Final Practise Exam

Question 1

What effect would a high fuel price have on the cost index (CI)?

Answer 1

CI decreases

Question 2

Is the value of MMR greater or less then MLRC?

Answer 2

Less than

Question 3

Would the rate of climb of a typical modern jet aircraft be greater at V2 or V2 + 15 knots?

Answer 3

V2 + 15 Knots

Question 4

A runway needs a displaced threshold due to an obstacle in the approach funnel. The obstacle is 300m from the displaced threshold. How high is the obstacle?

Answer 4

4.8m

Because you need to take away 60m and then find 2% of the remaining distance.

Question 5

How wide (both sides) is the straight JAR-OPS take off fan at a distance of 300m from the end of the TODA? The initial half width (1/2E0) is 90m.

Answer 5

255m

(90 + (0.125 x 300) = 127.5 x 2 = 255m

Question 6

How much is the net gradient reduced by (from gross gradient) for twin engine jet in the second segment?

Answer 6

0.8%

Question 7

You wish to use a thrust reduction on take off from a contaminated runway. Which of the following is true?

a) Flexible thrust (Airbus)/assumed temperature (Boeing) is forbidden. Derated thrust is allowed.
b) Thrust reduction on take off is forbidden from a contaminated runway.
c) Flexible thrust (Airbus)/assumed temperature (Boeing) is allowed. Derated thrust is forbidden.
d) Both flexible thrust (Airbus)/assumed temperature (Boeing) and derated thrust are allowed.

Answer 7

a

Question 8

8. During engine/aircraft certification it is assumed that TOGA thrust is used for a maximum of:

a) 5 min for all engines operating
b) 5 min for one engine inoperative
c) 10 min for all engines operating
d) There is no limit

Answer 8

a

Question 9

9. What is the obstacle clearance for take off with a turn of greater than 15° angle of bank?
   a) 15ft b) 25ft c) 35ft d) 50ft

Answer 9

d

Question 10

10. What is minimum width of the stopway for a runway with width 45m?
    a) 45m
    b) 60m
    c) 90m
    d) 152m

Answer 10

a

Question 11

11. What is the relationship between clearway and stopway?
    a) Clearway and stopway are the same
    b) All of the stopway can be used as clearway
    c) All of the clearway can be used as stopway
    d) Only some of the stopway can be used as clearway

Answer 11

b

Question 12

12. Where does the take off path end?
    a) Landing gear retracted
    b) Flaps retracted
    c) End of the take off distance
    d) 1500ft above the take off surface

Answer 12

d

Question 13

13. What speed is assumed at 35ft above the runway after an engine failure at VEF?
    a) V1
    b) V2
    c) V3
    d) VR

Answer 13

b

Question 14

14. What denotes the end of the first segment?
    a) Start of landing gear retraction
    b) End of landing gear retraction
    c) 35ft above the runway
    d) Start of flap retraction

Answer 14

b

Question 15

15. What limits the length of the third segment?
    a) 10nm from the end of the runway
    b) Obstacle(s)
    c) Climb performance at green dot speed
    d) Time limit of TOGA thrust

Answer 15

d

Question 16

16. V2 must not be less than
    a) 1.1VMCA and 1.13VS
    b) 1.1VMCA and 1.2VS
    c) 1.2VMCA and 1.1VS
    d) 1.2VMCA and 1.13VS

Answer 16

b

Question 17

17. TORwet is
    a) 1.15TORNwet
    b) 1.15TORNdry
    c) 1.15TORN-1dry
    d) max of {TORN-1wet, 1.15TORNwet}

Answer 17

d

Question 18

18. What is the gradient penalty for a twin engine jet driftdown?
    a) .5%
    b) .8%
    c) 1.1%
    d) 1.6%

Answer 18

c

Question 19

19. When calculating the vertical profile for a cabin depressurisation what limits the length of the intermediate cruise at FL140?
    a) Terrain
    b) Time limit of 10 min
    c) Flight crew oxygen supply
    d) Passenger oxygen supply

Answer 19

c

Question 20

20. The stopway can be used in landing performance calculations to increase LDA - True or False?
    a) True
    b) False

Answer 20

b

Question 21

21. Which of the following brings a jet aircraft close to coffin corner?
    a) Increasing altitude
    b) Increasing load factor
    c) Increasing weight
    d) All of the above

Answer 21

d

Question 22

22. Under which of the following would you apply the engine anti-ice adjustment to the cruise table?
    a) In cloud, TAT ≤ 10°C, SAT ≥ -40°C
    b) In cloud, TAT ≤ 10°C, OAT ≥ -40°C
    c) In cloud, TAT ≤ 0°C, OAT ≥ -40°C
    d) In cloud, TAT ≤ 0°C, SAT ≥ -40°C

Answer 22

a + vis 1600m

Question 23

23. Climbing at the green dot speed results in
    a) Least cost climb
    b) ECON climb
    c) Best gradient climb
    d) Best rate of climb

Answer 23

c

Question 24

24. Climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in a standard atmosphere will result in
    a) Decreasing TAS, decreasing IAS
    b) Decreasing TAS, increasing IAS
    c) Increasing TAS, increasing IAS
    d) Increasing TAS, decreasing IAS

Answer 24

a

Question 25

25. Maximum certified (structural) altitude is determined by
    a) ΔPMAX
    b) Residual rate of climb
    c) 1.3g buffet limit
    d) Driftdown performance

Answer 25

a

Question 26

26. Your aircraft has been delayed due to technical reasons. The costs associated with rebooking passengers connecting flights at destination are very high. Which cost index (CI) would you use for the flight?
    a) Low CI
    b) High CI
    c) CI for LRC
    d) CI for MRC

Answer 26

b

Question 27

27. Flex thrust must be at least what percentage of maximum take off thrust for the ambient conditions
    a) 25%
    b) 50%
    c) 75%
    d) 90%

Answer 27

c

Question 28

28. What is the most unfavourable centre of gravity for a driftdown?
    a) aft
    b) forward

Answer 28

b

Question 29

29. What factor must be added to the actual landing distance to give the required landing distance during flight planning?
    a) 15% b) 50% c) 60% d) 67%

Answer 29

d

Question 30

30. What speed is assumed at 400ft if an engine has failed at VEF?
    a) V2
    b) Green dot
    c) Flaps up speed
    d) Indeterminate - somewhere between V2 and Green dot

Answer 30

a