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Heavy Aircraft Systems > Brief points for final > Flashcards

Brief points for final Flashcards

1
Q

Define V1

A

Decision Speed
The maximum speed at which the crew can decide to reject the takeoff, and is ensured to stop the aircraft within the runway limits.
V1 is selected assuming a critical engine failure at Vef and after a 1 seconds recognition time.

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2
Q

TODdry is?

A

Is the greater of (TODn-1 dry and 1.15 TODn dry)

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3
Q

What is TODn-1 dry?

A

Distance covered from brake release to a point at which the aircraft is at 35ft above the t/o surface, assuming the failure of the critical engine.

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4
Q

What is 1.15TODn dry?

A

115% of the distance covered from brake release point to at which aircraft is at 35 ft above the surface with all engines operating.

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5
Q

What is the TORwet?

A

The greater of TORn-1 wet, 1.15 TORnwet

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6
Q

What is TODn-1 wet/TORn-1 wet

A

Distance covered from brake release to a point 15ft above the takeoff surface ensuring V2 speed to be achieved before the airplane is 35ft above takeoff surface, assuming the failure of the critical engine at Vef

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7
Q

Accelerated Stop distance ASD on a dry runway is?

A

The greater of the values ASDn-1dry and ASDn dry

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8
Q

What is ASDn-1 dry/wet?

A

Is a sum of the distances necessary to:

  • Accelerate with all engines operating to V1
  • Accelerate from Vef to V1 assuming the critical engine has failed and the pilot takes the first action 1 second later
  • Aircraft brakes and comes to a complete stop
  • Pus a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at a constant V1
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9
Q

What is ASDn dry/wet?

A

Is a sum of the distances necessary to:

  • Accelerate the aircraft with all engines operating to a V1 speed assuming pilots take action to reject the takeoff at V1
  • Aircraft comes to a complete stop
  • Plus a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at V1
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10
Q

What is the accelerated stop distance on a wet runway?

A

The greater value of ASDdry, ASDn-1 wet, ASDn wet`

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11
Q

What happens to TODn-1 and TORn-1 for a given weight if V1 increases?

A

Is that at all engine operating phase is longer with a higher V1 speed and consequently in the case of engine failure V2 speed can be reached quicker?

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12
Q

What happens to ASDn and ASDn-1, if there is an increase in V1?

A

With a higher V1 acceleration segments are longer and the deceleration segment from V1 to stop is longer and the 2-second segment at a constant V1 is longer so all this will increase ASD.

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13
Q

What is a balance field?

A

It is a function of V1 encountering for the takeoff and rejected takeoff minimum distances.

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14
Q

What is takeoff run available?

A

The length of the runway is declared by the appropriate authority and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.

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15
Q

What is the take-off distance available?

A

The runway length of the takeoff run is available plus the length of the clearway available.

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of a clearway?

A

CWY is an area beyond the runway:

  • Be centrally located about the runway centerline
  • Have a clearway plane, extending on an upwards slope of 1.25%
  • Have a minimum width not less than 152m or 500ft
  • Have no protruding objects or terrain
  • Lights may protrude above the plane if there height above the runway is 26 inches or less (0.66m)
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17
Q

What are the characteristics of a stopway?

A
  • Be at least a wide as the runway, and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway
  • Be able to support the airplane during a rejected takeoff without causing structural damage.
  • Designated by airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during abortive takeoff
  • ASDA is the length of the runway available plus the STPWY
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18
Q

What are the minimum climb gradients(n-1) for the 1,2 and 4th segments?

A
  • 0.0%
  • 2.4%
  • 1.2%
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19
Q

Explain the first segment of the Takeoff flight path?

A

It starts at V2 at 35ft in the t/o configuration accelerating at TOGA thrust, with the gear in the retraction phase. With the weight at the start of the retraction with nil ground effect.

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20
Q

Explain the second segment of the takeoff flight path?

A

Starts, when the gear has fully retracted the aircraft, is still in take-off configuration, and traveling at TOGA, Landing gear is retracted and weight reference is from when gear retracts and nil ground effect.

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21
Q

Explain the third segment of the takeoff flight path?

A

Starts at the acceleration height which is a minimum of 400ft. Aircraft flaps/ slats are all retracted and gear is up but the engine is still in TOGa thrust. Acceleration goes from V2 to green dot speed. Nil ground effect.

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22
Q

Explain the fourth segment of the takeoff flight path?

A

Starts when the enroute configuration has been achieved and the aircraft is in the clean configuration accelerating at MCT achieving green dot speed with gear retracted. Nil ground effect

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23
Q

How long is TOGA thrust certified for?

A

10 minutes in the case of an engine failure and 5 minutes with all engines operating.

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24
Q

When can MCT be selected?

A

When the aircraft is in the enroute configuration and at green dot speed.

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25
Q

What is the gross flight path?

A

Takeoff flight path actually flown by aircraft, from 35ft above the t/o surface.

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26
Q

What is the net flight path?

A

Gross takeoff flight path minus the mandatory reduction?

Net gradient = Gross gradient - Gradient penalty (0.8% for twin-engine aircraft)

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27
Q

What is a takeoff funnel?

A

Represent an area surrounding the takeoff flight path, within which all obstacles must be cleared by.

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28
Q

What is the lateral distance for the 1st segment of the takeoff fan. (JAROPS)

A

1/2Eo = 90m or (60m + 1/2 wingspan) “75m in NZ”

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29
Q

What is the lateral distance for the 2nd segment of the takeoff fan. (JAROPS)

A 
1/2E = 1/2Eo + 0.125xD
D = horizontal distance the airplane has traveled from the end of the takeoff distance available or the end of the takeoff distance.
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30
Q

What is the lateral distance for the 3rd segment of the takeoff fan? (JAROPS)

A

1/2E = 300m with sufficient navaid accuracy, 600m otherwise. “When a turn operating is involved with an HDG of more than15 degrees, lateral distance has to be greater than 600m or 900m without appropriate navigational aids.

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31
Q

What is a damp runway?

A

A runway is considered damp when the surface is not dry but when the moisture on it does not give a shiny appearance.

32
Q

What defines a wet runway?

A

The runway is considered wet when the runway surface is covered with water equivalent. (depth of less or equal to 3mm), or when there is sufficient moisture to cause a reflective appearance but without significant build-up areas of standing water.

33
Q

What defines a contaminated runway?

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:

  • Standing water more than 3mm of depth
  • Slush
  • Wet snow
  • Dry snow
  • Compacted snow
  • Ice
34
Q

What effects do hard contaminants like compacted snow and ice have on performance?

A

Reduce in friction forces

35
Q

What effect do fluid contaminants have on performance?

A

reduce friction forces and cause precipitation drag and aquaplaning.

36
Q

What are two types of precipitation drag?

A

Displacement Drag: Produced by the displacement of the contaminant fluid from the path of the tire
Spray Impingement Drag: Produced by the spray thrown up by the wheels onto the fuselage.

37
Q

What is the aquaplaning phenomenon?

A

The presence of water on the runway creates a water film between the tire and the runway leading to a reduction of the dry area. This is more critical at higher speeds where water cannot be squeezed out between the tires, Aquaplaning occurs when the tires are separated from the runway, traction, braking and directional steering will drop to nil.

38
Q

What are the benefits of takeoff at a thrust less than maximum takeoff thrust?

A

It increases engine life and reliability while reducing maintenance and operating costs,

39
Q

Explain a flexible takeoff?

A

Is a takeoff at a reduced thrust called flexible thrust. It is possible to determine the temperature at which the needed thrust would be maximum takeoff thrust for this temperature, (Tflex)
Thrust reduction cannot exceed 25% of the maximum takeoff thrust thus leading to a Tflex max,
Flexible t/o are not allowed on contaminated runways.

40
Q

Explain a derated takeoff?

A

Is the takeoff thrust less than the maximum takeoff thrust for which exists in the AFM a set of separate and independent takeoff limitations and performance data.
This leads to changes in VMCA and VMCG due to the different inputs in thrust.
Derated takeoff can be performed on all runways.

41
Q

In the case of an engine failure over mountainous terrain, what should you do?

A

Select MCT on the remaining engine and decelerate to green dot speed. Continue climbing or descending till you reach the green dot ceiling.

42
Q

What is the gradient penalty for a net drift down flight path?

A

1.1%

43
Q

Explain the emergency descent?

A

Descent at MMO/VMO, airbrakes can be extended to increase the rate of descent.

44
Q

What are the PAX oxygen requirements?

A
  • Above 15,000ft supply to 100% of passengers.
  • Between 14 - 15,000ft supply to 30% of passengers
  • Between 10 - 14,000ft Supply to 10% of passengers (not required for the first 30mintues)
  • Between 8 - 10, 000ft Supply to 2% of passengers
  • With a minimum of 10 minutes supply for 100% of passengers.
45
Q

What effect does an obstacle under the landing path have on LDA?

A

LDA may be shortened. LDA is from the displaced threshold to the end of the runway.
If there is an obstacle within the approach funnel a displaced threshold is input, consider from a 2% plane tangential to the most penalizing obstacle plus a 60m margin.

46
Q

What is the wind correction equation?

A

1/2 the wind speed and all the gusts.

Limited to minimum 5knots and maximum 15knots.

47
Q

What distance is ALD measured between?

A

A point 50ft above the runway surface to a point where the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

48
Q

Define the approach climb?

A 
Is the aircraft climb capability assuming one engine is inoperative. Maintain a minimum climb gradient of 2.1%
Aircraft configuration:
- One engine inoperative
- TOGA
- Gear up
- Slats and flaps in app config
- 1.23Vs1g< V < 1.41Vs1g
49
Q

Define the landing climb?

A

Is the aircraft climb capability assuming missed approach with all engines operating, going around in the landing configuration. With a minimum net climb gradient of 3.2%
Aircraft configuration:
- N engines
- Thrust is available 8 seconds after initiation of thrust control movement from idle to TOGA
- Gear extended
- slats and flaps in landing configuration
- 1.13Vs1g< V <1.23Vs1g

50
Q

What is the required landing distance on a dry runway way? RLDdry

A

Aircrafts landing weight must permit landing within 60% of the landing distance available.

51
Q

What is the required landing distance on a wet runway?

RDLwet

A

If the surface is wet, the required landing distance must be at least 115% of RLD of a dry surface.
1.15RLDdry < LDA = RLDwet

52
Q

What is the RLD of a contaminated runway?

A

The greater of ALDcontaminated x 1.15 or RLDwet

53
Q

What are the fuel jettisoning conditions?

A

When the MTOW minus the weight of fuel necessary for a 15-minute flight including (t/o, app, and landing at the departure airport) is more than the maximum go around weight a fuel jettisoning system must be available.

54
Q

What is this cost index eqaution?

A

CI = time cost/fuel cost

55
Q

What is specific range and the equation?

A

Specific range is the distance covered per fuel unit.

SR(NM/kg) = GS/ FF (TAS for air distance)

56
Q

What is Mmr?

A

Maximum range Mach number.

This corresponds to the maximum distance an aircraft can fly with a given fuel quantity.

57
Q

What is Mlrc?

A

Long-range cruise Mach number
At the Mlrc the specific range is 99% of that maximum specific range the 1% loss is compensated in speed.
Mlrc > Mmr

58
Q

What is Mcon?

A

Economic mach number corresponds to the mach number for the minimum direct operating costs.

59
Q

What is Required Landing Distance on a dry runway?

A

The aircraft must permit landing within 60% of the landing distance available at both destination and alternate.

60
Q

What is the required Landing Distance on a wet runway?

A

The required landing distance must beat least 115% if that of a dry surface.

61
Q

What will happens if the aircraft is operated at a constant mach number?

A

Wight will decrease and the gap between Mmr and Mach will increase, as a result fuel consumption increases pass optimum.

62
Q

What is optimum cruise altitude?

A

At a constant mach number there is a given altitude where SR is maximum, when aircraft flying at Mmr

63
Q

What is maximum cruise altitude?

A

Defined for a given weight, as the maximum altitude that an aircraft can maintain at maximum cruise thrust when the pilot maintains a fix mach number.

64
Q

What is the low limit mach number?

A

Low mach number limit is when speed decrease and aoa must be maintained to increase lift, which will eventually lead to the stall due to airflow separation and loss of lift.

65
Q

What is the high mach number limit?

A

This is the upper limit due to the shockwaves produced on the upper wings of the surface. When mach number or aoa increases airflow separates from the upper surface behind the shockwave, which becomes unstable and induces buffeting of the same type as encountered in the low speed case.

66
Q

What causes a decrease in load factor max?

A

Increase in pressure altitude

67
Q

What is the recommended altitude indicated by the FMS dependent on?

A 
Dependent on the weight and temperature conditions for the lowest of:
Maximum Certified altitude
Maximum cruise altitude
1.3g limit
Climb setting.
68
Q

When do cold temperature altitude corrections play effect and what conditions does error get greater.

A

When the temperature is colder than ISA conditions, true altitude will be lower than indicated altitude. Altimeter error will become significantly larger if surface temps approaches -30 degrees and with also an increase in height above altimeter reference source.

69
Q

What is TORdry?

A

The takeoff run dry is the greater of the following (TORn-1dry, 1.15 TORndry)

70
Q

What is TORn-1dry?

A

Distance covered from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which Vlof is reached and the point at which the aircraft is 35ft above the takeoff surface assuming engine failure at Vef.

71
Q

What’s 1.15 TORn dry/ 1.15 TORn wet?

A

115% Distance covered from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which Vlof is reached and the point at which the aircraft is 35ft above the takeoff surface

72
Q

TODwet = _______?

A

(max of TODn-1, TODdry)

73
Q

What is Tref?

A

At a given pressure altitude. temperature has no influence on engine takeoff thrust, below so called reference temperature. above this temperature engine thrust is limited by EGT, so as temperature increase thrust decrease.

74
Q

What is the critical engine?

A

Means the engine whose failure would most adversely affect performance or handling qualities.

75
Q

When calculating ASD when can you take into account reverse thrust?

A

Only when operating on wet or contaminated runways.

Heavy Aircraft Systems (2 decks)

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