Final Exam S3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an AP stress fx for an ankle?
when would we do it?

A

doctor holds the foot and moves it via inversion/eversion
would be best for a ligament tear, not a possible fx because this could make it worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What pathologies can you see specifically from expiration x-rays?
Why does the expiration breathing technique show pneumothorax?

A

pneumothorax
hemothorax
&
Pulmonary contusions
expiration shows the escaped air in the pleura cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(t/f) If there’s a suspected fracture we would not consider a ankle stress exam?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do we do if the wrong hand x-ray is ordered?

A

Consult with the lead tech/doctors to confirm we have right order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?
What is the axial skeleton?

A

AP: 126 bones consists of upper/lower extremities, shoulder + pelvic girdles
AX: 80 bones consists skull, vertebral, ribs & sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between a lateral ankle, internal oblique ankle, and a mortise?

A

Lat: 90 degree
OBL: 45 internal oblique
Mortise: 15-20 degree internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which malleoli is more inferior?
superior?

A

lateral malleolus
medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the names of the tarsals bone?

A

talus
calcaneus
navicular
cuboid
medial, intermediate, & lateral cuneiform (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is mediolateral projection?
What is a lateriomedial projection?

A

from midline (medial) to outer portion (lateral)
outer portion to midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the CR of the calcaneous?
Lat?

A

base of third metatarsal
40 cephalic
1” inferior to medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the benefit of having a longer SID?

A

reduces patient dose & magnification/distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the hilum?
what is the carina?

A

location for all major heart vessels in the lungs (party at the hilum)
Where the trachea bifurcate into left and right bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is pluerisy?

A

inflammation of the pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is pulmonary embolism?

A

One or more arteries in the lung become clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is emphysema?

A

lungs lose elasticity, longer dimensions
(harder to breathe, reduce mAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is RAO?
what is LPO?
what is LAO?
what is RPO?

A

Right anterior oblique
Left posterior oblique
Left anterior oblique
right posterior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is pneumothorax?
what happens to technique?

A

accumulation of air in pleura cavity
decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is pneumonia?

A

inflammation of lungs, results in accumulation of fluid within certain sections of lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do we evaluate a PA chest x-ray?
what are we looking for?

A

includes 10 ribs, clavicles equal distance away from each other & both costophrenic angles
lungs, hilum markings, & bony thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are these located?
Vertebral prominins?
jugular notch?
sternal angle?
xiphoid tip?
coastal margin?
iliac crest?

A

C7
T2-T3*
T4-T5 *
T10
L2-L3
L3-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What level are these located at:
Carina?
Trachea?

A

T5
C6-T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are these decubs & what is best shown?
left lateral decub
right lateral decub
ventral decub
dorsal decub

A

left side down (fluid) + right side up (air) (mark side up)
right side down (fluid) + left side up (air)
prone position showing fluid + posterior portion showing air
supine position showing fluid+ anterior portion showing air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what view best display air in the descending colon?
what view best shows fluid in the left lung?
Air in the Ascending colon?
Air in the left lung?

A

Right lateral decubitus
Left lateral decubitus
Left lateral decubitus
Right lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what articulates with each one of these?
Glenoid:
acromion:
Sternum:
coracoid:

A

scapula + humerus
Acromion + clavicle
sternum + clavicular
projects anteriorly inferior clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many interphalangeal joints are in each digits?

A

1st (thumb): 1 (IP)
2-5: 2 (DIP + PIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What concavity are we looking for when imaging digits? (LAT)

A

concavity on the anterior surface of the phalanx shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What concavity are we looking for when imaging digits? (AP)

A

equal amounts of concavity on each side of the digits proves there is no rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the alternate views for the intercondylar fossa?
what is the saying to remember this?

A

BeClere
Camp Coventry
Holmblad
“to BeClere (be clear), I should go to camp (Coventry) through the tunnel to eat some Homblad (some bland) food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the alternative views for the patella?
What is the saying to remember this?

A

merchant, Hughston, & settegast
“the merchant hughston likes to see the sunrise in settegast”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is Holmblad?

A

PA intercondylar fossa
patient leans forward 20-30 degrees causing a 60-70 degree flexion in knee
Standing or recumbent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is Settegast?
what does this show?

A

90 degree flexion of knee
Prone or Supine
Angle and CR is into the patellofemoral joint
(patella/sunrise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is camp coventry?
what does this show?

A

Flexion 40-50 degrees
patient prone
Angle matches the flexion
40 flex= 40 angle
(intercondylar fossa/tunnel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is hughston?
what does this show?

A

50-60 degree flexion
patient prone
45 degrees cephalic
(similar to settegast without as much flexion)
(patella/sunrise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is Merchant?
what does this show?

A

40 degree knee flexion
Supine
30 degree Caudad into patellofemoral joint
(Mayo’s sunrise)
(PATELLA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is BeClere?
what does this show?

A

patient supine
(intercondylar fossa)
40-45 degree flexion of knee
40-45 cephalic
Tunnel view in AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

where is the trochlear notch located?

A

proximal ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the two “points” or processes located on the elbow?
where are they located?
when are they best shown?

A

Coronoid & olecranon processes
Proximal anterior ulna = coronoid
Proximal posterior ulna= olecranon
Internal elbow oblique= coronoid
Lateral elbow oblique= olecranon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does the coronoid process insert into?
where is this located?

A

coronoid fossa
distal anterior humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does the olecranon process insert into?
where is this located?

A

olecranon fossa
distal posterior humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does the external elbow oblique show?
how is hand placement?

A

radial head & capitulum
supinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does internal elbow oblique show?
how is hand placement?

A

coronoid process & ulna/trochlea
(ulna & radius cross-over)
pronated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does lateral elbow show?

A

olecranon process & fat pads + epicondyles superimposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does an AP elbow show?
how is the positioning?

A

AP view of distal humerus & proximal ulna/radius
(Some radius & ulna crossover)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are the epicondyles for each of these projections to the IR?
INT/EXT elbow
LAT elbow
AP elbow

A

obliqued
perpendicular
parallel *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when are the intervertebral foramen shown for thoracic spine?
cervical?
lumbar?

A

90 degree lateral
45 degree oblique + 15 cephalic (upside)
90 degree lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when is the olecranon free of superimposition?

A

lateral elbow *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what view best shows the fat pads?

A

lateral elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

the femur articulates (joints) with what proximally?
(not what is proximal to femur)

A

acetabulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when would we best see an anterior/posterior femoral fracture?
Lateral fx?

A

lateral femur
AP femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what happens to the greater trochanters when you rotate them internally? Lesser trochanters?
What happens to the greater trochanter when you rotate externally? Lesser trochanters?

A

internal rotation shows the greater trochanters in profile and Lessers out of profile
external rotation shows the lesser trochanter in profile and greaters out of profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does the medial cuneiform articulate with? (4)

A

Navicular proximally
1st & 2nd metatarsals distally
intermediate cuneiform laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does the talus articulate with? (4)

A

Tib + fib superiorly/proximally
calcaneus laterally
navicular distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does the navicular articulate with? (5)

A

talus proximally
cuboid laterally
all three cuneiforms distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does the cuboid articulate with? (5)

A

calcaneus proximally
lateral cuneiform medially
navicular medially
4th & 5th metatarsals distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does the calcaneus articulate with? (2)

A

Talus medially
cuboid distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does the lateral cuneiform articulate with? (6)

A

navicular proximally
2nd, 3rd, 4th metatarsals distally
intermediate cuneiform medially
cuboid laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what does the intermediate cuneiform articulate with? (4)

A

navicular proximally
second metatarsal distally
medial cuneiform medially
lateral cuneiform laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is seen (criteria) in a medial oblique foot?
lateral oblique foot?
what is the positioning?

A

sinus tarsi
space between first & second tarsals
30-40 internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does the internal ankle oblique best show?
what is the positioning?

A

possible distal tibiofibular fx (mainly shows joint space open & free)
45 degree medial oblique
80-85 degree dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does the lateral oblique foot best show?

A

fx & dislocations
Base of the first metatarsal
(space between the 1st/2nd metatarsals + between the medial & lateral cuneiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what view best shows arthritus in the hands?

A

Norrgard method
(ball-catchers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what view do we do to see the arches in the foot?

A

Lateral foot **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is best seen (criteria) in an AP forearm?
how is palm placement?

A

fx of radius/ulna
proximal carpals to elbow joint
palm supinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is best seen (criteria) in a lateral forearm?

A

radius + ulna & proximal carpals/ elbow joint
fx or radius/ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where is the capitulum located?
(know your elbow anatomy like the back of your…)

A

distal anterior humerus (lateral side)
(cap (capitulum) sits on the head (radial head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

where is the trochlea located?
trochlear notch?

A

distal humerus (medial side)
proximal ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

where is the olecranon fossa located?
olecranon process?

A

distal posterior humerus
posterior proximal ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

where is the coronoid fossa located?
Where is the coronoid process located?

A

distal anterior humerus
proximal anterior ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ADD TONS OF ELBOW QUESTIONS!
SHOULDER
SPINEEE
RIBSS
GI
URINARY SYSTEMS
ADD JOINTS
INCLUDE SPINE LUMBAR
INCLUDE SKULL
(EX: IN A RPO WHAT RIBS ARE SHOWN OR LPO WHAT FORAMEN OF THE CERVICAL SPINE ETC)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

if we are doing a lateral elbow how much should your elbow be flexed?

A

90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the positioning for the Coyle view for the radial head?
what is the angle?

A

45 angled towards the shoulder
90 degree flexion of arm
hand pronated
CR is mid elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the positioning for the Coyle view for the coronoid process?
what is the angle?

A

45 degree away from shoulder
80 degree flexion of arm
hand pronated
CR mid-elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the CR for your PA hand?
oblique?
fan lateral/lateral?

A

third MCP joint
third MCP
second MCP joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the carpals bones?

A

proximal: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum & pisiform
distal: Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, & hamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how many ribs need to be seen in a chest x-ray?

A

10 ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where is the bicipital groove located?

A

deep groove between greater & lesser tubercles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

where is the surgical neck located?

A

tapered area below tubercles & head of humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

where are the lesser & greater tubercles located?
what rotations show these?
what is a way to remember this?

A

L: tubercle located inferior to anatomical neck (seen on internal rotation)
G: large lateral process where muscles attach (seen on external rotation)
GELI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

in a lateral position which plane is perpendicular to the IR?
which is parallel?

A

mid-coronal is perpendicular to IR
Mid sagittal is parallel to IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In a AP position which plane is perpendicular to the IR?
which plane is parallel?

A

mid-sagittal is perpendicular to the IR
mid-coronal is parallel to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what happens when you increase OID?

A

magnification increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is demonstrated in a internal ankle?
mortise ankle?

A

possible fx to distal fibula + lateral malleolus + base of 5th metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How much do we oblique for a mortise?
How much oblique for a internal ankle?

A

15-20 internal rotation
45 degrees medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what oblique puts the esophagus between the heart & thoracic spine?

A

RAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what oblique places the esophagus in between the hilar region & thoracic spine?

A

LAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what view superimposes the esophagus over the spine?

A

AP/PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what oblique puts the barium in the fundus of the stomach?
Where is the air?

A

LPO (supine obliques)
Pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

which oblique places the barium in the pylorus of the stomach?
Where is the air?

A

RAO (prone oblique)
fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

which oblique places air in the pylorus of the stomach?
where is the barium?

A

LPO
fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

which oblique places air in the fundus of the stomach?
where is the barium?

A

RAO
pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

which view best displays the retrogastric space?

A

R lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

AP oblique that demonstrates hepatic (right) flexure + ascending colon?

A

LPO
(LPO=RAO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

PA oblique that demonstrates hepatic (right) flexure + ascending colon?

A

RAO
(RAO-LPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

AP oblique that demonstrates the splenic (left) flexure + descending colon?

A

RPO
(RPO (AP) =LAO (PA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

PA oblique that demonstrates splenic flexure + descending colon?

A

LAO
(LAO (PA) = RPO (AP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

which decubitus position will show air in the splenic flexure + descending colon?

A

right lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

which decubitus position shows air in the hepatic flexure + asceding colon?

A

left lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

which decubitus position shows air in the posterior rectum?
which decubitus position shows air in the anterior rectum?

A

ventral decubitus (barium in anterior portion)
dorsal decubitus (barium in posterior portion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

why do we angle for lateral knees?
how much do we angle?

A

Medial extends more Distally than lateral
5-7 degrees cephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

which projection is performed when the tube face is angled to become parallel with the flexed tibia? *

A

PA flex (aka Rosenberg or axial intercondylar fossa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the medial border of the scapula?

A

vertebral border, side of the scapula closest to the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the lateral border of the scapula?

A

axillary border, side closest to the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the superior portion of the scapula called?
what is the inferior portion called?

A

superior border, houses the scapular notch
inferior angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is the Neer view?
how much do we oblique?

A

45-60 RAO/LAO + 10-15 caudad angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the different classifications of joints?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is gout?

A

excessive uric acid seen in the first MTP
form of arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is Oggshlatter-disease?

A

inflammation of the proximal tibia (tibial tuberosity) in boys aged 10-15 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The CR should always be ____ to the IR

A

perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what kind of joints are these?
IP:
carpals:
elbow:
knee:
ankle joint:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is transthoracic?
what is the breathing instruction?
what is the CR?

A

humerus x-ray shooting through the body with effected side closest to IR
expose on full inspiration
surgical neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how do we position for a grashey?
how much oblique?
what is the hand placement for this?

A

35-45 LPO/RPO
CR 2” inferior + 2” medial from superolateral border of the shoulder
Supinated with arms abducted slightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is an indication for an expiration chest?

A

Pneumothorax
hemothorax
Pulmonary contusions
(We see air leaving the pliers space during expiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

when do we see the zygapophyseal joints in cervical spine?

A

90-degree lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

when do we see the zygapophyseal joints in the thoracic spine?
LPO shows?
RPO shows?
LAO shows?
RAO shows?

A

70-75 degree oblique
right z joints (upside)
left z joints (upside)
left z joints (downside)
right z joints (downside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

when do we see the zygapophyseal joints for a lumbar spine?
RPO shows?
LPO shows?
LAO shows?
RAO shows?

A

45 degree obliques
right z joints
left z joints
Right z joints
Left z joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

when do we see the intervertebral foramen in the lumbar spine?

A

90 degree lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

when do we see the intervertebral foramen for the cervical spine?
LPO shows?
RPO shows?
LAO shows?
RAO shows?

A

45-degree oblique + 15 cephalic (AP) caudad for (PA)
right foramen (upside)
left foramen (upside)
left foramen (downside)
right foramen (downside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

when do we see the intervertebral foramen in thoracic spine?

A

90-degree lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is each of these in the lumbar spine oblique?
eye:
ears:
nose:
neck:
leg:
body:
tail:

A

pedicle
superior articular process
transverse process
pars interarticularis (spondylosis)
inferior articular process
lamina
spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what side do we mark for:
cervical?
SI?
lumbar?
thoracic?

A

upside
upside
downside
upside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are the carpal bones?
what order are they in (medial vs lateral)?

A

Lateral:
scaphoid (proximal)
lunate (proximal)
trapezium (distal)
trapezoid (distal)
Medial:
triquetrum (proximal)
pisiform (proximal)
capitate (distal)
hamate (distal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what view best displays the esophagus?

A

RAO *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

how would we compensate for a lateral thoracic spine if the patient has broad shoulders and narrow waist?

A

Swimmers
angle 5-8 caudad + CR is C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is the injection site for a myelogram?
What is the name of this space?
Cisternal?
What position?

A

L3-L4 (subarachnoid space)
C1 & C2 (Erect or Prone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is volvulus?

A

twisting or looping of intestine
(may need surgery to correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is ascites?

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneum cavity in the abdomen

127
Q

what is intusseception?

A

telescoping of the bowel that cause an obstruction and become life threatening

128
Q

what is varus?
what is valgus?

A

inversion, inward turning
eversion outward turning

129
Q

what is GELI?
what is ICER?

A

GE (greater tubercle =external rotation)
LI (lesser tubercle= internal rotation)
IC (internal rotation= coronoid process)
ER (external rotation= radial head/capitulum)

130
Q

when would we see barium in the fundus?

A

LPO (supine)

131
Q

when would we see barium in the pylorus?

A

RAO

132
Q

what is the positioning for Townes?
what kind of projection is this?
what is the CR?
what is best shown?

A

AP Axial
30 caudad to OML
37 caudad to IOML
CR 2 1/2” superior to glabella
dorsum sellae within the foramen magnum

133
Q

What is the positioning for Hass?
what kind of projection is this?
what is the CR?
what is best shown?

A

PA Axial
25 cephalic to OML
CR exit 1 1/2” superior to nasion
dorsum sellae within foramen magnum

134
Q

what is the positioning for the Caldwell projections?
what kind of projection is this?
what is best shown?

A

PA Axial
OML perpendicular to IR
15 caudad
CR exit the nasion
petrous ridges in the lower 1/3 of the orbit

135
Q

what is the positioning for the exaggerated Caldwell position?
what kind of projection is this?
what is best shown?

A

PA Axial (exaggerated)
25-30 caudad
CR exit at nasion
OML perpendicular to the IR
petrous ridges completely out of the orbit

136
Q

what is the positioning for the waters?
what is another name for this?
what kind of projection is this?
what is best shown?

A

parietoacanthial
MML perpendicular to the IR (OML forms a 37 degree relationship to IR)
CR exit the acanthion

137
Q

what is the positioning for the exaggerated waters?
what is another name for this?
what kind of projection is this?
what is best shown?

A

parietoacanthial
LML is perpendicular to the IR (OML forms 55 degree angle with IR)
CR exits acanthion
sphenoid sinus (in the mouth)
(All 4 sinuses are shown)

138
Q

what is the positioning for lateral skull?
what is best shown?

A

CR for Lat skull is 2 inches above EAM
IPL perpendicualr to IR
dorsum sella, sella turcica, & lateral view of skull cap

139
Q

what is the relationship between fractures ends of the bone?
what are the different types?

A

how fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other
anatomic apposition (normal, end-to-end contact)
lack of apposition (distraction, end of fragments are alligned but don’t make contact with each other)
bayonet apposition (fx fragments overlap and shafts make contact but not the fx ends)

140
Q

if our patient is hypersthenic for AP knee we will have to angle either cephalic, caudad, or perpendicular. what are these 3 angulations for different body habitus? (Table top knee)

A

average hips/butt 19-24 cm: no angle
smaller than 19 cm: 5 caudad (flat butt)
greater than 24cm: 5 cephalic (judy)

141
Q

what do we do if the odontoid process is clipped while performing the odontoid exam?

A

allign the mastoid tip & upper incisors
(allign the top of the incissors with the base of the skull)

142
Q

what kind of curvatures are these:
lumbar?
thoracic?
cervical?
sacrum/coccyx?

A

concave/lordotic (2nd compensatory)
convex (1st primary)
concave/lordotic (1st compensatory)
convex (2nd primary)

143
Q

when are the zygapophyseal joints shows for thoracic spine?
cervical?
lumbar?

A

70 degree oblique (upside)
90 degree lateral
45 degree oblique (downside)

144
Q

what is the primary purpose of premedication for iodinated contrast studies?

A

to avoid/minimalize allergic reactions

145
Q

what combination of drugs is given before an IVU to reduce contrast reactions?

A

prednisone + Benadryl

146
Q

what are the functions of the kidneys?

A

filter blood & remove waste through urine

147
Q

what is the functional study of the urethra & bladder?

A

Voiding cystourethrography (VCU) *

148
Q

which contrast study requires contrast to be injected into the renal pelvises?

A

retrograde urethrogram (RUG)

149
Q

why would we do a HSG?
what is this?

A

access uterine position, lesions, & obstructions
contrast study of the uterus to assess the function of the female reproductive system (uterines)

150
Q

what is a neonate?

A

technical term for newborn

151
Q

what describes the space between the primary and secondary growth centers?

A

epiphyseal plate

152
Q

Review:
The capitulum is part of what bone?

A

distal humerus

153
Q

Review:
What elbow view causes cross over?

A

internal elbow
but also PA forearm

154
Q

Review: Joints
What kind of joint is radioulnar?

A

pivot (trochoidal) joint

155
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is elbow, humeroulnar and humeroradial

A

hinge (ginglymus)

156
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is interphalangeal (IP)

A

All IP’s are hinge (ginglymus joints)

157
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is Metacarpophalangeal? (MCP)

A

Condyloid (ellipsoidal)

158
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is Carpometacarpal (CMC)

A

1st digit is Saddle (Sellar) joint
2-5 digits are plane (gliding) joints

159
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is distal radioulnar and proximal radioulnar?

A

pivot (trochoidal) joint

160
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is the radiocarpal joint?

A

ellipsoid (condyloid) joint

161
Q

Review: Joints
What joint is Intercarpal joints?

A

Plane (gliding) joints

162
Q

Review:
Lateral fracture best displayed in?

A

AP view

163
Q

Review:
What view shows the radius and ulna in slight superimposition?

A

AP
Either elbow or forearm

164
Q

Review:
what is the special view for the AP thumb?
what is the CR?

A

AP Robert’s view
15 degrees into the CMC joint

165
Q

Review:
What view shows arthritus?

A

Ball catcher

166
Q

Review:
what view best views carpal tunnel sydrome?

A

Gaynor hart method

167
Q

Review:
What view best displays the hook of the hamate (hamulus)?

A

Gaynor hart method

168
Q

Review:
What is a smith’s fx?

A

radius and ulna go posterior
distal part goes anterior *

169
Q

Review:
what a colles fx?

A

radius and ulna go anterior
distal part goes posterior *

170
Q

Review:
what is a boxer’s fx?

A

fracture of the fifth metacarpal

171
Q

Review:
what is a Bennet’s fx?

A

fracture at the base of the first metacarpal

172
Q

Review:
what is osteoporosis?
what do we do to technique?

A

decrease in bone density
decrease technique

173
Q

Review:
what is osteopetrosis?
what happens to technique?

A

hereditary disease resulting in abnormal dense bone
increase technique

174
Q

Review:
where is the olecranon process located?
when is it seen?

A

located posterior proximal of ulna
only seen in lateral elbow

175
Q

Review:
where is the coronoid process?
when is it seen?

A

located anterior proximal of the ulna
seen best in internal elbow oblique

176
Q

Review:
What is ICER?

A

IC= internal- coronoid (trochlea)
ER= external- radial head (capitulum)

177
Q

Review:
what are the 3 fat pads?
when are they seen?

A

anterior, posterior & supinator fat stripe
lateral

178
Q

Review:
what projections can replace an AP elbow in a trauma setting?

A

alternate partial flexion elbow
2 projections
forearm parallel- CR mid elbow joint
humerus parallel- CR mid elbow joint

179
Q

Review:
Internal elbow oblique shows?

A

coronoid process & trochlea
(radius and ulna superimposed)

180
Q

Review:
External elbow oblique shows?

A

Radial head & capitulum
(frees radius and ulna of superimposition)

181
Q

Review:
how do the elbow epicondyles look on a lateral elbow?

A

superimposed

182
Q

Review:
AP elbow the humeral epicondyles should be what to the IR?

A

Parallel

183
Q

Review:
Located on distal, lateral end of the humerus?

A

Capitulum

184
Q

Review:
How many fossa’s on the scapula?
What are the names?

A

4
Supraspinous fossa (superior, posterior)
Infraspinous fossa (inferior, posterior)
Subscapular fossa (ventral/anterior)
Glenoid fossa (lateral, anterior)

185
Q

Review:
What does the acromioclavicular joint articulate with?

A

Clavicle & acromion

186
Q

Review:
What does the sternoclavicular joint articulate with?

A

clavicle & sternum

187
Q

Review:
What is the medial extremity?
What is the lateral extremity?

A

Sternal extremity (Near SC joint)
Acromial extremity (Near AC joint)

188
Q

Review:
Deep grove between the two tubercles?

A

Intertubercular groove (Bicipital groove)

189
Q

Review:
What does the sternal extremity articulate with?

A

Manubrium
(A part of the sternum)

190
Q

Review:
What are the 3 borders of the scapula?

A

Superior border
Axillary (lateral) border
Vertebral (medial) border

191
Q

Review:
What are the angles of the scapula?

A

Superior angle
Inferior angle

192
Q

Review:
What fossa are on the dorsal side of the scapula?
What are the fossa on the costal side of the scapula?

A

Supraspinous fossa (which is superior)
Infraspinous fossa (which is inferior)
Subscapular fossa

193
Q

Review:
On the Y view of the shoulder, what is shown on the scapula?

A

Coracoid process (right side)
Acromion (left side)
Inferior angle
Spine of scapula
Body of scapula

194
Q

Review: Joints
What kind of joint is the scapulohumeral (glenohumeral) joint?
What is another name for this joint?

A

Ball or socket
Spheroidal

195
Q

Review: Joints
AC and SC joints are what type?
What is another name for this joint?

A

plane or gliding

196
Q

Review:
The mobility type for the SC, AC, and scapulohumeral joint are:

A

diarthrodial (freely moveable)

197
Q

Review:
What rotation best shows the greater tubercle?
What rotation best shows the lesser tubercle?

A

External rotation
Internal rotation

198
Q

Review:
For external rotation how is the hand?
How are the epicondyles on a external rotation?
How is the humerus in a external rotation?

A

Supinated
Parallel to the IR
AP

199
Q

Review:
How is the hand in an internal rotation?
How is the humerus in an internal rotation?
How are the epicondyles in an internal rotation?

A

Pronated
Humerus is lateral
Perpendicular to the IR

200
Q

Review:
what is the CR for Internal Shoulder?
What is the CR for Grashey?

A

1 inch inferior to coracoid process
35-45 degree LPO/RPO patient oblique
2 inches inferior 2 inches medially

201
Q

Review:
What is the CR for a Y shoulder view?
Neer view?

A

45-60 degrees LAO/RAO patient oblique to affected side
Y: at scaphoid-humeral joint
Neer: 10-15 degrees caudad

202
Q

Review:
What is the CR for an Axillary shoulder?
What is the CR for a transthoracic lateral?

A

Scapulohumeral joint
surgical neck

203
Q

Review:
What is the CR for AP clavicle?
Axial clavicle?

A

AP: mid-clavicle
AP-axial: 15-30 degrees cephalic
(25-30 degrees asthenic & 15-20 for hypersthenic)

204
Q

Review:
what is the CR for AC joints?
how many views?

A

1 “ superior to jugular notch
2 views (with & without weights)

205
Q

Review:
when should we do the neutral rotation for the shoulder?

A

trauma situations

206
Q

Review:
The scapular notch is located on what part of the scapula?

A

Superior border

207
Q

Review:
To prevent the medial aspect of clavicles from superimposing the spine in the Grashey we would:

A

Oblique the patient
rotate the patient to the affected side

208
Q

Review:
Why do we add weights to the AC joint projection?

A

to separate the joint spaces
(weight add stress and allow the shoulders to “naturally” fall)

209
Q

Review:
What is the CR for a transthoracic lateral projection?

A

surgical neck
(on the humerus in profile)

210
Q

Review:
Where do the medial and lateral borders of the scapula meet?

A

at the inferior angle

211
Q

Review:
The scapula is required to be in this position for the Neer method?

A

scapula needs to be lateral
perpendicular to IR

212
Q

Review:
What is the flattened triangular part on the scapula?

A

Acromion

213
Q

Review:
The AC joints is the articulation of what parts?

A

scapula (acromion) & clavicle

214
Q

Review:
This is the only bony articulation between the upper extremity and the torso:

A

Sternoclavicular joint (SC joint)

215
Q

Review: Joints
The AC joint is what joint classification?
The SC joint is what type of joint?

A

Plane or gliding

216
Q

Review:
For an AP stress study for an ankle, what would we not do to the foot?
Demonstrate a ligament tear
Rupture ligament
inversion/eversion
demonstrate a fracture of the tib fib

A

Not move the foot around due to the fracture of the Tibia and fibula
we would look at the ligaments

217
Q

Review:
What is the difference between a mortise and an oblique ankle?

A

mortise is rotated 15-20 degrees medially
oblique ankle is rotated 45 degrees

218
Q

Review:
Which rotation has the intermalleolar line parallel to the IR?

A

AP mortise ankle
15-20 degree internal/medial rotation

219
Q

Review: Joints
What type of joint is the ankle?

A

saddle or sellar Joint

220
Q

Review:
Which Malleoli is superior?

A

medial malleoli

221
Q

Review:
What is GML?
What is OML?
What is IOML?
What is AML?
What is LML?
What is MML?
What’s the degree difference between OML and IOML?

A

gabellomeatal line (GML)
Orbitomeatal line (OML)
infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
Acanthiomeatal line (AML)
lips-meatal line (LML)
mentomeatal line (MML)
7 degree difference

222
Q

Review:
If we are shooting an AP axial (Townes) and in the picture the dorsum sellae is below the foramen magnum but the anterior arch of C1 is visible in the foramen. What error has taken place?

A

too much caudad angle
(almost becoming a tangential)
(dorsum sellae is supposed to be inside the foramen magnum, angling less will place it inside)

223
Q

Review:
The presence of ____ is often a contraindication for ERCP

A

Pseudocyst of pancreas

224
Q

Review:
A hysterosalpingogram (HSG) can serve as a
therapeutic procedure for infertility.

A

True
(Mayo no longer does these)

225
Q

Review:
What was the primary reason for not using an oil-based contrast medium for an HSG?
A. Poor visibility of uterine tubes
B. Increased risk of reaction to contrast medium
C. Poor persistence within uterine tubes
D. Possible pulmonary embolus

A

Possible pulmonary embolus

226
Q

Review:
What is the most common pathologic indication for myelography?
A. HNP (herniated nucleus pulposus)
B. Trauma
C. Malignant or benign lesions
D. Spinal cysts

A

A. HNP

227
Q

Review:
The most common injection site for
myelography is:
A. C1-C2
B. L1-L2
C. L3-L4
D. L5

A

C. L3-L4

228
Q

Review:
Iodinated contrast medium used for
myelography is no longer radiographically
detectable after:
A. 1 hr
B. 4 hr
C. 12 hr
D. 24 hr

A

D. 24 HR

229
Q

Review:
What is the name of the special endoscopic
device that is used during an ERCP?
A. Duodenoscope
B. Cholangioscope
C. Gastroscope
D. Pancreatic endoscope

A

A. Duodenoscope

230
Q

Review:
What is the most frequent joints for an arthrogram?

A

shoulder and knee
(shoulder most likely)

231
Q

Review:
What joints can’t be examined during an arthrogram?

A

Pubis Symphysis

232
Q

Review:
what should be parallel to the image receptor when performing an inferosuperior axial hip? (cross table)
A. Knee joint
B. Central Ray
C. Tube Face
D. Femoral epicondyles

A

C. Tube Face

233
Q

Review:
In an AP axial projection (frog) the femoral neck is parallel to the image receptor
How many degrees?
Vertically or horizontally?

A

True
30-40 degrees
Vertically
(Book says 40-45)

234
Q

Review:
How much do you oblique for Judet views?

A

45 degrees?
LPO/ RPO

235
Q

Review:
What do you see on the upside of the Judet views?

A

posterior rim of the acetabulum
anterior iliopubic column

236
Q

Review:
Is the Acetabulum in the Ilium, pubis, or ischium?

A

all three
The joint is separated into anterior, posterior, and superior portions.

237
Q

Review:
What do you see on the downside Judet view?

A

anterior rim of the acetabulum
posterior ilioschial column

238
Q

Review:
How do we position for an downside Judet view?

A

patient supine
45 degree oblique LPO/RPO
2 inches inferior + 2 inches medial to downside ASIS

239
Q

Review:
How do we position for an upside Judet view?

A

patient supine
45 degree oblique LPO/RPO
2 inches inferior to ASIS

240
Q

Review:
What is the main difference between a female pelvis and a male pelvis?

A

Male is <90 (less than 90 degrees, shaped more like a heart)
Female is >90 (mainly due to birthing reasons)
Male is acute angle
Female is obtuse angle

241
Q

Review:
What view/rotation best shows the lesser trochanters in profile?
greater trochanters?

A

external oblique/rotation
internal oblique/rotation

242
Q

Review:
what position best displays an anterior/posterior fracture?
What view best shows a lateral fracture?

A

Lateral projection
(AP) projection

243
Q

Review:
Axial lateral horizontal beam projection of the hips (cross table) requires the image receptor to be placed:
1. parallel to the central ray
2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck
3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

A

2 bc internal rotation makes the femoral neck parallel
3 bc we have patients lateral side closer to IR to reduce OID
cannot be no. 1 because the central ray is ALWAYS perpendicular to the image receptor

244
Q

Review:
In a frog position the femoral neck is _____ to the image receptor

A

parallel

245
Q

Review:
what part of the innominate bone makes up the obturator foramen?

A

Ischium
Pubis
(where the posterior and anterior meet to create the hole aka obturator foramen)

246
Q

Review:
How many degrees are the medial and lateral condyles of the femur are separated from each other?

A

5-7 degrees
(why we angle on knees)
(Medial extends more Distally than lateral)

247
Q

Review:
Where is the adductor tubercle located?

A

distal medial femur
(Near medial epicondyle)

248
Q

Review:
What can we use for a cross table lateral projection to improve the quality of the image?

A

add filter & grid

249
Q

Review:
What does the femur articulate with distally?

A

Patella
tibia

250
Q

Review:
What is the central ray for the AP pelvis?

A

2 inches inferior to ASIS
midway point between ASIS and Pubis symphysis
(15–20-degree internal rotation of affected leg)

251
Q

Review:
What is the CR for inlet?

A

40 degrees caudad
CR ASIS

252
Q

Review:
What is the CR for outlet? (Taylor method)

A

20-35 degrees cephalic for men
30-45 degrees cephalic for women
CR 1-2 inches inferior to pubis symphysis

253
Q

Review:
What does Nakayama view replace?

A

lateral hip (cross table)
Trauma view

254
Q

Review:
Where do you inject for a Myelogram (cervical)?
What is this called?

A

C1-C2
Subarachnoid space
Cisternal puncture

255
Q

Review:
What is Lordosis?
What is Kyphosis?
What is Scoliosis?

A

exaggerated lumbar curvature
(swayback)
increased (exaggerated) convexity in the thoracic area (humpback)
exaggerated lateral curvature of the spine

256
Q

Review:
what is concave?
what is convex?

A

rounded inward
rounded outward

257
Q

Review:
Cervical is what type of curve?
Thoracic is what type of curve?
lumbar is what type of curve?
sacrum (sacral) is what type of curve?

A

concave
convex
concave
convex

258
Q

Review:
Where is the pedicle located? *
What does it connect?

A

posterior to the body of the vertebrae
attaches body to vertebral arch

259
Q

Review:
How do we position for an open mouth?

A

upper incisors and base of skull lined up

260
Q

Review:
(t/f)
During trauma we are doing a cross table lateral for a cervical spine we don’t see the anatomy demonstrated we would use a sand bag.

A

false
Sandbags would cause more harm then good

261
Q

Review:
What is the name of the joint that articulates/connects the skull and the atlas?

A

Atlantooccipital joint

262
Q

Review:
In a cervical exam when would we see the zygapophyseal joints? (C2-C7)
When do we see the C1 & C2 Z joints?

A

true lateral
In an AP open mouth

263
Q

Review:
how we position for a flexion cervical?
How would we position for extension cervical?

A

true lateral
depress chin until it touches chest
raise chin and tilt head back as far as possible

264
Q

Review:
Where are the laminae located?
What does it connect?

A

connects the transverse process to the spinous process

265
Q

Review:
Which foramen is seen in PA cervical oblique? what is the angle?
Which foramen is seen in AP cervical oblique? what is the angle?

A

downside (closest to IR)
(marker is on side down) (RAO/LAO) + 15 caudad
foramen farthest from IR (upside)
(marker on side up) (RPO/LPO) + 15 cephalic

266
Q

Review:
What is the jeffersons fx?
best shown in?

A

fx of C1 Ant & Post arches
from landing on feet/head abruptly
(AP open mouth best demonstrates this)

267
Q

Review:
Scoliosis can be caused by:

A

Neuromuscular disorder
congenital (happens from birth)
idiopathic (just cause)

268
Q

Review:
What skull line would we use to position for Judd and Fuchs?

A

MML
(Mentomeatal line)

269
Q

Review:
What level is the EAM located at?
At what level is the mastiod tip located?
What level is the vertebral prominens at?
What level is the jugular notch located at?
What level is the xiphoid tip located at?
What level is the thyroid cartilage located at?
What level is the sternal angle located at?
Where is mid thorax located?

A

1 inch above C1 (mastoid tip)
C1 (one inch inferior to EAM)
C7
T2-T3
T9-T10
C5 (varies between C4-C6)
T4-T5
T7

270
Q

Review:
What is the clay shoveler’s fx?
best shown in?

A

avulsion fx of C6 to T1 from hyperextending neck
(best demonstrated in a lateral C spine)

271
Q

Review:
LPO best demonstrates _____ lumbar Z joints.
Upside or downside?

A

left zygapophyseal joints
downside

272
Q

Review:
RPO best demonstrates _____ lumbar Z joints.
Upside or downside?

A

right zygapophyseal joints
downside

273
Q

Review:
If the patient has a traumatic injury to their spine, its best to manipulate the tube rather than move the patient

A

true
Moving the patient in trauma situations can lead to more damage

274
Q

Review:
What is an intrathecal procedure?

A

Administering drugs through the spinal canal
(Ex: MP with chemo)
(intrathecal= spinal space)

275
Q

Review:
What is the CR for Sacrum and coccyx?
What is the angle?

A

midway between pubis symphysis and ASIS or 2 inches inferior to ASIS
or 2 inches superior to pubis symphysis
(all mean the same thing)
15 cephalic for sacrum
10 caudad for coccyx

276
Q

Review:
What do you see in a Myleogram?
1. posterior disk herniation
2. posttraumatic spinal cord swelling
3. internal disk legions

A

1 & 2
We can’t see the internal disk legions because the contrast goes up and down the spinal cord.
We can’t see because the “gusher” in the disc space.

277
Q

Review:
What is the angle for a PA sacrum and coccyx?

A

15 caudad for sacrum
10 cephalic for coccyx
(AP to PA changes angle)

278
Q

Review:
When performing obliques if the pedicle appears to be too posterior what is the cause?
How do we fix it?

A

over rotated (too lateral/posterior)
oblique less

279
Q

Review:
When performing obliques if the pedicle appears to be too anterior what is the cause?
How do we fix it?

A

under rotated (too AP)
oblique more

280
Q

Review:
What is the pathology that involves the PARS?
What projection best shows this?

A

Spondylosis
Oblique lumbar

281
Q

Review:
What connects the vertebral body to the transverse process?

A

pedicle

282
Q

Review:
What is spondylolisthesis?
Best shown in?

A

forward slipping of one vertebrae
Originates from spondylosis
Common in L5-S1
“Slipped disc”
best shown in a lateral

283
Q

Review:
What is Spondylosis?

A

a fx (defect) to the PARS interarticularis
(“Scottie dog wearing a collar”)
Most common at L4-L5

284
Q

Review:
Why would we have the patient flex their knees or place a sponge during a supine AP lumbar projection?

A

fix the curvature of the spine
to reduce OID
decrease magnification

285
Q

Review:
LPO best shows what lumbar z joints?

A

left zygapophyseal joints
downside

286
Q

Review:
RPO best shows what lumbar z joints?

A

right z joints
downside

287
Q

Review:
What is the angulation for AP Axial SI joints?
What is the CR?

A

30 degrees cephalic for men
35 degrees cephalic for women
midway between pubis symphysis and ASIS

288
Q

Review:
What is the CR for the spot (L5-S1 lateral)?

A

1.5 inches inferior to crest
2 inches posterior to ASIS
5-8 degrees caudad

289
Q

Review:
What does flex/ext show?
what does side-way bending show?

A

posterior/anterior displacement
lateral displacement

290
Q

Review:
Where is the level of ASIS?

A

S1-S2

291
Q

Review:
What is the CR for AP SI joints?
What is the obliques?

A

AP: 30 cephalic for men 35 cephalic for women + 2 inches below ASIS or 2 inches superior to Pubis symphysis
Obliques: 25–30-degree PO + 1 inch medial to UPSIDE ASIS

292
Q

Review:
What kind of joints are the Zygapophyseal joints?
What kind of joints are the intervertebral joints?

A

plane or gliding
(synovial/diarthrodial)
slightly movable (Amphiarthrodial)
(cartilaginous/symphysis)

293
Q

Review:
If the coccyx appears to have a greater curvature, we should increase the angle to ___ ____

A

15
Caudad

294
Q

Review:
If we go from supine to prone what happens to the angle?

A

changes from cephalic to caudad
(Vice versa)

295
Q

Review:
Posterior rib pain is what projection?
What side is in interest?
Anterior rib pain is what projection?
What side is in interest?

A

AP Downside (side that’s down)
PA Upside

296
Q

Review:
Patient walks in the ER with anterior left upper pain what oblique would we use?
What is the projection?

A

RAO
PA projection

297
Q

Review:
Patient walks in the ER with right anterior pain what oblique would we use?
What is the projection?
What is the side of interest?

A

LAO
PA
Upside ribs

298
Q

Review:
Patient walks in the ER with left lower posterior pain, what oblique best shows this?
What is the projection?

A

LPO
AP projection

299
Q

Review:
Patient walks in the ER with right lower posterior pain, what oblique best shows this?
What is the projection?

A

RPO
AP projection

300
Q

Review:
RAO best shows what axillary?
LPO shows what axillary?
RPO best shows what axillary?
LAO best shows what axillary?

A

left axillary
left axillary
right axillary
right axillary

301
Q

Review:
If patient is in a RPO position, what pain are they experiencing?
If patient is in a LAO position, what pain are they experiencing?

A

right posterior pain
(AP = side down)
right anterior pain
(PA = Away)

302
Q

Review:
What position best shows the ribs below the diaphragm?

A

recumbent
(can move the belly out of the way)

303
Q

Review:
What is the breathing technique for lower (below) rib views?
What is the breathing technique for upper ribs/ above diaphragm projections?

A

expose on expiration
Expose on inspiration

304
Q

Review:
What pathologies can you see specifically from expiration x-rays?

A

pneumothorax
hemothorax
&
Pulmonary contusions

305
Q

Review:
What happens to the diaphragm on expiration?
What happens to the diaphragm on inspiration?

A

diaphragm moves up
diaphragm moves down

306
Q

Review:
Why does the expiration breathing technique show pneumothorax?

A

expiration shows the escaped air in the pleura cavity

307
Q

Review:
Which part of the rib attaches to the transverse process?
What is this joint called?
What type of joint is it?

A

tubercle of the rib
costotransverse
plane or gliding

308
Q

Review:
Which part of the rib attaches to the vertebral body?
What is this joint called?
What type of joint is it?

A

head of the rib
(“head to the body”)
costovertebral
plane or gliding

309
Q

Review:
which of the following positions will best demonstrate the ribs of the left thorax?

A

RAO & LPO

310
Q

Review:
What kind of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

synovial
diarthrodial
plane or gliding

311
Q

Review:
What kind of joint are the first to tenth costochondral joints?
what kind of joint is the first sternocostal joint?
what kind of joints are the second to seventh sternocostal joints?
what kind of joints are the sixth to ninth interchondral joints?
what kind of joints are the costotransverse joints? (1-10)

A

synarthrodial (immoveable)
(immoveable) cartilaginous synarthrodial
synovial diarthrodial plane or gliding
synovial diarthrodial plane or gliding
plane or gliding

312
Q

Review:
How many costovertebral joints are there?
how many costotransverse joints are there?

A

12
10

313
Q

What are the views for the sternum?

A

RAO (15-20 degree oblique)
lateral
(LPO if patient is unable to achieve RAO)

314
Q

Review:
which ribs are the false ribs?
which ribs are the true ribs?
which ribs are the floating ribs?
What makes the ribs true ribs?

A

8-12
1-7
11 &12
the connect directly to the sternum