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Large Animal Anatomy > Final Exam Terms > Flashcards

Final Exam Terms Flashcards

1
Q

Efferent Fibers

A

nerve transmission AWAY from CNS

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2
Q

Afferent Fibers

A

transmission TOWARDS the CNS

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3
Q

Somatic afferent

A

CN that carry sensory information associated with skin, skeletal muscle of the head

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4
Q

Enters via orbital fissure

A

Oculomotor N

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5
Q

Defect causes pupillary dilation, lateroventral strabismus, and ptosis

A

Oculomotor N

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6
Q

What can be used as a post rabies exam?

A

large afferent (sensory) ganglion located in the cranial cavity near the round foramen called the semilunar, gascerian, or trigeminal ganglion

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7
Q

Provides most sensory and motor pathways to the reflexes of chewing and innervate large area of skin of the faec

A

Mandibular division of the Trigeminal

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8
Q

Exists skull via oval notch of the foramen lacerum

A

mandibular division (v3)

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9
Q

General sensation to rostral 2/3 of tongue

A

Lingual branch of V3

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10
Q

Sensory to lower teeth

A

mandibular alveolar n of mandibular division

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11
Q

Sensation to the mucosa of inside cheek

A

Buccal n of mandibular division, location of food within oral cavity

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12
Q

Motor to muscles that close the jaw

A

mandibular division of trigeminal

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13
Q

Motor to rostal belly of diagastricus and mylohyoideus

A

Mandibular V3

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14
Q

Sensation from skin of chin

A

Mental N of V3

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15
Q

Sensation to temporomandibular jt

A

Mandibular Division (V3)

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16
Q

If defective it will cause a sign called “dropped jaw”, not able to close mouth, loss of sensation to lower face, and atrophy of temporalis and masseter m

A

Mandibular Division V3

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17
Q

Nerve that emerges from the round foramen and alar canal and enters the pterygopalatine fossa

A

Maxillary Division V2

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18
Q

General sensation from skin of the upper face

A

Maxillary V2

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19
Q

Largest cutaneous n in the head

A

infraorbital n

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20
Q

Sensation from the upper lip and nostril and skin over the upper face

A

Infraorbital N (from V2)

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21
Q

Sensation from lower eyelid, lateral canthus and skin rostral to the ears

A

Zygomatic N (from V2)

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22
Q

What innervates the horn in cattle?

A

Corneal N, branch from zygomatic n

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23
Q

Sensation rom all areas in the nasal cavity area except from the ethmoturbinates

A

Maxillary V2 via caudal and internal nasal nn.

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24
Q

Sensation from upper teeth

A

Maxillary alveolar N (from V2)

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25
Q

Sensation from hard palate

A

Palatine N, from V2

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26
Q

Defect will lead to loss of sensation to muzzle and nasal cavity, no palpebral reflex of lateral canthus

A

Maxillary Division (V2)

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27
Q

Emerges from orbital fissure with II, IV, VI

A

Ophthalmic Division (V1)

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28
Q

General sensation from the skin of forehead

A

Ophthalmic Division (V1): lacrimal, frontal–>supraorbital, infratrochlear, and medial canthus

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29
Q

Sensation from ethmoturbinates

A

ethmoidal n by V1

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30
Q

Provides protective innervation of the eye/corneal reflux

A

Ophthalmic Division (V1)

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31
Q

Innervation of cornea

A

long ciliary nerves from V1

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32
Q

Innervation of conjunctiva

A

Infratrochlear n from V1

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33
Q

Defect leads to loss of corneal reflux

A

Ophthalmic division

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34
Q

Nerve that leaves in internal acoustic meatus and has its own canal deep in the skill and exits via stylomastoid foramen

A

Facial N

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35
Q

If you want a horse to stop blinking its eye for ophthalmic exam, block what nerve?

A

Auriculopalpebral N

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36
Q

Motor to muscles of facial expression and opening of the jaw

A

Facial N

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37
Q

Taste fibers carried from rostral 2/3 of tongue

A

Facial N

via chorda tympani n which runs mostly in the lingual n

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38
Q

Innervates mandibular, sublingual, and lacrimal salivary reflexes

A

Facial N

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39
Q

Skin innervation to concave surface of pinna

A

Facial N

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40
Q

Innervates caudal belly of diagastricus and occiptomandibularis

A

facial n

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41
Q

Lateral recumbency or halter tightness might cause this

A

facial paralysis of buccal branches of facial n

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42
Q

Defect causes lac of rostral flaring on affected side, deviation to the normal side, anesthesia on lower face, halitosis, “droopy lip”, maybe droopy ears and ptosis

A

Facial N

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43
Q

Sensation to caudal 1/3 of tongue and taste to that region

A

Glossopharyngeal N via lingual branch

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44
Q

Sensory fibers from the pharynx that is important in eliciting swallowing or gagging reflex

A

CN IX (glosso) via pharyngeal branch

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45
Q

Motor to skeletal muscle of the pharynx

A

CN IX (Glosso) via pharyngeal branch

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46
Q

Supplies chemoreceptors in the carotid body and baroreceptors in the carotid sinus

A

CN IX (G) via carotid sinus n

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47
Q

Parotid salivary gland

A

CN IX (G)

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48
Q

Defect results in dysphagia

A

CN IX (G)

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49
Q

Nerve that can be damaged in guttural pouch infection

A

CN IX (G)

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50
Q

What nerves exit through the foramen lacerum?

A

Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Mandibular division

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51
Q

Sensory to larynx, important in eliciting cough or choke reflex

A

Cranial laryngeal (CN X)

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52
Q

Sensory fibers to esophagus and upper GIT, include processes like vomiting, regurgitation, and rumination

A

Vagus

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53
Q

Sensory to baroreceptors located in the walls of the heart and aortic arch, etc.

A

Vagus

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54
Q

Supplies all the striated muscles of the larynx

A

Vagus

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55
Q

What breed is roaring common in

A

thoroughbreds

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56
Q

Defect causes dysphagia, laryngeal hemiplasia

A

vagus

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57
Q

in the ruminant what could result in cutting vagus n

A

fatal vagal indigestion

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58
Q

What CN have parasympathetics

A

III, VII IX, X

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59
Q

4 nasal meatuses

A

dorsal, middle, ventral, common

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60
Q

Where is a nasogastric tube passed?

A

ventral nasal meatus and common nasal meatus to advance into the nasopharynx

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61
Q

Motor to orbicularis oculi and levator anguli oculi medialis muscle

A

Palpebral branch of auriculopalpebral n (from CN VII)

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62
Q

Sensation to upper rostral half of face and incisor teeth

A

Infraorbital N (V2)

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63
Q

Nerve can be blocked in the pterigopalatine fossa

A

Maxillary N

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64
Q

Sensation to entire lower jaw and dentition

A

mandibuloalveolar n (from V3)

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65
Q

What two nerves are commonly blocked for opthalmic examination?

A

palpebral branch of the auriculopalpebral n (branch of CN VII) and supraorbital n (sensory from V1)

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66
Q

What is tarsorrhaphy?

A

suturing eyelids together

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67
Q

What nerves need to be blocked for tarsorhaphy?

A

supraorbital and zygomaticofacial

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68
Q

Name paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal
Rostral Maxillary
Sphenopalatine
Caudal maxillary

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69
Q

Tooth infection can spread to any one of these sinuses due to connection with nasal cavity

A

rostral and/or caudal maxillary sinuses

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70
Q

Roots of 3th and 4th cheek teeth go into this sinus

A

rostral maxillary sinus

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71
Q

Roots of 5th and 6th cheek teeth go into this sinus

A

caudal maxillary sinus

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72
Q

Access to apex of root can be obtained by trephination/sinus flap innervations through frontal sinus for all BUT

A

the 6th cheek tooth which is by the frontomaxillary aperature

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73
Q

What nerves need to be blocked in dehorning?Arteries?

A

corneal n and dorsal and ventral branches of the corneal artery

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74
Q

What nerves need to be blocked in small ruminants?

A

Corneal AND infratrochlear n

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75
Q

How many maxillary sinuses are there in bovine

A

1 maxillary sinus

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76
Q

Anatomical limits of the Guttural Pouch

A

Dorsal: skull and atlas
Ventral: pharynx and cranial esophagus
lateral: pterygoid muscles, parotid and mandibular glands
medial: oppose each other and ventral straight muscles of the head

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77
Q

Important structures coursing through the guttural pouch

A

CN: VII, IX, X, XI, and XII
Sympathetic trunk
Internal and external carotid

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78
Q

Purulent infection of the guttural pouch

A

empyema

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79
Q

Fungal infection of the guttural pouch

A

mycosis

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80
Q

Accumulation of air in the guttural pouch

A

tympany

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81
Q

Borders of Viborgs triangle

A

cranially: caudal border of mandible
ventrally: linguofacial v
Caudal: sternocephalicus tendon

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82
Q

Laryngeal hemiplagia results in paralysis of what muscle?

A

cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m

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83
Q

removal of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis, suture placed through muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage and anchored at the caudal portion of the median ridge of the cricoid cartilage, which stimulates the function of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

A

laryngeal prosthesis (tie back)

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84
Q

excision of laryngeal saccule that results in formation of granulation tissue between the vestibular and vocal folds that holds glottis open

A

Ventriculectomy

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85
Q

Where is the epiglottis of the horse normally located during respiration?

A

Dorsal to the soft palate

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86
Q

Medial compartment of the guttural pouch contains

A

CN IX, X, and XII and internal carotid artery

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87
Q

Lateral compartment of the guttural pouch contains

A

external carotid a

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88
Q

What divides the guttural pouch into medial and lateral compartment

A

stylohyoid bone

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89
Q

Frontal sinus communicates with

A

(frontal=choncofrontal in radiographs)
caudal maxillary
sphenopalatine sinus

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90
Q

Rostral maxillary sinus communicates with

A

ventral conchal sinus

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91
Q

Rostral and Caudal maxillary sinuses each share a slit like communication with the

A

middle meatus nasal cavity

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92
Q

temporary dentition in the horse

A

3-0-3/3-0-3, 24 teeth total

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93
Q

Permanent dentition in the horse

A

3-1-3(4)-3
3-1-3-3
Total: 40-42

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94
Q

What is the wolf tooth

A

On maxilla of some horses, 1st premolar

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95
Q

In the modified triadan system ##4 is the

A

canine teeth

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96
Q

In the modified triadan system ##5 is the

A

wolf tooth

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97
Q

Vertebral formula in horse

A

C7-T18-L5-6-S5-Cd15-21

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98
Q

What region of the thorax does the intrathoracic trachea lie in?

A

cranial mediastinum

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99
Q

How many lung lobes in the horse?

A

Right cranial and caudal, accessory, left cranial caudal, 5 lung lobes

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100
Q

Fetlock joint

A

between metacarpal and P1

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101
Q

Pastern joint

A

B/t P1 and P2

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102
Q

Palmar Digital Nerve Block

A

blocks medial and lateral digital nerves

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103
Q

Nerve bock that densities palmar portions of hoof, digital cushion, palmar portions of coffin/pastern joints, deep digital flexor, navicular bursa

A

Palmar Digital

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104
Q

Nerve block that is located

A

midway between fetlock and coronet, dorsal to the flexor tendons and distal to 
the ligament of ergot

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105
Q

Nerve block that blocks medial and lateral digital nerves and their dorsal branches

A

Abaxial Sesamoid nerve block

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106
Q

Nerve block that desenitizes the entire hoof, coffin, and pastern joint

A

Abaxial Sesamoid nerve block

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107
Q

Nerve block that is located palmar aspect of the limb at abaxial surfaces of proximal sesamoids

A

Abaxial Sesamoid nerve block

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108
Q

Nerve block that blocks lateral and medial palmar nerves and lateral and medial palmar metacarpal n

A

Distal Metacarpal or Low 4-pt block

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109
Q

Nerve block that desensitizes entire limb distal to the carpus

A

Proximal Metacarpal or High Pt 4 point Block

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110
Q

Nerve block that desensitizes fetlock joint and ALL structures below

A

Distal Metacarpal or Low 4-pt block

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111
Q

Nerve block that is located in groove between the suspensory ligament and flexor tendons, at distal end of 
cannon; immediately distal to buttons of splint bones

A

Distal Metacarpal or Low 4-pt block

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112
Q

Nerve block that blocks lateral and medial palmar n and lateral and medial palmar metacarpal n

A

Proximal metacarpal or high 4 pt block

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113
Q

Nerve block that is located in groove b/w suspensory lig and flexor tendon slightly distal to carpus

A

Proximal metacarpal or high 4 pt block

114
Q

Does the navicular bursa communicate with the coffin joint?

A

NO

115
Q

How many pouches need to be blocked in the carpal joint?

A

2

116
Q

Nerve block that blocks: Lateral and medial plantar n, Lateral and medial plantar metatarsal n, Medial and lateral dorsal metatarsal n

A

6 pt block for HINDlimb

117
Q

What 2 joints in the hock communicate?

A

tarsometatarsal and tibiotarsal

118
Q

Hock joint has how many tarsal joints?

A

4

119
Q

What joint do you have to be careful injecting because of the saphenous vein

A

tibiotarsal

120
Q

Most important function is to enable swallowing, but also attaches a visceral space (larynx) to skeleton

A

Hyoid apparatus

121
Q

Rostral opening ot the larynx

A

addutus laryngeus

122
Q

Space between epiglottis and glottic cleft

A

vestibule

123
Q

what 2 muscles act of the vocal folds

A

ventricularis and vocalis

124
Q

Route of left recurrent laryngeal n

A

vagosympathetic trunk downward in the carotid sheath, around the aortic arch and heads back towards the head in the carotid sheath.

125
Q

Where do all laryngeal muscles insert

A

muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage

126
Q

What muscle opens the glottis?

A

cricoarytenoideus dorsalis, only one that opens

127
Q

When aryepiglottic fold becomes folded over the tip of epiglottis

A

epiglottic entrapement

128
Q

What muscles atropy in laryngeal hemiplagia

A

ipsilateral cricoarytenoideus dorsalis and ipsilateral side of glottis will be unable to open

129
Q

Where can a pulse be taken on the face?

A

facial artery

130
Q

What veins are at risk in repulsion of upper and lower teeth

A

transverse facial, facial, deep facial, buccal

131
Q

What are the large veins positioned under the masseter and how is it important in grazing?

A

Because the masseter muscle acts like a pump when the horses head is down grazing to help pump them against gravity

132
Q

What muscle is tetanically contracted during yellow start-thistle poisoning?

A

occipitomandibularis

133
Q

What 2 lymph nodes are enlarged during strangles?

A

medial and lateral retropharyngeal l.n

134
Q

What s strangles

A

streptococcal infection

135
Q

Origin of the levator labii?

A

zygomatic, lacrimal, and superioris maxillary bones

136
Q

insertion of levator labii

A

upper lip

137
Q

action of levator labii

A

raise upper lip

138
Q

innervation of levator labii

A

facial n

139
Q

Buccinator origin

A

maxilla and mandible

140
Q

Masseter origin

A

facial crest and zygomatic arch

141
Q

Occipitomandibularis origin

A

jugular process of occipital bone

142
Q

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis origin

A

lamina of cricoid cartilage

143
Q

Cricoarytenoideus laterialis origin

A

arch of cricoid cartilage

144
Q

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis insertion

A

arytenoid cartilage (muscular process)

145
Q

Cricoarytenoideus laterialis insertion

A

arytenoid cartilage (muscular process)

146
Q

Occipitomandibularis insertion

A

caudal border of mandible

147
Q

masseter insertion

A

ramus of mandible

148
Q

Buccinator insertion

A

commissure of mouth

149
Q

Buccinator action

A

retract the commissure of the mouth and flatten cheeks

150
Q

masseter action

A

close mouth

151
Q

Occipitomandibularis action

A

open mouth

152
Q

Cricoarytenoideus laterialis action

A

close the glottis

153
Q

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis action

A

open glottis

154
Q

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis innervation

A

Recurrent laryngeal

155
Q

Cricoarytenoideus laterialis innervation

A

recurrent laryngeal

156
Q

Occipitomandibularis innervation

A

recurrent laryngeal

157
Q

Masseter innervation

A

mandibular division of trigeminal

158
Q

buccinator innervation

A

facial n

159
Q

what meatus is a nasogastric tube passed through in the horse

A

ventral

160
Q

The nasal cavity is continuous with the nasopharynx at the large orifices through the palatine bone known as

A

choanae

161
Q

What divides the guttural pouch into the medial and lateral component

A

stylohyoid bone

162
Q

Which large vessels can you see through the semi- transparent wall of the guttural pouch ?

A

internal medially and external carotid is on lateral surface

163
Q

Communication between frontal and caudal maxillary sinus

A

frontomaxillary opening

164
Q

How do the caudal and rostral maxillary sinuses indirectly communicate

A

nasomaxillary aperature in the middle nasal meatus

165
Q

What makes up the glottis?

A

vocal folds, vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage

166
Q

What is the laryngeal cavity divided into?

A

Vestibule
Glottic cleft (space between r and l glottic structures)
Infraglottic cavity

167
Q

used to test depth of anesthesia and usually performed by touching the lateral angle and looking for an eye blink

A

Palpebral reflex

168
Q

T/F Permanent canine teeth are often rudimentary or absent in mares

A

TRUE

169
Q

layers of the tooth

A

cement, enamel, dentine

170
Q

Age of teeth is best determined with the upper or lower arcade

A

lower

171
Q

Shoulder joint

A

joint between the scapula and humerus

172
Q

Elbow joint

A

joint between humerus and radius

173
Q

carpal joint

A

the knew or radiocarpal joint, intercarpal joints, and the carpometacarpal joints

174
Q

Another name for the fetlock joint

A

metacarpophalangeal joint

175
Q

Damage to suprascapular n results in a condition called..

A

“sweeny” which produces a striking atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles such that the spine of he scapula is prominently visible.

176
Q

T/F Shoulder joint has no true collateral ligaments

A

True

177
Q

What acts as the lateral collateral ligament of the shoulder?

A

Infraspinatus tendon

178
Q

What artery dives between the teres major and subscapularis?

A

subscapular artery

179
Q

Initially runs with the subscapular artery and then with the caudal circumflex humeral a.

A

Axillary N

180
Q

Innervates muscles that flex the shoulder

A

axillary n

181
Q

Innervates the skin as far distal as the fetlock

A

Medial cutaneous antebrachial n, cutaneous branch of the musculocutaneous

182
Q

Innervates the major EXTENSORS of the elbow, triceps brachii

A

Radial n

183
Q

Innervates extensors of the carpus and digit (AND ulnaris lateralis)

A

deep radial n

184
Q

____can become pinched if the animal is in lateral recumbency without proper padding leading to _____ and what is the hallmark sign?

A

Radial nerve
radial paralysis
knuckled over foot (toe dragging)

185
Q

_____ and _____ N innervates flexors of the carpus and digit

A

ulnar and median n

186
Q

There is an anastomosis between the _______ and _____ nerves. After joining, the combined nerve continues distally as ________

A

palmar branch of the ulnar nerve

lateral palmar branch (from the median)

lateral palmar

187
Q

What is the origin of the supraspinatus?

A

Supraspinatus fossa and spine of the scapula

188
Q

What is the Insertion of the supraspinatus?

A

greater and lesser tubercules of humerus

189
Q

What is the action of the supraspinatus?

A

extend shoulder, cranial shoulder stabilizer

190
Q

What is the innervation of the supraspinatus?

A

suprascapular

191
Q

What is the origin of the infrapinatus

A

infraspinatus fossa

192
Q

What is the insertion of the infrapinatus

A

greater tubercule of humerus

193
Q

What is the action of the infrapinatus

A

abduct the arm and act as a lateral collateral ligament of the shoulder

194
Q

What is the innervation of the infrapinatus

A

suprascapular n

195
Q

What is the origin of the deltoideus

A

spine of scapula and aponeurosis over infra m

196
Q

What is the insertion of the deltoideus

A

deltoid tuberosity

197
Q

What is the action of the deltoideus

A

flex shoulder and abduct arm

198
Q

What is the innervation of the deltoideus

A

axillary n

199
Q

What is the origin of the subscapularis

A

subscapular fossa

200
Q

What is the innervation of the subscapularis

A

subscapular n

201
Q

What is the insertion of the subscapularis

A

lesser tubercule

202
Q

What is the action of the subscapularis

A

adduct the humerus, medial shoulder stabilizer

203
Q

What is the origin of the biceps brachii

A

supraglenoid tubercule

204
Q

What is the insertion of the biceps brachii

A

radial tuberosity, tendon of extensor carpi radialis via lacertus fibrosis

205
Q

What is the action of the biceps brachii

A

flex elbow, extend shoulder and carpus

206
Q

What is the innervation of the biceps brachii

A

proximal branch of musculocutaneous

207
Q

What is the origin of the triceps brachii long head?

A

caudal border of scapula

208
Q

What is the origin of the triceps brachii lateral head?

A

lateral surface of humerus

209
Q

What is the origin of the triceps brachii medial head?

A

medial surface of humerus

210
Q

What is the insertion of the triceps brachii?

A

olecranon

211
Q

What is the action of the triceps brachii long head?

A

extend elbow and flex shoulder

212
Q

What is the action of the triceps brachii lateral and medial heads head?

A

extend elbow

213
Q

What is the innervation of the triceps brachii?

A

radial

214
Q

What is the origin of extensor carpi radialis ?

A

lateral epicondyle of humerus

215
Q

What is the innervation of extensor carpi radialis ?

A

metacarpal tuberosity of MC3

216
Q

What is the action of extensor carpi radialis ?

A

extend carpus and flex elbow

217
Q

What is the innervation of extensor carpi radialis ?

A

radial

218
Q

What is the origin of ulnaris lateralis?

A

lateral epicondyle of the humerus

219
Q

What is the insertion of ulnaris lateralis?

A

accessory carpal bone C4 and MC4

220
Q

What is the action of ulnaris lateralis?

A

flex carpus and extend elbow

221
Q

What is the innervation of ulnaris lateralis?

A

radial

222
Q

What is the origin of common digital extensor?

A

lateral epicondyle of the humerus; lateral tuberosity of radius;lateral surface of body of ulna

223
Q

What is the insertion of common digital extensor?

A

extensor process of 3rd phalanx

224
Q

What is the action of common digital extensor?

A

extend digit and carpus and flex the elbow

225
Q

What is the origin of flexor carpi radialis?

A

medial condyle of humerus

226
Q

What is the insertion of flexor carpi radialis?

A

second metacarpal bone

227
Q

What is the action of flexor carpi radialis?

A

flex carpus and extend elbow

228
Q

What is the innervation of flexor carpi radialis?

A

median n

229
Q

What is the innervation of common digital extensor?

A

radial n

230
Q

What is the origin of superficial digital flexor?

A

medial epicondyle of humerus, caudal surface of radius

231
Q

What is the insertion of superficial digital flexor?

A

Proximal part of 2nd phalanx and distal part of 1st phalanx

232
Q

What is the action of superficial digital flexor?

A

flex digit and carpus and extend elbow

233
Q

What is the origin of deep digital flexor?

A

medial epicondyle of the humerus, olecranon, caudal surface of radius

234
Q

What is the insertion of deep digital flexor?

A

flexor surface of 3rd phalanx

235
Q

What is the action of deep digital flexor?

A

flex digit and carpus and extend the elbow

236
Q

What is the innervation of deep digital flexor?

A

median and ulnar n

237
Q

What is the innervation of superficial digital flexor?

A

ulnar n

238
Q

What is the origin of the interosseus?

A

palmar surface of 3rd metacarpal bone and distal row of carpal bones

239
Q

What is the insertion of the interosseus?

A

abaxial surfaces of proximal sesmoids and tendon of common digital extensor

240
Q

What is the action of the interosseus?

A

support fetlock, prevent overextension

241
Q

What is the innervation of the interosseus?

A

palmar metacarpal n (sensory only)

242
Q

Reflected skin over fetlock

A

ergot

243
Q

vestiges of metacarpal pad

A

ergot

244
Q

vestiges of carpal pad

A

chesnut

245
Q

skin over medial carpal region

A

chesnut

246
Q

What is used as a landmark in nerve blocking?

A

Paired ligaments of ergot attaches ergot cartilage to the hoof

247
Q

What 2 nerves are very important in their innervation of the fetlock joint, emerge at the distal epiphysis aka buttons of the splint bones

A

lateral and medial palmar metacarpal nn

248
Q

Dorsal branches of the medial and lateral digital n innervate

A

skin over the dorsal surface of the foot

249
Q

a controversial treatment for lameness in which the proximal cut of the digital nerve can develop a painful tangle of nerve endings called neuroma.

A

neurectomy or nerving

250
Q

palpating the digital nerves are important because

A

to see if they have been cut, see if nerving has been done to the horse

251
Q

What is the major arterial supply of the forelimb? hindlimb?

A

medial palmar a

dorsal metatarsal a

252
Q

What arteries are used to obtain a pulse?

A

medial and lateral digital arteries

253
Q

T/F Median palmar n and a pass over the deepest layer of the flexor retinaculum within the carpal canal.

A

FALSE, under

254
Q

In live animal what joint can be accessed with a needle placed just cranial to the infraspinatus tendon and proximal to the greater tubercule of the humerus

A

shoulder

255
Q

Does the intertubercular bursa communicate with the shoulder joint?

A

NO

256
Q

Medial and lateral collateral ligaments of the elbow joint are placed _____ to the axis of rotation of the joint, making elbow _____ more difficult than elbow ______

A

caudal; flexion;extension

257
Q

Function to reduce the friction of muscle tendons crossing joints

A

synovial sheath

258
Q

Tendons of the superficial digital flexor are _____; the deep are ______

A

flat; round

259
Q

Which antebrachial muscle does not have any association with a synovial sheath and why?

A

ulnaris lateralis, because it ends at the accessory carpal bone, therefore does not cross a joint

260
Q

Is the carpometacarpal joint moveable?

A

NO

261
Q

Does the midcarpal and carpometacarpal joint communicate?

A

Yes

262
Q

What layer of the hoof is the thickest?

A

stratum externum

263
Q

What is known as the insensitive lamina

A

stratum internum

264
Q

Equivalent to the epidermis in the hoof

A

epidermis

265
Q

equivalent to the dermis in the hoof

A

corium

266
Q

equivalent to the subcutis in the hoof

A

cushion

267
Q

innermost unpigmented layer of the stratum medium and unpigmented stratum internum

A

white line

268
Q

Nails when shoeing should be driven

A

outside white line to avoid the sensitive lamina

269
Q

raised band where the coronary dermis that can be seen touching the concave coronary groove

A

coronary band

270
Q

What is known as the sensitive lamina

A

laminar dermis

271
Q

Where is the sensitive lamina located?

A

dorsal surface of the coffin bone

272
Q

Condition where you see scar horn over the laminar dermis, the hoof wall has separated from the basal epidermis

A

laminitis

273
Q

Severe laminitis would cause

A

the doffin bone to rotate or sink away from the wall of the hoof and eventually drive through the sole due to the pill of the deep digital flexor tendon

274
Q

serves as attachment sites for several ligaments and help form the bulbs.

A

cartilage of the hook aka collateral cartilages

275
Q

help square the hoof upon contact with the ground

A

extensor branches

276
Q

Long muscle tendons are held in place by what 2 things

A

retinacula and ligaments

277
Q

What is the sleeve of the DDF formed by the SDF called?

A

manica flexoria

278
Q

Connects proximal sesamoids

A

palmar annular ligament

279
Q

crosses the pastern joint and inserts on complimentary fibrocartilage of PII

A

straight sesamoidean ligament

280
Q

palmar surface of P1

A

oblique sesamoidean ligament

281
Q

commonly site of inflammation near the hoof

A

navicular bursa called navicular disease

282
Q

what suspends the navicular bone

A

collateral navicular ligaments and unpaired distal navicular ligament

Large Animal Anatomy (4 decks)

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