Final Exam Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which medication is associated with Red Man Syndrome?

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Gentamicin

A

c. Vancomycin

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2
Q

Name the therapeutic range for Lithium

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L

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3
Q

Name the therapeutic range for Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A

10-20 mcg/mL

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4
Q

Name Gentamicin trough level

A

1-2 mcg/mL

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5
Q

Name Vancomycin trough level

A

15-20 mcg/mL

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6
Q

Which of the following is/are a subjective finding? Select all that apply

a. Client rates pain 5/10.
b. Wheezes noted to bilateral lung bases.
c. Patient reports throbbing headache with associated nausea.
d. Client states his blood sugar was 132 this morning.

A

a. Client rates pain 5/10.

c. Patient reports throbbing headache with associated nausea.

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7
Q

Where should eye drops be instilled?

a. Lacrimal duct
b. Above pupil
c. Conjunctival sac
d. Outer canthus

A

c. Conjunctival sac

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8
Q

True or False: Creams are water based

A

True

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9
Q

Which of the following are contraindications for Selegline (Elderpryl)? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. Wine
b. Ambien
c. Adderall
d. Tylenol
e. Demerol

A

a. Wine
c. Adderall
e. Demerol

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10
Q

What does medication half life measure?

a. Rate at which drugs are eliminated from the body
b. Strength of half a medication dose
c. Method in which medications are distributed in the body

A

a. Rate at which drugs are eliminated from the body

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11
Q

What is drug polymorphism?

a. Altered medication formulary following metabolism
b. Use of many different medications
c. Effect of patient’s age, gender, body composition, etc. on drug activity
d. Multiple names for one drug

A

c. Effect of patient’s age, gender, body composition, etc. on drug activity

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12
Q

Nurses should ensure proper medication __ times before administering and check __ forms of patient identification.

A

3 times

2 forms

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13
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for Tylenol?

a. GERD
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Warfarin
d. Diabetes

A

c. Warfarin

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14
Q

Adrenal Suppression is associated with

a. Steroids
b. Antibiotics
c. Muscle Relaxants
d. Analgesics

A

a. Steroids

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15
Q

Which of the following are contraindications for NSAID administration. Select all that apply

a. PUD
b. COPD
c. 3rd trimester of pregnancy
d. Heart Disease
e. Diabetes

A

a. PUD
c. 3rd trimester of pregnancy
d. Heart Disease

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16
Q

Which NSAID is cardioprotective?

A

Aspirin

17
Q

A client shows signs of malignant hyperthermia following anesthesia administration. The nurse knows it needs to be treated with what IV medication?

a. Succinylcholine
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Modafinil (Provigil)

A

c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

18
Q

A patient reports constant ringing in her ears for the past 3 days. The nurse knows this symptom could be related to toxicity from which medication?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Bactrim
c. Macrobid
d. Gentamicin

A

d. Gentamicin

19
Q

What is a side effect of midazolam (Versed)?

a. Incontinence
b. Tendon rupture
c. Memory loss
d. Pharyngeal erythema

A

c. Memory loss

20
Q

True or False: When providing an otic medication to an adult, the nurse should hold the pinna up and back:

A

True

21
Q

Which of the following are examples of chronic pain? Select all that apply.

a. Low back pain
b. Sudden RLQ abdominal pain
c. Diabetic neuropathy
d. Arthritic joint pain
e. Chest pain due to MI

A

a. Low back pain
c. Diabetic neuropathy
d. Arthritic joint pain

22
Q

After receiving anesthesia, the client starts showing signs of malignant hyperthermia. These symptoms include which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Numbness
b. Tachycardia
c. Tachypnea
d. Convulsions
e. Muscle rigidity

A

b. Tachycardia
c. Tachypnea
e. Muscle rigidity

23
Q

What is the key characteristic of dermatologic gel topical medications?

a. They are similar to creams, but lighter
b. They are water based
c. They reduce drying
d. They enhance penetration of the active ingredient

A

d. They enhance penetration of the active ingredient

24
Q

The client reports an allergy to sulfa medications. The nurse knows to avoid which antibiotics? Select all that apply.

a. Cephalexin (Keflex)
b. Imipenem/Cilastin (Primaxinacin)
c. Ciproflox (Cipro)
d. Amoxicillin

A

a. Cephalexin (Keflex)

b. Imipenem/Cilastin (Primaxinacin)

25
Q

Which statement from a client indicates the need for further education?

a. “I will stop taking this new Ambien Rx if I begin sleep walking.”
b. “I will no longer need to use my cane once I start taking Temazepam.”
c. “I always ensure I can get at least 8 hours of sleep after taking my Ambien.”
d. “I make sure to avoid alcohol since beginning benzodiazepine treatment.”

A

b. “I will no longer need to use my cane once I start taking Temazepam.”

26
Q

A client’s family member is wanting to discontinue the client’s use of donepezil (Aricept). They state “This medication is pointless. We haven’t seen any improvement since it was started 3 weeks ago.” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. This medication can take up to 6 weeks to reach efficacy.
b. I’ll ask the provider to no longer prescribe it.
c. The patient must not be taking it correctly.
d. Sometimes other medications can mask this medication’s benefits.

A

a. This medication can take up to 6 weeks to reach efficacy.

27
Q

Which adrenergic antagonist(s) is/are cardioprotective? Select all that apply.

a. Carvedilol
b. Propranolol
c. Metoprolol
d. Prazosin

A

b. Propranolol

c. Metoprolol

28
Q

Which of the following anti-depressant drugs is an MAOI that interacts with Lithium?

a. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
b. Phenelzine (Nardil)
c. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
d. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

b. Phenelzine (Nardil)

29
Q

Which of the following medications should be monitored for newly reported hearing loss?

a. Valproic acid (Depakote)
b. Cephalexin (Keflex)
c. Imipenem/Cilastatin (Primaxin)
d. Erythromycin

A

d. Erythromycin

30
Q

Which of the following are interactions/adverse effects of metronidazole (flagyl). Select all that apply.

a. Dark colored urine
b. Rash
c. Interacts with Lithium and Warfarin
d. Tinnitus
e. Neutropenia

A

a. Dark colored urine
c. Interacts with Lithium and Warfarin
e. Neutropenia

31
Q

A client’s infected wound is found to be caused by streptococcus. The client has no known drug allergies. Which antibiotic will most likely be prescribed?

a. Bactrim
b. Cephalexin (Keflex)
c. Amoxicillin
d. Aztreonam

A

c. Amoxicillin

32
Q

True or False: Imitrex is an abortive treatment

A

True

33
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding IV Phenytoin (Dilantin) administration?

a. Only mix with normal saline
b. Push slowly (50 mg/min)
c. Requires filter to prevent precipitates
d. Must use small gauge needle

A

d. Must use small gauge needle

34
Q

A client presents with urinary retention, decreased sweating, and blurry vision. The nurse is concerned this could be an overdose of

a. Atropine
b. Donepezil (Aricept)
c. Dopamine
d. Prazosin

A

a. Atropine

35
Q

Which of the following are contraindications of nonselective beta blockers. Select all that apply.

a. Asthma
b. Uncompensated heart failure
c. UTI
d. Cardiogenic shock
e. HTN

A

a. Asthma
b. Uncompensated heart failure
d. Cardiogenic shock

36
Q

Why is it important to educate diabetic patients on the importance of monitoring blood sugar while taking beta blockers?

a. Blood sugars tend to spike with the first dose
b. Beta blockers can mask signs of hypoglycemia
c. Patients forget to check blood sugar when taking multiple drugs
d. Beta blockers cause brain fog which can result in missed insulin doses

A

b. Beta blockers can mask signs of hypoglycemia