Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are body mechanics?
A. Positioning in anatomical neutral alignment.
B. Efficient use of one’s body to produce safe motion.
C. Positioning to produce adequate force.
D. Use of mechanical mobility assistive devices to reduce muscle usage.

A

B. Efficient use of one’s body to produce safe motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In general, where is a person’s COG located?
A. Vertical midpoint in their vertebral column.
B. Approximately at the level of the umbilicus
C. Horizontal midpoint between posterior SI (sacroiliac) joints.
D. Anterior to the upper portion of sacrum.

A

D. Anterior to the upper portion of sacrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Think about a 1-year-old, just learning to walk. Does COG differ, compared to their parents?
A. COG is lower as the child is very short.
B. Depends on if the child is proficient in balanced gait.
C. COG is higher.
D. There is no significant difference.

A

C. COG is higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the below will probably present with the smallest BOS, all reference the same adult patient?
A. Normalized gait, with normal step length and UE(arm) swing.
B. Stance in someone who has genu valgum (knock-knee).
C. Tibial fracture, utilizing a knee trolley to support LE (leg).
D. Guarding on right heel secondary to acute plantar fasciitis.

A

D. Guarding on right heel secondary to acute plantar fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Reference body mechanics, which are descriptors:

anatomical/neutral efficient/safe power/force

A

efficient/safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When moving patient, which of these is least efficient and why? push, slide, lift, pull, roll

A

lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define the patient status of Modified Independent.

A

does not need assistance, but needs AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Min, Mod, Max assist: % pt work levels?

A

75%, 50%, 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Given Min-Mod-Max-Total Assist, what do you need to use for safety?

A

gait belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much weight is patient supposed to bear in TTWB?

A

~10% or 10 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patient <=50% WB =________________ (WB)?

A

partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Populations at Risk when positioning

A
Amputee
Hemiplegic
Burn victims
Bed/WC bound
Plegia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ifpatientisnotmovingregularly(i.e.bedbound),whatbecomesa concern?

A

ulcers, pressure injuries, contractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Whatneedstobedonetopreventformationofdecubiti?

A

move @ MINIMUM every 1-2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Timeframesfor:Possibletissuedamage?

A

15 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Decubitus=tissuebreakdownover______________________?

A

bony prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Whataresomeofthepositivesofsupinepositioning?

A

good communication, verbal/non-verbal
easily modifiable
pt comfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describechallengesinpronepositioning.

A

communication difficult, verbal/nonverbal
harder position to get into
might not be as comfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Whatpositionpromotesgoodcommunicationwithpatient?

A

supine or sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Howdoyoudecidetodrapeornot?

A

cultural/religious preferences

appropriate area exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
Whatisnotneededforweightacceptance?
A.Forwardprogression.
B.Limbstability.
C.Footclearance.
D.Shockabsorption.
A

C.Footclearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WhichoftheseshouldNOTbedone,when
assistingapatienttoambulate?
A.Useagaitbelt.
B.Astherapist,haveawideBOS.
C.Challengepatientwithgaitpatternintheirability.
D.Guardpatientfromthefronttoprovidestability.

A

D.Guardpatientfromthefronttoprovidestability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patientwithmultiplesclerosis(MS),occasionalbalance
issues,stillambulatoryandgood,equalstrengthinUE,LE,andcore.
Whatassistivedevicedoyousuggest?
A.Singlecane.
B.Standardwalker.
C.WheelchairasMSisprogressive.
D.Lofstrandcrutches.

A

A.Singlecane.

24
Q

Pediatricpatient,7YO,withcerebralpalsy(CP),veryactive,
pronouncedscissoringgait,minorbalanceissuesfatiguesinlong
hallwaysatschool.WhatADdoyousuggest?
A. Customwheelchairduetofatigue.
B. Rollingwalker.
C.Quadcane.
D.Axillarycrutches.

A

B. Rollingwalker.

25
When doing observational gait analysis (OGA), you observe your patient  from right heel strike to left heel strike.  This is a _________. 
step
26
How do you change a step to equal a stride?  What term is synonymous? 
heel strike to ipsilateral heel strike; gait cycle
27
Number of steps/minute  = cadence or speed? | Walk ½ mile in 8 minutes = cadence or speed?
cadence | speed
28
What are the two main periods in the gait cycle and relative time spent in each?
stance (60%); swing (40%)
29
A patient describes pain in walking when  weight is transferred to the forefoot region.    Which phase of gait is this? 
terminal stance
30
 In getting ready to do gait training with a patient using crutches for the  first time, what would is the most appropriate action to perform first? And how?
ensure appropriate measurement first; 2 fingers b/t armrest and axilla; hand grip @ level of radial styloid; measure from 2" horizontally from toes/6" out in front of toes
31
Describe patient WB status for 4point, 3point, and 2point gait patterns.  Which are slower/faster?  More stable?
FWB,NWB, FWB; 4-point slowest, 2-point/3-point faster; 4-point/2-point most stable
32
 Assistive devices (AD) are used to compensate for impaired balance,  decreased strength, decreased WB status, or pain during weight bearing.   Which of these can be addressed by use of a cane?
impaired balance
33
Your patient is safest with a 3‐1 gait pattern.  What does that mean and  which assistive device will be most appropriate? 
PWB in affected limb; bilateral AD/walker
34
Describe how to properly fit a rolling walker to your elderly patient.
handle at level of radial styloid
35
What modification can allow for the motion that is  | needed for sports? 
camber
36
ADA refers to ________________ and prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in what situations?
Americans with Disabilities Act; protects in all capacities esp. federal; buildings, activities, etc.
37
In the initial phase of differential diagnosis, what is the first thing that PT  needs to answer about their patient?
do they even belong in my clinic; red/yellow flags
38
In general, what are red flags? Provide some examples.
any reason to refer pt out; unexplained weight loss, psychological issues, pain awaking pt at night/keeps them from going to sleep, fever/vomiting, etc.
39
Formulation of a hypothesis is? continuous/dynamic; static/fixed
continuous/dynamic
40
After you have done any chart review, established patient rapport, and  gathered general information, what is the next step in the Subjective  Examination?  
analysis; hypothesis generation
41
When looking at past and present history, MOI is often an enlightening  factor.  What does that stand for?
mechanism of injury
42
Disability and functional status should be screened during the  subjective examination.  One of the more common used is the  Oswestry Disability Index.  This index measures_____________ .
measures a patient's permanent functional disability; low back functionality
43
What scale can be used to measure functional status throughout all  regions of the body? 
PSFS (pt-specific functional scale)
44
When doing a subjective examination, your patient tells you that they  notice their pain significantly increases if they stand for more than 10  minutes, probably to a 6/10.  They usually have to sit down, which  decreases the pain.  From this discussion, extended standing is an  example of:_______.
agg
45
What does the term “easing factors” mean?
anything that relieves pain
46
PSHx stands for ____________________. 
Past Surgical History
47
SINSS? describe
``` severity irritability nature stage stability ```
48
Why would it be important to establish the irritability of a  patient’s condition during the subjective examination, with continual  reassessment throughout the evaluation? A.  Decide if patient’s goals are appropriate. B.   Determine how constantly the symptoms present. C.  Assess what the appropriate vigor of the objective exam should be. D.  Predict patient’s ability to do advanced skills.
C.  Assess what the appropriate vigor of the objective exam should be.
49
Your patient estimates that their knee pain is about  a 2/10.  It does bother them but they have been able to continue their job  as a cashier. What is the severity in this case? A.  Moderately severe B.  Non‐severe C.  Chronic D.  Moderately irritable
B.  Non‐severe
50
Truck driver presenting with cervical pain, stating that the  pain can get as high as a 7/10 when turning head to clear blind spot. She  notes that pain subsides when gaze returns forward and she has never had to stop  driving.  What do you rate the irritability level? A.  Non‐irritable B.   Moderately irritable C.   Severe irritability D.  Chronic, aggravated
A.  Non‐irritable
51
High school tennis player injured their knee during a  tournament over the weekend.  You are about to see them for your 9am appointment  on Monday morning.  In reviewing their medical history form, you see that they have  injured that same LE previously.  The appropriate stage for their injury is: A.  Chronic B.   Exacerbation C.   Sub‐acute D.  Acute
D.  Acute
52
Shoulder abduction occurs within the frontal plane. A. True B. False
A. True
53
``` You are performing elbow flexion AROM assessment.   This is an example of: A. Accessory Mobility B. Physiologic Mobility C. Passive Mobility D. None of the above ```
B. Physiologic Mobility
54
A goniometer is not used to measure which of the  following: A. AROM of knee flexion B. PROM in cervical rotation C. Gliding accessory motion in shoulder rotation D. Available motion in small finger joints
C. Gliding accessory motion in shoulder rotation
55
``` Which of the following is an abnormal end‐feel? A. Tissue stretch B. Soft tissue approximation C. Capsular—can be hard or soft D. Bone‐to‐bone ```
C. Capsular—can be hard or soft
56
You are working with a patient who has shoulder muscle  weakness.  The patient is able to hold the UE up against  gravity against moderate resistance.  What is the most  appropriate MMT grade? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5‐
C. 4
57
You observe a patient ambulate to the examination room for initial  evaluation and notice that a struggle to dorsiflex his R ankle during the  swing phases of gait.  There looks to be some motion but not through the  full expected range.  What is the most appropriate choice for patient  positioning when assessing tibialis anterior? A.  For safety, the patient should be placed in the sitting position. B.  The patient should be made to stand, to assess endurance. C. The patient should be placed in supine position.  D. You should not test the tibialis anterior.
C. The patient should be placed in supine position.