Final Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the Big Five traits? Who primarily investigated them?

A

Warren Norman investigated the Big Five: extroversion, neuroticism (or emotional stability in reverse), agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.

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2
Q

________ tried to encompass personality differences in a space defined by ___ independent dimensions. What are these dimensions?

A

Hans Eysenck; two.

Extroversion-Introversion, and Neuroticism.

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3
Q

About the Extroversion-Introversion dimension, what are both of these prone to?

A

Situational and dispositional influences, respectively.

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4
Q

There is _______________ that the factors extracted by factor analysis are “real” dimensions of ___________, since the end product depends on what is ____ into it.

A

No guarantee; personality; fed.

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5
Q

A survey of research literature led Walter Mischel to conclude what?

Explain how this relates to a child cheating on a test vs. an athletic contest.

A

People behave much less consistently from one situation to another.

A child may cheat on a test (academic dishonesty) but not be dishonest when cheating in athletics, i.e., another setting.

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6
Q

_______________ is the term for the notion that human behavior is largely determined by the characteristics of the ________ rather than those of the person.

This doesn’t mean that we deny the existence of __________ differences such as various demographic and __________________ factors.

A

Situationism; situation.

Individual; socioeconomic.

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7
Q

Why do people’s personalities seem to be stable?

What does this lead observers to do?

A

Because we tend to see them in the same social setting.

This leads observers to make errors of influence, such as the fundamental attribution error.

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8
Q

People will show strong situational consistency in some situations, and weak situational consistency in others.
_____ self-monitors care a great deal more about the appearance of self they project in a given social situation… they constantly adjust their behavior. Across situations, they’re _____________.
This means that ____ self-monitors are ____________.

A

High; inconsistent.

Low; consistent.

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9
Q

Temperaments that characterize our personalities have a basis in ____________. These are more closely shared by __________ twins than __________ twins and other siblings.

A

Our genes; identical; fraternal.

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10
Q

Example: genetic influences have been identified for TV watching, traditionalism, and divorce. They may reflect the operation of more general traits:

  • ___________________ may underlie traditionalism.
  • Extraversion may underlie ________________.
  • Neuroticism may correlate with divorce.
A

Conscientiousness; TV watching.

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11
Q

____________ need external stimulation more than do naturally aroused ___________ for whom high levels of stimulation can be disturbing. This is consistent with ___________ having a lower tolerance to pain.

A

Extroverts; introverts; introverts.

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12
Q

Supporting evidence (from Zuckerman) shows that the level of norepinephrine (NE) in the spinal fluid was _______ in sensation seekers than in others. What does this suggest? What are sensation seekers at a risk of?

A

Lower.

This suggests that sensation seeking serves as compensation for lower arousal from too little NE.

This puts sensation seekers at the risk of abusing drugs.

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13
Q

Inhibited temperament is associated with _____________.

A

Introversion.

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14
Q

People with inhibited temperament also show a ________ activation threshold in the amydgala; this, associated with the arousal of more stress reactions and ___________ of social situations have a higher potential of ______________ associated with them.

A

Lower; avoidance; unfamiliarity.

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15
Q

People in _______________ cultures rate themselves as more extroverted than people in _____________ cultures.

A

Individualistic; collectivistic.

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16
Q

In terms of the hypothesis of between-family differences playing a role in determining personality traits, we can disprove that. Why is that?

A

Average correlation between adopted children and their siblings was very low, as well as adopted children and their parents.

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17
Q

Sulloway and other authors thought that ____________ may have a powerful influence on personality with first-borns being more conventional but more likely to _________ others into ___________ roles. More dictators are of this position in the birth order. Later-borns are more _____________ and more _____________________.

Most recently, ____-borns have been shown to have a 5-point IQ advantage.

A

Birth order; first; conformity; rebellious; open to new experiences.

First.

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18
Q

Read “From Hypnosis to the Talking Cure” on Handout 34.3.

A

-,-

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19
Q

Freud believed all symptoms of hysteria, all without discernable physical causes, were what?

A

They were disguised means of keeping certain emotionally charged memories, often laid down in childhood, under mental lock & key.

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20
Q

What is catharsis?

A

An explosive release of previous dammed up emotions.

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21
Q

When Freud used free association, what did he conclude?

A

He concluded that emotionally charged “forgotten” memories would be evoked sooner or later.

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22
Q

Freud’s patients, however, did not fully comply with his request of free association because of a _________ that they didn’t know of: Freud saw this as what type of response by the unconscious?

A

Resistance.

Freud saw this as an anxiety-motivated attempt by the unconscious to keep repressed “forbidden” memories from surfacing to the conscious mind.

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23
Q

Freud eventually devised a threefold classification of conflicting tendencies within the individual, which he regarded as distinct __________ of the human ____________. What are these three?

A

Subsystems; personality.

Id, ego, superego.

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24
Q

The id is the most ___________ portion of human personality. It contains what urges? What are examples of these urges?

A

Primitive.

Basic biological urges, including to eat, drink, eliminate, be comfortably warm, and most importantly, to gain sexual pleasure.

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25
Q

What is the pleasure principle?

A

It is the idea of satisfaction now and not later, regardless of circumstances and whatever the cost.

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26
Q

The ego satisfies the ________ principle, trying to satisfy the id pragmatically—that is, within _____________________.

A

Reality; real world and its demands.

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27
Q

Because of the real world and its demands, the id learns two things. What are these two things?

A

1) Many gratifications come only after a delay between the cause and effect.
2) The ego must inhibit the id’s frustrations and impatience over needs not being immediately met (in essence, the delay).

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28
Q

The superego represents what?

A

Early-learned, blindly-internalized rules and admonitions of parents and society. In comparison to the ego, this too is viewed as largely unconscious and irrational.

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29
Q

Defense mechanisms are developed to _____ anxiety from _____________. To get rid of anxiety, the child must suppress what ______________, “the forbidden act.”

A

Hide; the conscious self; triggers it.

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30
Q

Name other types of defenses against anxiety over unacceptable thoughts.

A

Displacement, reaction formation, rationalization, projection, and isolation.

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31
Q

Freud’s theory of psychosexual development emphasizes different stages, each is built on achievements of those before. Name these stages, and describe an event that is linked to that stage.

A

1) Oral stage: breast feeding.
2) Anal stage: potty training.
3) Phallic stage: genital stimulation.
4) Genital stage: sex.

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32
Q

The frustrations of the ________ may have lasting consequences on development of one class of personality type, called the _____________.

A

Infant; oral character.

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33
Q

Sucking one’s thumb is an example of what?

A

Fixation of an infant, which weaning focuses on the infant’s attention rather than pleasures that could be obtained orally.

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34
Q

Read and memorize the Oedipus complex, summarized in detail on Handout 34.6.

A

-,-

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35
Q

At the bottom, Freud assumed, every dream is what?

A

An attempt at wish fulfuillment of unresolved need and drives.

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36
Q

Anxiety is generated that activates some defenses to censor the dream’s true meaning (________________) such that it can only surface in symbolic disguise (_________________)

A

Latent content; manifest content.

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37
Q

Freud has been criticized by some of his own students and by the neo-Freudians… but why?

A

He based too many of his theories of emotional development on biology rather than on the specific cultural conditions in which the child is reared.

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38
Q

Read about Freud’s theory of repression on Handout 34.7.

A

-,-

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39
Q

Contrary to Freud, the Oedipus complex probably centers around the prohibitions and control he is subjected to, by who?

A

The dominant, controlling force of the family.

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40
Q

What are key criticisms of Freud?

A

1) He never took notes during psychoanalytic sessions, making errors more likely.
2) Freud’s ‘theories’ cannot be theories if they are supported by either end of an outcome, without a falsification.
3) The analyst’s theory often determines whether a patient’s statement should or should not be accepted at face value.

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41
Q

Bowlby, a ______________ theorist, believed that a child was powerfully shaped by the experiences with her/his _________________ figure.

A

Object relations; primary attachment.

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42
Q

What does it mean to self-actualize?

A

Self-actualizing refers to the human realizing their potential rather than just searching for basic needs, like food, sex, etc.

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43
Q

What is phenomenology?

A

The study of the individual’s own unique first-person conscious experience and how the individual construes, that is, makes sense of the world around him.

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44
Q

Reviewing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the drive towards self-actualization can only become primary if what happens?

A

The lower-order needs are satisfied; however, there are exceptions where lower-order needs are sacrified for the higher.

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45
Q

For the best self-concept (think Carl Rogers), one should as a child experience ________________________—the sense of being loved and accepted without reservation.

A

Unconditional positive regard.

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46
Q

There is no ____________ of __________ toward which we “homeostatically” seem to center ourselves whether rich or poor.

A

Set point; happiness.

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47
Q

From Bandura’s perspective, personality is a reflection of what?

A

The situations a person has been exposed to in the past, with self-efficacies being gleaned from those situations.

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48
Q

Mischel, on the other hand, thinks the qualities that form personality are __________, composed in the CAPS. What does CAPS stand for?

A

Cognitive.

Cognitive-affective personality system.

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49
Q

What are the five qualities of the CAPS?

A

1) A person’s encodings.
2) His expectancies and beliefs.
3) His emotional responses to situations.
4) His goals and values, the set of outcomes that are considered desirable.
5) His compentencies and self-regulatory plans.

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50
Q

Across social-cognitive theorists, three concepts play a crucial role. What are these three concepts?

A

Control, attributional style, and self-control.

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51
Q

Hartman, Kris & Lowenstein proposed that the infant comes equipped with an in-born tendency to _____________________ in the face of frustration. Why would they do that?

A

Inhibit impulsivity.

They do it so they can collect information that might be relevant in obtaining their goals.

52
Q

What kind of relationship is present between a childhood ability to delay gratification and later planning and social ability in adolescence?

A

Positive.

53
Q

Single-pathology models of mental illnesses include the biomedical, psychodynamic, and learning models. Explain what these models are in detail.

A

Biomedical: assumes the underlying cause is organic.

Psychodynamic: assumes underlying cause is various conflicts and defenses against overall anxiety. Best treated by a form of “talk therapy.”

Learning: assumes that underlying causes results from a form of maladaptive learning of faulty thinking habits, such as pessimistic or catastrophic thinking.

54
Q

Syndromes, which are patterns of _____ and ___________ that tend to go together, have a lot of _________________.

A

Signs and symptoms; codified evidence.

55
Q

Was content or form a bigger concerns to the creators of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?

A

Content; their emphasis was on a person’s major motives and preoccupations, defenses, conflicts, and ways of interpreting the world.

56
Q

Break down Axis I of DSM-IV.

A

Describes syndromes such as schizophrenia, depression, and drug dependency.

57
Q

Break down Axis II of DSM-IV.

A

Describes two broad sets of difficulties: mental retardation and personality disorders (such as antisocial, OCD).

58
Q

Break down Axis III of DSM-IV.

A

Concerns general medical conditions that may contribute to psychological functioning.

59
Q

Break down Axis IV of DSM-IV.

A

Assesses social or environmental issues.

60
Q

Break down Axis V of DSM-IV.

A

Provides a global assessment of functioning—how does a person cope with their overall situation?

61
Q

Most encounters with phobic stimuli induce _____, which causes elevated ________________. However, blood-injection-injury phobia causes _______, leading to the opposite effect.

A

Fear; blood pressure; disgust.

62
Q

Read Coons’ account of conditioned account of specific phobias, on Handout 35.3.

A

-,-

63
Q

We have a preparedness to become phobic that can be triggered into actuality by seeing someone else show a fear reaction to one of these stimuli. What is this called?

A

Vicarious conditioning.

64
Q

Social phobia is the fear of what?

A

Fear of embarassment or humiliation in front of others.

65
Q

For a person afflicted with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), how is fear and anxiety experienced in comparison to phobias?

A

The fear or anxiety experienced is more “free floating,” generalized amongst all stimuli.

66
Q

People who suffer from GAD have abnormalities in neurotransmitter systems involving which neurotransmitters?

A

Norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA.

67
Q

The main symptoms of OCD are ____________, recurrent unwanted and disturbing thoughts, and _____________ behaviors to deal with these thoughts. OCD often begins ______ the age of 10.

A

Obsessions; compulsive; before.

68
Q

OCD may be linked to activities in three specific brain areas. Name them.

A

Orbitofrontal cortex, the caudate nucleus, and the anterior cingulate.

69
Q

How can OCD be treated? (Hint: also works for major depression.)

A

The disorder can be treated by increasing serotonin in the synapses (by means of Prozac).

70
Q

Name a few predisposing factors to PTSD.

A

1) Greater severity to the trauma.
2) Lower levels of social support.
3) Early abuse as a child.
4) A history of PTSD in other family members.

71
Q

PTSD sufferers show a consistently low level of what substance?

A

Cortisol.

72
Q

Read Handout 35.4-5. about information concerning mood disorders; too much to put into notecard format…

A

-,-

73
Q

Aaron Beck believes that ______ produce _______. He argues that depression stems from a set of what type of beliefs?

A

Beliefs; moods.

Intensely negative and irrational beliefs.

74
Q

The triad of Beck’s beliefs that form negative __________________ are what?

A

Cognitive schema.

1) Worthlessness.
2) Everything is wrong.
3) The future looks bleak.

75
Q

Depression is a high cause of disability in the world: in Asian countries, it may be more ________ related, while it is more ________________ in the West.

A

Physically; psychological.

76
Q

There is strong evidence for the ____________ of mood disorders.

A

Heritability.

77
Q

Disorders in _________________ are strongly associated with major depression.

A

Neurotransmission.

78
Q

The cause for bipolar disorder is thought to lie in one of two dysfunctions? Explain both.

A

Either lies in dysfunction in neuronal membranes or mitochondrial dysfunction involving cellular energy production.

79
Q

The major therapeutic agent for treating bipolar is __________________. During what phase does it stabilize cycling?

A

Lithium chloride, manic phase.

80
Q

How does the treatment for bipolar act on various genes?

A

Controls glutamate production, mitochondrial action, and the enzyme helping to control diurnal cycles.

81
Q

Seligman proposes that people who are prone to get depressed have a similar kind of ____________________ for looking and interpreting the world. What does he mean in relation to pessimism/optimism?

A

Explanatory style.

If one is pessimistic, they very closely conform to Beck’s cognitive schema, with negative events leading to depression. Negative events likely won’t lead to depression for optimists for the opposite reasoning.

82
Q

Why could depression be more frequent in women than men? Name three reasons.

A

1) Susceptibility genes for depression may lie on the X chromosome.
2) Women must cope with hormonal menstrual cycle.
3) Women tend to amplify their problems more than men.

83
Q

Schizophrenia is mostly diagnosed when?

A

Late adolescence or early adulthood; sooner and more severely for men than women.

84
Q

Read on the exact diagnostics for schizophrenia on Handout 35.6 and Handout 36.

A

READ THIS ONE OVER EVERY TIME PLEASE.

85
Q

Give the medical names of negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

A

Affective flattening, alogia, and avolition.

86
Q

What is affective flattening?

A

Blunted ability to express affect and emotion.

87
Q

What is avolition?

A

Lack of motivation.

88
Q

What is alogia?

A

Poverty of speech.

89
Q

Patients with the catatonic type of schizophrenia may be “___________________” for hours on end.

A

Frozen in a stupor.

90
Q

Explain simple schizophrenia.

A

A progressive development of prominent negative symptoms, often from early childhood, with no history of psychotic episodes.

91
Q

What types of symptoms for schizophrenia are regarded as positive?

A

Delusions, auditory hallucinations, and disorganized speech.

92
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia?

A

The main cause has to be an abnormally high level of activity in the brain circuits sensitive to dopamine.

(Note: this is not sensitive from Neuron A to Neuron B, but moreover, the receptors on Neuron B to what is releasing.)

93
Q

What is the strongest evidence of the dopamine hypothesis?

A

Classical antipsychotics, blocking dopamine receptors on Neuron B, produce relief from many of the symptoms of the disorder.

94
Q

A structural defect in a number of schizophrenics is that they have ________________ ventricles, due to a lack of ______________ that enables the ventricles to ____________.

A

Enlarged cerebral; brain tissue; balloon out.

95
Q

There is ________________ of a connection between stress in a family environment and incidence of schizophrenia.

A

Little evidence.

96
Q

In diagnosing autism, problems with the following suggest a certain type of neural involvement:

1) Emotion and motivation suggest ___________, etc.
2) Motor performance.
3) Theory-of-mind.

A

1) Amygdalar involvement.
2) Cerebellar involvement.
3) Prefrontal involvements.

97
Q

Two factors, as according to diathesis-stress, seem to be at work for Dissociative Identity Disorder. Name them.

A

1) A predisposition for self-hypnotizability (diathesis).

2) A history of prolonged stress and trauma in childhood.

98
Q

Read Handout 35.10 to diagnose other personality disorders found in Axis II of DSM-IV.

A

-,-

99
Q

Define mental representations.

A

Mental representations are contents in the mind that stand for some object, event, or state of affairs (real or fantasy).

100
Q

Some mental representations are ___________ in capturing some of the actual characteristics of what they represent. Others are ____________ and don’t in any way resemble the item they stand for.

A

Analogical; symbolic.

101
Q

What does the word hueristic refer to?

A

A strategy that’s relatively efficient but occasionally leads to error.

102
Q

Hueristics, in other words, offer a _________ between ___________ and ____________.

A

Trade-off; efficiency, accuracy.

103
Q

A summary of __________ experiences will require a comparison among ____________ estimates, or how often we’ve encountered an event or object.

A

Multiple; frequency.

104
Q

If examples come easily to mind, people conclude that the select circumstance is _________; the opposite, or an example that’s difficult to recall, is ____. What is this strategy called?

A

Common; rare.

Availability hueristic.

105
Q

Does R occur more frequently as the first position of a word or as the third position of a word? What do most people think, and why does this matter?

A

Answer: third position of a word, most people think it’s the first position of a word.

This matters because it summarizes how people think—in shortcuts. Our mental dictionary is aligned to arrange by first letter, so we measure frequency by that amount.

106
Q

When our judgments hinge on _________________, we often turn to the _______________ heuristic. This strategy assumes that each ___________ is homogeneous/heterogeneous.

A

Categorization; representativeness; category; homogeneous.

107
Q

Evidence suggests that we overuse the representativeness strategy, extrapolating from ________________________ when we really shouldn’t.

A

Our own experiences.

108
Q

Explain the difference between System 1 and System 2 thinking. Give an example where people would use one over the other.

A

System 1 thinking is the label for fast, automatic thinking (i.e., hueristic thinking), while System 2 is more deliberate, slower, and effortful.

Example: people would use System 1 to think about probabilities (20% chance), but use System 2 if that was a frequency instead (2 out of 10 people).

109
Q

What types of affairs would make System 2 thinking more likely?

A

If evidence is easily quantified;
if a job interview is merely thought of as a “sample” of evidence;
certain forms of education in statistics and psychology (concerning sample size and bias) make System 2 more likely as well.

110
Q

To draw implications from our beliefs, we use what philosophers call ___________, or when someone seeks to derive new assertions from assertions that are already there.

A

Deduction.

111
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

The tendency to take evidence that’s consistent with our beliefs more seriously than evidence inconsistent with our beliefs.

112
Q

Syllogisms contain three basic aspects. What are they? Why do people tend to frequently make errors on syllogisms?

A

Two premises and a conclusion. People make errors on this because they just don’t seem to understand that they’re supposed to focus only on the relationship between the premises and conclusion.

113
Q

Turn over the card to read about selection tasks.

A

In the task’s standard version, participants are shown four cards and are told the cards may or may not follow a simple rule. The task is to figure out which cards to turn over in order to find the rule.

114
Q

The contrast of results between selection tasks (in relation to human issues in present time vs. the original selection task) depends on two factors. Explain.

A

It depends on the content, obviously, and how well we reason depends on what we’re reasoning about.

115
Q

What did Cosmides and Tooby argue?

A

If our ancestors needed to reason about social issues, then those individuals particularly skilled at reasoning would have a distinct advantage.

116
Q

________________ is more closely tied to our actions.

A

Decision making.

117
Q

Explain the two factors central to utility theory.

A

1) Consider the possible outcomes of a decision and pick the most desirable one.
2) Consider risk.

118
Q

Changes in the __________ of our options can reserve our decisions.

A

Framing.

119
Q

Framing effects, as illustrated in the example in Handout 37-6, follow a simple pattern. What is this pattern, and what is the term of the analysis it shows?

A

People try to make choices that will minimize or avoid losses—that is, they show a tendency called loss aversion.

120
Q

Summarize loss aversion as it relates to risk.

A

People have a tendency to take risks when considering a potential loss, but avoid it when considering a potential gain.

121
Q

What is the problem of counting distinct loss or gain when talking about loss aversion?

A

What counts as a loss or gain depends on one’s reference point.

122
Q

What is affective forecasting? Is this forecasting accurate?

A

People predicting their own emotional response to certain events: evidence suggests that the forecasting is often inaccurate, in that people overestimated how long, and how strongly they’d react to these events.

123
Q

Evidence suggests that people are healthier and happier when they either make their own choices or let others make choices for them. Which one is it?

A

People are generally happier when they make their own choices.

124
Q

When we have too many options, we end up _____ satisfied with our __________. Why is this?

A

Less; selections.

With more choices, there comes oppurtunities to experience more comparisons, and with that, more instances of loss aversion: with the comparisons, they eventually become weary of all possible sorts of loss.

125
Q

If we’re happy with our choices, this may in many cases reflect our contentment with ____ we have made a choice rather than _____ choice we end up with.

A

How; what.

126
Q

We don’t spend too much searching for for the optimum/satisfice choice; instead, we look for something that makes a rather satisfice/optimum choice instead, something immediate that would still satisfy us.

A

Optimum; satisfice.