharynx

66
Q

for a lateral projection of the digits , what side is down for each?

A

1,2,3 digit - lateral side down
4&5 - medial side down

67
Q

CR for thumb

A

MCP

68
Q

most superior process of the ulna

A

olecranon process

69
Q

how can you reduce OID for PA wrist

A

flex the fingers

70
Q

how is the hand positioned for AP humerus

A

supinate hand

71
Q

how is the hand positioned for a lateral humerus

A

flex elbow, posterior side of hand on hip

72
Q

the only bony connection between shoulder girdle & the bony thorax

A

SC joint

73
Q

CR for foot

A

base of 3rd metatarsal

74
Q

what aspect of the patella is superior

A

the base

75
Q

the apex on the patella is _____

A

inferior

76
Q

is the knee joint superior or inferior to the base of the patella

A

inferior

77
Q

what bones articulate with the head of the femur , collectively known as ?

A
  • pubis , ilium , ischium
  • acetabulum
78
Q

how are the feet and legs positioned for AP pelvis

A

internally rotated

79
Q

internally rotating the feet for an AP pelvis places the long axis of the femoral neck ________ to the IR

A

parallel

80
Q

what forms the costotransverse joint

A

transverse process of T spine , & tubercle of rib

81
Q

what does the L spine oblique projection demonstrate

A

Z joints - superior & inferior articulating process

82
Q

CR angle and direction for AP sacrum

A

15 degrees cephalic , between symphysis pubis & ASIS

83
Q

what projection would best demonstrate the right axillary portion of the ribs

A

RPO

84
Q

what ribs does the AP projection best demonstrate

A

posterior ribs

85
Q

during an UGI what position might the patient be placed in, to check for hiatal hernia

A

trendelenburg

86
Q

the _____ suture is made up of the frontal and parietal bones

A

coronal suture

87
Q

what bone has the sella turcica

A

sphenoid

88
Q

what term describes the junction of the two nasal bones

A

the nasion

89
Q

how many facial bones make up the bony orbit

A

4

90
Q

what bone is the perpendicular plate on

A

ethmoid

91
Q

the gallbladder is located in the __________ margin of the liver

A

posterioinferior

92
Q

which structure in the pharynx prevents aspiration of food and fluid into the larynx

A

epiglottis

93
Q

the esophagus extends from C5- C6 to

A

T11

94
Q

are vitamins digested

A

no

95
Q

the esophagus is located ________ to the larynx

A

posterior

96
Q

a patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis, what study is most diagnostic for detecting this condition

A

double contrast barium enema

97
Q

what drug can be added to the barium sulfate mixture to minimize intestinal spasms during a barium enema

A

lidocaine

98
Q

the structural and functional unit of the kidney is

A

nephron

99
Q

what term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control

A

urination

100
Q

the ureters enter the ________ aspect of the bladder

A

posteriolateral

101
Q

what modality may be used to examine a possible cranial bleed caused by trauma

A

CT

102
Q

achalasia is generally defined as

A

motor disorder of the esophagus

103
Q

what is a bezoar

A

a mass of undigested material

104
Q

during an upper GI series , the halo sign appears in the duodenum, what condition will produce this radiographic sign

A

an ulcer

105
Q

in which quadrant is the liver located in the sthenic patient

A

RUQ

106
Q

the union of the left and right hepatic ducts form which duct

A

common hepatic duct

107
Q

the primary purpose of the membranous fold located within the cystic duct

A

prevents distension or collapse of cystic duct

108
Q

the condition of having gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

109
Q

which is not a salivary gland

A

vallecula

110
Q

what structure does not pass through the diaphragm

A

trachea

111
Q

where is cholecystokinin produced

A

duodenum

112
Q

gastritis is defined as inflammation of the

A

stomach

113
Q

what defines stomach indentation between the body through pylorus

A

angular notch

114
Q

average kidney size / length

A

4-5 inches

115
Q

CR nephrotomogram kidney

A

midway between iliac crest & xiphoid process

116
Q

T/F: all reactions regardless of their severity must be documented

A

true

117
Q

the uterus lie on the _______ surface of each psoas muscle

A

anterior

118
Q

which bone is involved with the tripod fracture

A

zygomatic

119
Q

which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial projection

A

maxillary

120
Q

the left mastoid fontanel becomes what in an adult

A

left asterion

121
Q

another term for laxative

A

cathartic

122
Q

a patient comes to the Rad department with a clinical history of meckels diverticulum , which imaging modality is most often performed for this condition

A

nuc med

123
Q

Which positioning line should be perpendicular to the image receptor for the parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese method) projections for optic foramina?

A

AML

124
Q

What type of CR angulation should be used for a PA axial projection of the mandible?

A

20-25 degrees cephalad

125
Q

The pathway of communication between the frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid sinuses that provides drainage between them is termed:

A

osteomeatal complex.

126
Q

Which auditory ossicle attaches to the oval window?

A

stapes

127
Q

A patient comes to radiology with severe mastoiditis. Which one of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate possible bony destruction within the mastoid region

A

CT

128
Q

What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder

A

350-500 mL

129
Q

The renal veins connect directly to the

A

inferior vena cava

130
Q

A loss of consciousness caused by reduced cerebral blood flow is termed:

A

syncope

131
Q

How high should the tourniquet be placed above the puncture site

A

3-4”

132
Q

A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. During the procedure, the radiologist suspects nephroptosis. Which of the following positions best demonstrates this condition?

A

erect

133
Q

A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. His laboratory report indicates a creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL. What should be the technologist’s next step

A

proceed with the study

134
Q

Excretion of a diminished amount of urine in relation to the fluid intake is the general definition for:

A

oliguria

positioning (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions