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positioning > cranium > Flashcards

cranium Flashcards

1
Q

how many cranial bones are there?

A

8

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2
Q

how many facial bones are there?

A

14

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3
Q

the average head shape is termed _____ with the width being______% of the length

A

mesocephalic, 75-80

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4
Q

in the average skull, the petrous pyramids form an angle of

A

47 degrees

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5
Q

short skull, broad head , with the width being 80% or greater than the length

A

brachycephalic

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6
Q

long narrow skull/head. width is less than 75%

A

dolichocephalic

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7
Q

what bones create the floor of the cranium

A

right & left temporal , sphenoid , & ethmoid

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8
Q

the smooth raised prominence between the eyebrows just above the bridge of the nose

A

glabella

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9
Q

slight depression above each eyebrow

A

supraorbital groove

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10
Q

the superior rim of each orbit

A

supraorbital margin

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11
Q

eminence on each side of the squamous portion of the frontal bone

A

frontal tuberosity

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12
Q

joints of the cranium are classified as

A

fibrous, synarthrodial type

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13
Q

the sella turcica and dorsum sella are best demonstrated on which projection

A

lateral

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14
Q

suture that separates the frontal bone from the two parietal bones

A

coronal

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15
Q

suture that separates the two parietal bones along the midline

A

sagittal

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16
Q

suture that is posterior and separates the two parietal bones from the occipital bone

A

lambdoidal

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17
Q

sutures formed by the junction of the two parietal bones with their respective temporal bones

A

squamous

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18
Q

the external ear begins with the ______ on each side of the head

A

auricle or pinna

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19
Q

the three main parts of the middle ear are

A

the tympanic membrane, 3 auditory ossicles, and the tympanic cavity

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20
Q

considered part of the middle ear & external ear because it serves as a partition

A

the tympanic membrane

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21
Q

a passage way between the middle ear and the nasopharynx ; helps equalize atmospheric pressure in the middle ear

A

the eustachian tube

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22
Q

anterior end of the sagittal suture

A

the bregma

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23
Q

second direct communication into the middle ear, occurs posteriorly at the mastoid air cells

A

mastoids

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24
Q

vibrations are first picked up by the

A

malleus

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25
Q

the smallest of the three auditory ossicles

A

stapes

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26
Q

the bony labyrinth or osseous is divided into what 3 parts?

A

cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals

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27
Q

fractures of the skull that appear jagged or irregular lucent lines that lie at right angles to the axis of the bone

A

linear fracture

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28
Q

fractures when a fragment of the bone is separated and depressed into the cranial cavity

A

depressed fracture

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29
Q

skull fracture that fractures through the inner structure of the temporal bones

A

basal fracture

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30
Q

a bacterial infection of the mastoid process that can destroy the inner part of the mastoid process, results from middle ear infections

A

acute mastoiditis

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31
Q

refers to the lower posterior angle on each side of the jaw or mandible

A

gonion or angle

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32
Q

the midline point of the junction of the upper lip and the nasal septum

A

the aconthion

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33
Q

a flat triangular area that projects as the chin

A

mentum

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34
Q

which aspect of the frontal bone is thin walled and forms the forehead

A

squamous

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35
Q

T/F: the sphenoid bone articulates with all the other cranial bones

A

true

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36
Q

reid base line is an older term for

A

IOML

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37
Q

what positioning error frequently results in a repeat exposure of a cranial position

A

rotation

38
Q

what is the thickest and densest structure in the cranium

A

petrous portion

39
Q

the shallow depression just posterior to the base of the dorsum sellae and anterior to the foramen magnum is the

A

clivus

40
Q

the foramen magnum is on what bone

A

occipital

41
Q

the petrous ridge is on what bone

A

temporal

42
Q

the sella turcica is on what bone

A

sphenoid

43
Q

the EAM is on what bone

A

temporal

44
Q

the inion is on what bone

A

occipital

45
Q

the lateral condylar portions are located on the

A

occipital bone

46
Q

the anterior clinoid process is on the

A

sphenoid bone

47
Q

what landmark corresponds to the highest level of the petrous ridge

A

TEA

48
Q

how much difference in degree is there between the OML and the IOML

A

7-8 degree difference

49
Q

bone tumor originating in the bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

50
Q

fracture evident by sphenoid sinus effusion

A

basal fracture

51
Q

condition that begins with bony destruction followed by bony repair

A

paget’s disease

52
Q

destructive lesions with irregular margins

A

osteolytic neoplasm

53
Q

fracture of the skull with jagged or irregular lucent line that lies at an angle to the axis of the bone

A

linear fracture

54
Q

tangential view may help determine extent or degree of this fracture

A

depressed fracture

55
Q

what clinical indication may require a decrease in manual exposure factors

A

multiple myeloma

56
Q

what other modality may be used to examine a possible cranial bleed caused by trauma

A

CT

57
Q

which modality provides an excellent distinction between normal and abnormal brain tissue

A

MRI

58
Q

which aspect of the temporal bone is considered the thinnest

A

squamous portion

59
Q

what aspect of the temporal bone contains the organs of hearing and balance

A

petrous pyramid

60
Q

correct term for eardrum

A

tympanic membrane

61
Q

what middle ear structure is considered most lateral

A

malleus

62
Q

which positioning line is parallel to the IR for the SMV projection of the skull

A

IOML

63
Q

the frontal bone articulates with what four cranial bones

A

left & right parietal , sphenoid, ethmoid

64
Q

the crista galli is on what bone

A

ethmoid

65
Q

what positioning line of the head should be parallel with the plane of the IR for a lateral projection of the skull

A

GAL

66
Q

where should the CR exit for a PA skull

A

glabella

67
Q

where should the CR exit for a PA axial of the skull

A

nasion

68
Q

the AP axial projection of the skull is known as what method

A

townes

69
Q

CR for AP axial

A

30 degree caudal (OML)
37 degree caudal (IOML)

70
Q

the pterygoid process is on what bone

A

sphenoid

71
Q

top of the head is called

A

the vertex

72
Q

the joint between the temporal and parietal bones

A

squamosal suture

73
Q

what bone contains the hypophyseal fossa

A

sphenoid

74
Q

what bone contains the perpendicular plate

A

ethmoid

75
Q

the madibular fossa is on what bone

A

temporal

76
Q

the 3 auditory ossicles

A

stapes, malleus, incus

77
Q

what bone contains the auditory ossicles

A

temporal

78
Q

what bone contains the basilar portion

A

occipital

79
Q

the cribiform plate is on what bone

A

ethmoid

80
Q

the point of closure of the mastoid fontanelle , at the junction of the temporal , occipital, and parietal bones is called

A

the asterion

81
Q

the point where the anterior fontanelle closes is called

A

the bregma

82
Q

what bone contains the clivus

A

sphenoid

83
Q

what bone contains the mastoid air cells

A

temporal

84
Q

what is the posterior portion of the sella turcica called

A

dorsum sellae

85
Q

the bones that form the jugular foramen

A

occipital & temporal

86
Q

each parietal bone articulates with 5 cranial bones ; list them

A

frontal, occipital, sphenoid , temporal & opposite parietal

87
Q

what bones does the occipital bone articulate with

A

2 parietals , 2 temporals, sphenoid, & atlas (C1)

88
Q

the temporal bone articulates with

A

occipital , sphenoid , and parietal

89
Q

the sphenoid bone articulates with what cranial bones

A

all 7 other cranial bones

90
Q

the ethmoid articulates with

A

the frontal and sphenoid bone

positioning (3 decks)

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