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Suregery exam > Final past q 1 > Flashcards

Final past q 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which component is not a normal part of digital X-ray systems?

a) Viewer monitor
b) PSP plate
c) Flat panel detector
d) Intensifying screen

A

D

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2
Q

What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs?

a) 150 <
b) 105 <
c) < 105
d) 90-105

A

B

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3
Q

The proper name of the ‘oxspring’ view for the examination of the navicular bone is:

a) Palmaroproximal-Palmarodistal oblique view
b) Dorsoproximal-Palmarodistal oblique view
c) Caudoproximal-Craniodistal oblique view
d) Palmarolateral view

A

B

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4
Q

The medial aspect of the stifle joint is easily recognisable in this way:

a) The medial eminence of the tibia is larger
b) The medial eminence of the tibia is smaller
c) The fibula is on the medial aspect
d) The radius is placed laterally

A

A

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5
Q

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats: (?)

a) 10 mL/kg/h i.e. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
b) 1 mL/kg/h i.e. 17-20 drops/kg/h
c) 10 mL/kg/h i.e. 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d) 10 mL/kg/min i.e. 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

B

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6
Q

Which statement is correct for physiology of the paediatric patient? (?)
a) Small alveolar surface and relatively low oxygen demand

b) The vegetative innervation of the heart and vasomotor function is immature

c) The blood/brain barrier is almost impermeable for any molecules, hence necessitating significantly higher
doses of anaesthetics

d) Glomerular filtration rate is immature under 2 months of age, resorption is immature under 6 months of
age

A

B

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7
Q

Which statement is correct?

a) Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b) Alkalis can cause colliquation necrosis
c) Both
d) None

A

C

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8
Q

Which statement is correct?

a) The vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b) The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c) Both
d) None

A

D

Vulnus ruptum is for lacerated wounds

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9
Q

Which statement is correct?
a) The fast healing is typical in contused wounds

b) The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c) The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
d) The anaerobic bacteria is rare in contused wounds

A

B

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10
Q

Dental nomenclature: Which statement is correct?

a) Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b) Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c) Distal surface faces to the apex
d) Distal surface faces to the…

A

A

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11
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an antibiotic?

a) Splenectomy
b) Small intestinal biopsy
c) Ovariectomy
d) Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

A

D

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12
Q

Which one of the following does not contraindicate use of NSAIDs?

a) Shock
b) Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c) Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d) Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following circulatory parameters is inversely proportional to cardiac output,
significantly decreasing cardiac shock?
a) Mean arterial blood pressure (MABP)
b) Heart rate (HR)
c) Stroke volume (SV)
d) Resistance of peripheral vessels (PVR)

A

D

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14
Q

Which is the dogs major ‘shock’ organ?

a) GI tract
b) Liver
c) Pancreas
d) Lung

A

B

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15
Q

Which of the following USP numbers refers to the thickest suture material?

a) 4-0
b) 2-0
c) 2
d) 4

A

D

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16
Q

Which of the following types of surgical scissors are mostly used for cutting suture materials?

a) Iris
b) Metzenabum
c) Mayo
d) Hegar

A

C

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17
Q

Which of the following TNM definitions refers to stage II in canine oral tumours?

a) T 2-4cm, no bone involvement, N0M0
b) T 2-4cm, no bone involvement, N1M
c) T 2-4cm, with bone involvement, N0M0
d) T>4cm, no bone involvement, N0MO

A

A

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18
Q

Which salivary gland’s mucocele causes ophthalmological symptoms?

a) Mandibular gl.
b) Sublingual monostomatic gl.
c) Sublingual polystomatic gl.
d) Zygomatic gl.

A

D

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19
Q

Which of the following nerves can suffer form iatrogenic injury during TECA+LBO procedure?

a) Maxillary n.
b) Auricotemporal branch of the facial n.
c) Parasympathetic n.
d) Hypoglottic n.

A

B

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20
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in cats?

a) Dorsal rhinotomy
b) Ventral rhinotomy
c) Dorsal rhinotomy + Sinus trephination
d) Ventral rhinotomy + Sinus trephination

A

B

In cats and brachycephalic dogs, due to lack of space dorsally

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21
Q

Which of the following signs is the most typical of upper airway trauma in small animals? (?)

a) Expiratory dyspnoea
b) Emphysema
c) Pneumomediastinum
d) Pneumoperitoneum

A

B

22
Q

Which of the following radiographic findings is most typical for PPDH? (?)

a) Partial over-lapping of the cardiac and hepatic silhouettes
b) Extreme enlargement of the cardiac silhouette

c) The appearance of orally administered positive contrast over the heart silhouette

A

C

23
Q

What is the most common cause of perineal hernia in the bitch?

a) Imbalance of sexual hormones
b) Dystocia
c) Constipation
d) Senilis muscle atrophy

A

B

24
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding incisional hernia?

a) Usually iatrogenic complication
b) It is often suppurative
c) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar
d) It is not caused by surgical technical error

A

A

25
Q

Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy?

a) Falciform ligament
b) Internal rectus sheath
c) External rectus sheath
d) Peritoneum + Rectus abdominus muscle

A

C

Followed by fascia/sub-cutis, then intra-cutaneous, and finally skin

26
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Gastric Dilation and Volvulus (GDV)?

a) GDV may not be caused by dietary disorders
b) Genetic factors may play a role in aetiology of GDV
c) There is no chronic form of GDV
d) The history of GDV…

A

B

27
Q

Which is false regarding the Winslow herniation (hernia foraminis ometalis) in horses?
a) Cribbing and aerophagia are predisposing factors

b) At late, intolerant stage of colic, the animal is apathic
c) Mostly the ileum or jejunum is involved
d) This kind of herniation is also called right dorsal displacement of the large colon

A

D

28
Q

Which statement(s) is (are) typical of the strangulating obstruction of the small intestine in
horses?
a) There is a secondary dehydration of the content in the large colon
b) Secondary cecal impaction develops
c) The stomach is dilated
d) A and C are correct

A

C

Since the content does not pass through

29
Q

Which structure cannot be palpable certainly at rectal examination in a horse?

a) Ventral taenia of caecum
b) Duodenal ligament
c) Ligamentum latum uteri
d) Ligamentum renolienale

A

B

30
Q

Which is false concerning a colic horse?

a) The degree of pain mostly correlates with the severity of the disease
b) Dehydration can only be in the indolent phase
c) Electrolyte loss is significant

A

B

31
Q

Which is false regarding the lactate level of the abdominal fluid in colic horses?

a) It has no significance concerning the prognosis
b) The peripheral tissue perfusion can be related to lactate level
c) It describes the extent of hypoxia caused by…

A

A

32
Q

It is not characteristic of the large colon obstipation in horses:

a) Sometimes can cause severe colic signs
b) The obstipation can always be treated conservatively
c) Can be easily diagnosed via rectal exam

A

B

33
Q 
In colic horse surgery the large colon enterotomy should be created to rinse out the content
on the:
a) Dorsal colon
b) Ventral colon
c) Pelvic flexure
d) Ligamentum caeco-colicum
A

C

34
Q

Which statement is true?

a) In direct inguinal hernia, the small intestines escape into the subcutaneous space of the scrotum
b) The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c) Both
d) None

A

B

35
Q

It is characteristic to right abomasal displacement:

a) More common than the left abomasal displacement
b) Needs urgent operation
c) The surgery can be performed with…

A

B

36
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis?

a) Linear foreign body
b) Obturation
c) Ileus
d) Intussusception

A

A
Due to perforation of each loops, the faeces will contaminate it and there is an
increased risk of septic infection (50% chance of survival)

37
Q

Which of the following signs/tools is the strongest diagnostic in case of intestinal
intussusception?
a) Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
b) Abdominal ultrasound
c) Lack of faeces
d) Vomiting

A

B

38
Q

What does ‘enteroplication’ mean?

a) Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section, can be resected =Sceletisation
b) Surgical serosal fusion of 2 intestinal segments to be … supply and healing of the intestinal wound
c) Special surgical technique for…

A

B|

39
Q

What is the reason why the 2 liver lobes of the central division are lobectomised together?

a) The common portal branch
b) The common hepatic venous branch
c) The common hepatic arterial branch
d) The gall bladder surrounded by the 2 lobes

A

B

40
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding cystolithiasis?

a) Common
b) It can lead to uterolithiasis
c) It can be caused by a congenital disorder
d) Treatment of oxalate cystolithiasis

A

B

41
Q

Which of the following breeds is usually not effected by ectopic ureter?

a) Labrador retriever
b) Husky
c) West Highland White terrier
d) Cavalier King Charles spaniel

A

D

42
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

a) Double layer continuous Lembert
b) Double layer (penetrating+Lembert) suture
c) Single layer seromuscular continuous suture
d) Double layer interrupted Lembert

A

B

43
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken for diagnosing urethral obturation in a
male dog?
a) Cystocentesis Diagnostic step
b) Urethrohydropropulsio Therapeutic step, try hydropropulsion first
c)Gentle manual expression of the urinary bladder
d) Scrotal urethrostomy

A

B

Therapeutic step, try hydropropulsion first

44
Q

Which for the following factors is mostly essential for proper bone healing?

a) Antibiotic treatment
b) NSAID treatment
c) Rich blood supply

A

C

45
Q

Which condition may be the reason for knee-joint instability?

a) Meniscal injury
b) OCD
c) Avulsion of collateral ligament
d) Rupture of m. ext. dig. longum

A

C

46
Q

In which case is the conservative fracture treatment not contraindicated?

a) Intra-articular fracture
b) Salter-Harris fracture
c) Oblique fracture

A

C
Can be treated with splints
Expected long healing time

47
Q

Which is not indicated to conservative treatment by splinted bandage? (?)

a) Spiral humeral fracture
b) Greenstick tibial fracture
c) Isolated ulnar fracture

A

A

48
Q

Which symptoms can be seen in case of mild spinal cord compression?

a) Loss of deep pain perception
b) Loos of superficial pain perception
c) Facial paresis
d) Ataxia

A

D

49
Q

Which one of the following is not a postural reaction?

a) Hopping
b) Place on the table
c) Wheelbarrowing
d) Panniculus reflex

A

D

Spinal reflex

50
Q

The most common site of a sub-chondral bone cyst in equine is:

a) Medial femoral condyle
b) Lateral femoral condyle
c) Medial trochlea
d) Lateral trochlea

A

A

Suregery exam (3 decks)

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