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AT 106 > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the atmosphere made of?

A

78% Nitrogen, 21% Oxygen, 1% Other

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2
Q

Effect of temperature on the atmosphere

A

affects the density of the air because when air is heated it expands

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3
Q

Effect of humidity on the atmosphere

A

affects the density of the air because water vapor is less dense than air

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4
Q

Effect of altitude on the atmosphere

A

affects the density of the air because there are fewer air molecules the further up you go

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5
Q

What is Standard Day?

A

59 degrees F
Sea level
Zero humidity
41 deg. N Lat.

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6
Q

Four forces

A

Thrust, Lift, Drag, Weight

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7
Q

Thrust

A

Thrust is a mechanical force generated by the engines to move the aircraft through the air

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8
Q

Lift

A

Lift is a mechanical force generated by a solid object moving through a fluid
Newton’s 3rd Law Applies: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

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9
Q

Drag

A

Drag is a mechanical force generated by a solid object moving through a fluid
Newton’s 1st Law Applies The Law of Inertia: If a body is at rest or moving at a constant speed in a straight line, it will remain at rest or keep moving in a straight line at constant speed unless it is acted upon by a force

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10
Q

Weight

A

Weight is a force caused by the gravitational attraction of the Earth

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11
Q

If the 4 forces are balanced …

A

the aircraft cruises at constant velocity and altitude

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12
Q

If the forces are unbalanced

A

the aircraft accelerates in the direction of the largest force

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13
Q

Bernoulli’s Principle

A

As the velocity of a fluid increases the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases

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14
Q

Coanda Effect (Downwash)

A

A moving stream of fluid in contact with a curved surface will tend to follow the curvature of the surface rather than continue traveling in a straight line

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15
Q

LIFT acts upward from the

A

Center of Pressure

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16
Q

WEIGHT acts downward from the

A

Center of Gravity

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17
Q

Changing Camber

A

increasing the angle that the wing meets the air

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18
Q

Changing Lift

A

The higher the AOA, the greater velocity of the air, and smaller area of the wing exposed the faster air

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19
Q

Parts of an airfoil

A

Leading edge, Chord line, Upper camber, Trailing edge, Lower camber, Angle of Attack (AOA)

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20
Q

Dihedral

A

angle of angle of wing from plane to wing tip

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21
Q

Mean Camber Line

A

refers to an imaginary line, created mathematically, when you subtract the distance from the chord line to the lower camber from the distance from the chord line to the upper camber

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22
Q

Lift Equation

A

L = CL½V2Sρ

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23
Q

Types of Drag

A

Parasite, Induced, Profile

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24
Q

Parasite Drag

A

The drag produced by air flowing over the surfaces not involved in producing lift

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25
Q

Induced Drag

A

The part of the drag of an airfoil caused by the lift, that is, the change in the direction of the airflow

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26
Q

Profile Drag

A

Parasite Drag of the airfoil

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27
Q

Stall

A

occurs when the angle of attack of an aerofoil exceeds the value which creates maximum lift as a consequence of airflow across it
Can happen at any speed

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28
Q

Drag Equation

A

D = CD½V2Sρ

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29
Q

Airfoil

A

shaped surface, such as an airplane wing, tail, or propeller blade, that produces lift and drag when moved through the air. An airfoil produces a lifting force that acts at right angles to the airstream and a dragging force that acts in the same direction as the airstream

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30
Q

Why were early designs of the airfoil ditched?

A

Various minor setbacks

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31
Q

Transonic Airfoil

A

Reduces air velocity over upper surface and delays the drag that occurs near the speed of sound

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32
Q

Ground Effect

A

When an aircraft flies less than one-half its wingspan above the ground

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33
Q

Boundary Layer

A

causes an increase in drag

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34
Q

Wing Fences

A

Prevent the entire wing from stalling at once

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35
Q

Vortex Genrators

A

Small airfoils installed in pairs

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36
Q

Planform

A

Factors that affect the shape of the wing: purpose, load factors, speeds, construction costs, maintenance costs, maneuverability and stability

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37
Q

Sweepback Planform

A

Efficient at high speeds (near speed of sound)
Can get Dutch roll- plane keeps yawing back and forth
Need a yaw damper to prevent Dutch roll
Stall from wingtips first
Delays shock waves- aircraft can fly closer to the speed of sound
Unfavorable at slow airspeeds- most sweptwing planes have extensive leading and trailing edge flaps to compensate

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38
Q

Basic Parts of plane

A

Fuselage: The “body” of an aircraft
Empenage: the whole tail assembly
Nacelle (Powerplant): engine and mounting location
Wings: provides the majority of the lift an airplane requires for flight
Landing Gear (Struts): absorb the impact of the landing

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39
Q

Fuselage sections

A

longeron, skin, former, bulkhead, firewall, stringer

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40
Q

Wing Sections

A

skin, ribs, spar, stringers

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41
Q

Measurement stations

A

Fuselage (datum), wing (butt line), waterline (waterline)

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42
Q

Winglets

A

Located at the end of each wing, its purpose is to reduce the drag

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43
Q

Landing gear types

A

Conventional, Tricycle, Bicycle, Quadricycle, Main, Auxiliary

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44
Q

Antenna

A

Size and rotation corresponding to the type of work being received or transmitted
GPS antenna is always mounted to the top of an airplane. This is because the GPA satellites are in Space
Generally: longer antennas are used for radio communication and navigation (VHF frequencies), while shorter antennas are reserved for higher frequency data

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45
Q

control surface vs. primary vs. secondary flight control

A

Control Surface: A movable airfoil, or any surface used to control the aircraft in flight
Primary Flight Controls: Elevator, rudder, ailerons
Secondary Flight Controls: Modify the effects of the primary flight controls or air flows

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46
Q

Aileron Control

A

Move stick or yoke left and right

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47
Q

Slips vs. Skids

A

Slips: Deliberate skids are used in aerobatics and aerial combat
Skids: Deliberate slips done with vigorous application of roll and opposite rudder can be used as a dive brake

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48
Q

Adverse Yaw

A

the aircraft may roll one way but directionally turn the opposite

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49
Q

Flaps

A

a “high lift / high drag” device

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50
Q

Slats

A

“High lift” device typically found on jets

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51
Q

Trim Tabs

A

Secondary flight controls, which modify the position of the primary flight controls
Used to get flight control settings just right

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52
Q

Flight vs. Ground Spoilers

A

Flight: Deflect a small amount to reduce the lift on one wing at a time. Often hooked into the plane’s primary flight control system to help control roll at the ailerons
Ground: The primary purpose of the ground spoilers is to maximize wheel brake efficiency by “spoiling” or dumping the lift generated by the wing and thus forcing the full weight of the aircraft onto the landing gear

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53
Q

Speed Brakes

A

used to create drag to slow the airplane

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54
Q

Piston vs. Turbine Engines

A

Piston: Utilize heat energy to produce the power for propulsion
Turbine: Turbofan jet engine propulsion system

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55
Q

Potential vs. Kinetic

A

Potential: Energy of position or stored energy
Kinetic: Energy of motion

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56
Q

Chemical energy (fuel) to heat (combustion) to mechanical (rotation) =

A

Thrust

57
Q

Positive G’s vs. Negative G’s

A

Positive: Makes you feel heavier
Negative: Makes you feel lighter

58
Q

Categories of a/c

A

normal, utility, and acrobatic

59
Q

Static vs. Dynamic Stability

A

Static: Does the object attempt to return to its null, or home, or level position if displaced
Dynamic: Describes how its null, or home, or level position if displaced

60
Q

Positive vs. Neutral vs. Negative Stability

A

Positive: May wander around, but eventually settles on home
Neutral: Equilibrium encountered at any point of displacement
Negative: Tendency to continue in displacement direction (away from home)

61
Q

Dihedral vs. Anhedral

A

Sad Anhedral Plane
Happy Dihedral Plane

62
Q

How do sweepback wings increase yaw stability?

A

The wing approaches the air at an angle and gives the air more time to climb up the camber
Slightly less effective at making lift
The wing moving backward has less frontal area and not in straight relative wind produces more life and more induced drag
The wing moving forward presents more frontal area straight into the wind: lift and induced drag decrease

63
Q

Flap Types

A

Plain Flap: Simply hinge the trailing edge downward
Split Flap: A flap which simply hinges a lower portion of the wing open
Slotted Flap: The hinge of the trailing edge leaves a gap between the wing and the flap
Fowler Flap: Tucks up inside the wing when retracted
Slotted Fowler Flap: Fowler flaps with multiple slots

64
Q

Leading Edge Devices

A

Droop Leading Edge: Lowers the AOA and Gives the wing a higher camber as the air sees it
Kreuger Flaps: Lower the AOA, increase camber, Make a more rounded leading edge

65
Q

Aspect Ratio of Wing

A

Gives the wings characteristics of a higher aspect ratio
Anything you can do to prevent the airflow from under the wing from rolling off the tip of the wing and creating a rolling vortex makes the wing seem to have a higher aspect ratio

66
Q

Bernoulli’s principal is no longer valid at supersonic speeds. Why?

A

Bernoulli’s Principle assumes that air is not compressible

67
Q

Compressibility of Air

A

As airflow approaches sonic speeds, air becomes a compressible fluid

68
Q

Speed of Sound

A

Aircraft speed: 0 mph = Speed of Sound: 760 mph
Aircraft speed: 200 mph = Speed of Sound: 560 mph
Aircraft speed: 760 mph = Speed of Sound: 0 mph

69
Q

Sonic Boom

A

shockwaves traveling faster than the speed of sound

70
Q

Mach Number

A

The speed of the aircraft in relation to the speed of sound

71
Q

Different regions of sonic flight

A

subsonic, transonic, sonic, supersonic, hypersonic

72
Q

Transonic Region

A

begins with the first evidence of sonic or supersonic flow around the aircraft anywhere

73
Q

Critical Mach Number

A

The speed in localized areas around the aircraft are supersonic though the aircraft is still subsonic

74
Q

Normal vs. Oblique Shock Waves

A

Normal: Occurs in front of a supersonic object if the flow is turned by a large amount and the shock cannot remain attached to the body
Oblique: Generated by the nose and by the leading edge of the wing and tail of a supersonic aircraft

75
Q

How is lift made at supersonic speed?

A

Lift is generated only by the angle of attack

76
Q

Parts of a Helicopter

A

Rotor Mast, Tail Rotor, Vertical Stabilizer, Engine & Transmission, Landing Skids, Cockpit, Main Rotor

77
Q

What do the four forces do in a hover and flight

A

In a hover, all four forces are acting vertically
In directional flight, the forces separate

78
Q

Collective Stick

A

increases AOA of blades collectively

79
Q

Cyclic Stick

A

Controls movement forward

80
Q

Swash Plate Operation

A

What the controls of a helicopter go through

81
Q

Droop vs. Coning

A

Droop: Blades bend down
Coning: Blades bend up

82
Q

What keeps the blades level?

A

Centrifugal force

83
Q

Anti-Torque Pedal

A

Controls the tail rotor

84
Q

Controling an Anti-Torque Pedal

A

To face left push on the left anti-torque pedal
To face right push on the right anti-torque pedal

85
Q

Fenestron

A

greatly reduces injuries due to people running into tail rotors, and reduces accidents where tail rotors strike objects

86
Q

Ways to eliminate a tail rotor

A

The two rotors on a tandem rotor helicopter rotate in opposite directions

87
Q

What are tandem rotor helicopters?

A

aircraft that have two main rotors and no tail rotor
Having two rotors eliminates need for tail rotor

88
Q

Airspeed _________ across the blade from the root to the tip.

A

increases

89
Q

3 problems in getting helicopters to fly

A
  1. Dissymmetry of Lift & Gyroscopic Precision
  2. Coriolis Effect (“ice skater” effect)
  3. Lead-lag movement caused by massive vibration
90
Q

How does a fully articulated rotor head solve the 3 main problems?

A
  1. Flapping hinges
  2. Lead-lag hinges
  3. Lead-lag dampeners
91
Q

Difference between fully articulated rotors, semi-rigid rotors, and rigid rotors

A

Fully Articulated: have both flapping and lead-lag hinges
Semi-Rigid: has a lead-lag hinge, but no flapping hinge
Rigid: there are no hinges in the rotor blades

92
Q

Gyroscopic procession

A

any force put into a spinning object takes effect 90 degrees later

93
Q

What is the difference between highest blade angle vs. highest disc angle

A

Highest blade angle is 90 degrees clockwise to the highest disc angle

94
Q

Why don’t we use pure aluminum as a material in aviation?

A

Pure aluminum is used as a “combination item” for other materials (i.e., iron)

95
Q

What is the most common alloy in aviation?

A

Al 2024

96
Q

What is the principal aluminum alloy for Al 2024? (anything 2XXX)

A

copper

97
Q

What does grain size mean?

A

A metal’s strength

98
Q

AC 43.13 1B

A

Advisory circular (AC) that contains methods, techniques, and practices deemed “acceptable”

99
Q

How would you identify what rivet to use?

A

by the loads imposed on the structure and by the manufacturer and the information found in the manufacturer’s Structural Repair Manual (SRM)

100
Q

What happens once the metal parts are cut and shaped to the form desired?

A

they must be drilled and deburred to prepare for the rivet or fasteners to be installed

101
Q

What is different in installing a rivet if it is flush-mount?

A

Hi-Lok fasteners are used instead

102
Q

Parts of a bolt

A

Head: top part
Shank: bottom part
Grip: top smooth part of shank
Threads: bottom rough part of shank

103
Q

Where is torque applied on a bolt/nut fastener?

A

Torque is applied to the bolt/nut

104
Q

Safety devices

A

Safety wire
Cotter pins

105
Q

What can safety wire secure?

A

Nuts
Bolts
Oil filters
Cannon plugs
Anything that must not loosen during normal operations

106
Q

What is the difference between brazing and soldering?

A

Brazing uses higher temps than soldering

107
Q

Differences between MIG (Gas Metal Arc (GMAW)) and TIG (Tungsten Inert Gas) welding

A

MIG uses wire
TIG uses electricity

108
Q

What is a Type Certificate (TC)?

A

When the design of an aircraft meets the FAA’s standards

109
Q

What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)?

A

FAA document that records the type certification data of a product

110
Q

What is an Airworthiness Certificate?

A

Certificate issued for aircraft that are good to go

111
Q

What is in a TCDS?

A

Control surface movement limits, operating limitations, placards, and weight and balance, engines allowed, propellors allowed

112
Q

Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) vs. Parts Manufacture Approval (PMA) vs. Technical
Standard Order (TSO)

A

STC: approval of the modification of the aircraft, engine, or propeller
PMA: FAA approval of the manufacture only of non-commonly interchangeable parts on an aircraft
TSO: FAA approval of the design and manufacture of commonly interchangeable parts on an aircraft

113
Q

Standard vs. Special Airworthiness Certificates
What categories are in each?

A

Standard: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport, & manned free balloons
Special: primary, restricted, limited, light-sport, provisional airworthiness certificates, special flight permits, and experimental certificates

114
Q

Major repair and Form 337

A

request for engineering approval for the modification to an individual aircraft

115
Q

Airworthiness Directives

A

issued by the FAA and must be complied with
The owner or operator is responsible for knowing and complying with airworthiness directives

116
Q

Advisory Circular

A

produced by the FAA and compliance is voluntary

117
Q

Service Bulletins

A

Issued by aircraft and component manufactures to inform the owners about potential problems with the aircraft
Compliance is not required

118
Q

Mandatory Service Bulletins

A

Issued when a manufacturer, insurance companies, or the FAA want to try to force the aircraft owner to comply
Compliance is not required

119
Q

Service Letters

A

Sent by manufacturers as a means of providing non-critical information, or for clarifying maintenance manuals or pilot handbooks
Compliance is not required

120
Q

Maintenace Manuals

A

Written by the manufacturer and approved by the FAA
Compliance is required

121
Q

Minimum Equipment List

A

The master minimum equipment list is developed by the aircraft manufacturer and approved by the FAA
Compliance with the MEL is required

122
Q

Operation Specifications

A

Created by commercial airlines that is submitted to the FAA for approval
Compliance is required

123
Q

Manufacturer’s data supersedes any other source of information except what?

A

airworthiness directives

124
Q

ATA (Air Transport Association) Codes

A

Developed to standardize the order of maintenance manuals

125
Q

The ATA code should always be expressed as a _____ part number

A

three

126
Q

What do each of the following numbers represent in the ATA code?
26-22-03

A

26: Chapter/System (Universal on all aircraft)
22: Subsystem (Universal on all aircraft)
03: Unit in the subsystem (Can be defined by individual airline, manufacturer, or uses)

127
Q

Data plate

A

Contains the serial number of the aircraft
Is considered to theoretically BE the aircraft
If an airplane is scrapped, Unless the data plate is scrapped the aircraft theoretically still exists

128
Q

What must maintenance records include?

A

description of the work performed
date of completion of the work
signature and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service
the Total Aircraft time and time on life-limited parts
Current status of ADs

129
Q

Aircraft ownership =

A

“Bill of sale”

130
Q

Liens

A

Documents against the airplane recorded by the FAA

131
Q

What is the difference between a license and a certificate

A

Licenses must be periodically renewed. Certificates do not

132
Q

Offenses involving alcohol or drugs

A

Denial of an application for any certificate up to 1 year
Suspension or revocation of any certificate

133
Q

Temporary Certificate

A

Issued until your permanent certificate arrives

134
Q

Security Disqualifications

A

Security Disqualifications

135
Q

Don’t do these on a written test

A

Copy or remove the test
Give or receive part of a copied test
Give or receive help while it is being given
Take the test for another person
Take part in any other form of cheating

136
Q

Change of Adress rules

A

Within 30 days after any change in his permanent mailing address, the holder of a certificate issued under this part shall notify

137
Q

Refusal to submit to a drug test

A

Denial of an application for any certificate up to 1 year
Suspension or revocation of any certificate

138
Q

Eligibly Requirements

A

Must be 16 years old, and be able to read, write, speak, and understand English

AT 106 (2 decks)

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