Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Genetics > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. Hershey and chase’s experiment demonstrated that genetic material can be transformed
B. Beatle and Tatum found that the genes for certain enzymes are linked
C. Avery et al. proved that DNA is the substance that causes bacterial transformation
D. Archibald Garrod demonstrated that a mutant gene produces a defective enzyme

A

C. Avery et al. proved that DNA is the substance that causes bacterial transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Beadle and Tatum used (____) what in their experiments?

A

Neuropora crassa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(________) type strain of S. pneumoniae causes pneumonia because it?

A

S, because it has a capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Melting curves of 3 DNAs with different GC content are shown: DNA A (GC=0%), DNA B (GC=50%), and DNA C (GC=100%). Which melting curve represents DNA C?

A

3–> The one with the highest GC content will have the highest TM (the temp which half the DNA exists at a single strand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which chemical group is the 5’ end of a single polynucleotide strand?

A

Phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a “stop codon”?

A

UAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DNA synthesis, that is the addition of a new nucleotide, always proceeds?

A

in the 5’ to 3’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In nucleic acids, the 5’ carbon of one sugar is held to the 3’ carbon of the adjacent sugar by?

A

a phospodiester bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The sequence of mRNA is 5’GGUUACAUUG-3. The sequence of the DNA template would be?

A

5’-GAATGTAACC-3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Avery observed that a non pathogenic strain of bacteria (type R) could be genetically transformed into a pathogenic strain if they took up a cellular component of a related pathogenic strain (Type S). To determine which substance was the transforming material, Avery treated a solution of the heat killed type S bacteria with the following enzyme solutions, then mixed this with the nonpathogenic type R bacteria and injected these mixtures into mice.
I)Nothing II)Proteinase III)DNase IV)RNase V)Proteinase, RNase and DNase
Assuming the pathogenic bacteria killed the mice, which of the following outsomes are consistent with the idea that DNA is the transforming material?

A

mice injected with mixtures I, II and IV died

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A circular plasmid of 10,000 base pairs is digested with two restriction enzymes, A and B, to produce a 3000 bp and a 2000 bp bands when visualized on agarose gel. When digested with one enzyme at a time, only one band is visible at 5000 bp. If the first site for enzyme A (A1) is present at the 100th base, the order in which the remaining sites (A2, B1, and B2) are present is?

A

B1, A2, B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Below is the incomplete sequence for the restriction enzyme Xhol. What is the nucleotide in (___)?
5’CTC(__)-3’

A

C because it is palindromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The DNA content of an organism contains 80% GC base pairs. On average, how frequently would you expect to find the sequence 5’ATGG-3’?

A

Once every 625 bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which primer will amplify my favorite gene if it is in the context below?
5’GGTACAGTC-MY FAVORITE GENE-CTAGATCAT-3
3’-CCATGTCAG-ENEG ETIROVAF YM-GATCTAGTA-5’

A

5’-GGTACAGTC-3’ and 5’ATGATCTAG-3’

Remember this one is backwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
In RNA, which if the following is true?
[G]=[C]
[A]=[T]
[G]=[C] =[A]=[T]
All of the above
A

[G]=[C]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is false regarding the denaturation of DNA?
DNA can be denatured with high heat
DNA can be denatured with high PH
Denaturation of DNA can be detected by measuring the UV absorption
The Tm decreases as G+C content of DNA increases
None of the above

A

The Tm decreases as G+C content of DNA increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If there were only the bases adenine and thymine, ho long would a codon have to be for there to be enough codons to specify 20 amino acids?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A recessive allele in mice results in an abnormally long neck. Sometimes, during early embryonic development, the abnormal neck causes the embryo to die. An experiment began with a population of true breeding normal mice and true breeding mice with long necks. Crosses were made between these two populations to produce an F1 generation. The F1 mice were then mated to each other to obtain an F2 generation. For the mice that were born alive, the following date were observed.
322 mice with normal necks
62 mice with long necks
What percentage of homozygous mice died in embryonic development?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A circular DNA of 4.7 Mb (Mb=million base pairs) length is cut with a restriction enzyme whose precise recognition sequence sequence is not known. The digest shows ~75 fragments on a pulsed-field gel. What is the most likely conclusion from this Data?

A

this enzyme creates blunt ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The template strand of a DNA sequence reads 5’GGGTTGCGGACGCTCCATCCGGC-3’ What is the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide sequence coded for by the RNA if translation occurs, in vivo, in which translation starts with the start codon?

A

Met-Glu-Arg-Pro-Gln-Pro

Recode the strand and read it backwards. (from right to left) to figure out coding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A mRNA with the sequence GGGGGGGGGGGG derived from the following gene-
5’-GGGGGGGGGGGGGGG-3’
3’-CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC-5’
was isolated. These results indicate that the _____ strand is the coding strand and the gene is transcribed from?

A

bottom, right to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Which of the following is a test cross?
AABBxAABB
AaBbxAaBb
AaBbxAABB
aabbxAaBb
A

aabbxAaBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This means that

A

Some codons code for the same amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
An allele is (\_\_\_).
1-a type of cell
2-a dominate trait
3-alternitive forms of the gene 
4-None of the above
A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Below is a plasmid with restriction sites for BamHI and EcoRI. Several restriction digests were done using these two enzymes either alone or in combination.

What is the size of this plasmid?

A

20kb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Below is a plasmid with restriction sites for BamHI and EcoRI. Several restriction digests were done using these two enzymes either alone or in combination.

Which lane shows the fragments produced when the plasmid was incubated with both EcoRI and BamHI?

A

Lane IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Given an individual who is heterozygous at 5 loci, how many different gametic genotypes are possible?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The enzyme used in PCR reactions is known as

A

Taq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Typical PCR go through?

A

denaturation—>annealing—->extention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Southern blot is the technique that is used to detect?

A

the presence of a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the deoxyribonucleotide shown below, which carbon atom carries the 3’ hydroxyl group?
base
I
D A
C B

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At a single locus, the are 4 alleles segregating in the population. How many different genotypes can possibly occur at this single locus in the population?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The wildtype phenotype refers to?

A

the phenotype that occurs most commonly in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mating of two organisms produces a 1:1 ration of phenotypes in the progeny. The parental genotypes are (___).

A

Aa aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ability to curl your tongue up on the sides (T, tongue rolling) is dominate to not being able to roll your tongue (t). A woman who can roll her tongue marries a man who cannot. Their first child has his father’s phenotype. What are the genotypes of the mother, father and child?

A

Mother (Tt), Father (tt), child (tt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The common grackle is a species of robin-sized blackbirds that are fairly common (henced the name) over most of the United states. Suppose that long tails (L) are dominate to short tails in these birds. A female short tailed grackle mater with a male long-tailed grackle who has one parent with a long tail and one with a short tail. How many of each genotype will be found in the F1 generation if there are 4 offspring

A

0LL, 2Ll, 2ll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In a trihybrid cross between WwGgPpxWwGgPp (W:round, w: wrinkles, G:yellow, g:green Y:purple, y:white) What is the proportion of WwGGPp?

What is the probability that the offspring phenotype is round, yellow and white?

A

1/16-WwGGPp

you solve this problem by figuring out the fractions of each and multiplying them

9/64-probability of round, yellow and white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If the genotype of an organism is Aa, BB, Cc, dd, Ee how many different genotypes of gametes are possible?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A cross is carried out between genotypes AaBBCcddEe and AaBbccDDEe. How many different types of progeny are possible?

A

36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A linear 700 bp fragment of DNA is digested with EcoRI. Two fragments result, a 300 bp and a 400bp fragment. When the same linear DNA is digested with HaeIII, two fragments result, a 200 bp and a 500 bp. A double digestion produces three fragments, 100 bp, 200 bp, and 400 bp. Which of the following are true?

1) HaeIII restriction site within the EcoRI 400 bp frag.
2) HaeIII restriction site within the EcoRI 300 bp frag.
3) EcoRI restriction site within the HaeIII 500 bp frag.
4) EcoRI restriction site within the HaeIII 200 bp frag.

A

2) HaeIII restriction site within the EcoRI 300 bp frag.

3) EcoRI restriction site within the HaeIII 500 bp frag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many nucleotides are need to code for a protein with 450 amino acids?

A

at least 1,350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___________ is the study of all genes in an organism to understand their molecular organization, function, interaction and evolutionary history.

A

Genomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Results from the tandem repeat analysis for a man and his four different children are shown (question 44 of test) Which lane contains the DNA of the Father?

A

Lane 3 (only lane that has both of the bends)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
The results of RFLP analysis of various DNA samples in a rape investigation is shown below. Samples of DNA were loaded into the following lanes:
1-blood of the victim 
2-blood of the defendant 
3-DNA size markers
4-Female vaginal swab of victim 
5-male section of vaginal swab of victim

If you are the DNA analyist, you should conclude that?

A

The suspect might be guilty, but more probes should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

RFLP analysis is a technique that?

A

uses hybridization to detect specific DNA restriction fragments in genomic DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

You are trying to restriction-map a plasmid and obtain the gel shown below. How many HindIII and BamHi sites are there in this plasmid (circular DNA)?

A

2 HindIII and 1 BamHI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Two true breeding (homozygote) stock of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red axial flowers and the other has white terminal flowers; All F! individuals have red axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red terminal flowers?

A

190n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A linear Fragment of DNA (7.5kb) is cleaved with the individual resriction enzymes HindIII and SmaI and then with a combination of the two enzymes. The fragements obtained are:
HindIII: 2.5kb, 5 kb
SmaI:2.0kb and 5.5kb
HindII and Small: 2.5, 3.0, 2.0

Where are the restriction sites?

A

Smal restriction site within the HindIII 2.5 kb frag

Hind restriction site within the 5.5kb Frag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In domesticated chickens, the dominate allele C is required for colored feathers, but a dominate allele I of an unlinked gene is an inhibitor of color that overrides the effects of C. White leghorns have a genotype CCII whereas white Wyandottes have a genotype cc ii. Both breeds are white but for different reasons. In the F2 generation of a cross between white leghorns and white wyandottes, what is the phenotypic ratio of white:colored?

A

9:3:3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What blood type is considered a universal recipient?

A

AB blood type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A crossover has occurred in the bivalent shown here. If a second crossover produced Abc, Abc, aBC, aBC gametes, it would involve chromatids (__) and (___) and occur between gene (___) and gene (__).

A

1, 3, A, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If you cross a red plant with a white plant and the offspring is pink, what is that called?

A

incompletely dominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Below is the result of DNA content analysis using flow cytometry. Which region corresponds to G2/M phase of a cell cycle?

A

C-»>

The last bump on the x-axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis?

a) Synapsis formation is unique to meiosis
b) Meiosis produces four haploid cells
c) DNA replication occurs twice during meiosis
d) Meiosis consists of two rounds of cell division
e) Meiosis produces gametes

A

DNA replication occurs twice during meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

IF the haploid number of the organism is 8, the number of combinations possible when chromosomes assort independently into gametes is?

A

256

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Below is the pedigree for a family, some of whose members exhibit the autosomal dominate trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square of a circle. What is the likelyhood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?

A

1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In humans, males are?

A

heterogametic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is not an example of euploidy?

A

monosomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is not true?
A)If every affected person has an affected parent, it is autosomal dominate pedigree
B)if two affected people have an unaffected child, it is autosomal recessive pedigree
C)in autosomal recessive inheritance, the average recurrance risk to the unborn sibling of an affected individual is 1/4.
D) if one parent is affected by an autosomal dominate disease and the other is normal, the recurrence risk for each child is 1/2

A

B)if two affected people have an unaffected child, it is autosomal recessive pedigree

AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE PARENTS CAN ONLY HAVE A AFFECTED CHILD
So for this to be correct it would have to be dom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the proper stages of mitosis in proper chronological order

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the sentence to help remember the stages of meiotic prophase 1?

A

Less zelous puts darcy down

62
Q

What are the stages of meiotic prophase 1?

A

Leptotene, zygotene, patchytene, diplotene, diakinesis

63
Q

Which of the following contributed to genetic variation in sexual reproduction?
Crossing over
Independent Assortment
Fertilization

A

all of the above

64
Q

A crossover has occured in the bivalent shown below. (question 15) If a second crossover occurs in the same region between these two genes, which two chromatids would be involved to produce 100% recombinates?

A

1 and 4

65
Q

Below is a pedigree of autosomal dominant inheritance. The members of this family were genotypes of a DNA marker that displays 6 alleles (A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6). One of the alleles is linked to disease allele. Who is the recombinate?

Question 16 has pedigree

A

III-6

66
Q

The synaptonemal complex ?

A

forms during prophase I of meiosis

67
Q

Two linked genes are seperated by a distance such that exactly 4 percent of the cells undergoing meiosis have one cross-over between the genes and 96 percent have no crossover. What is the percent recombination between the genes?

A

2%

68
Q

Which of the following is (are) NOT true about X-linked inheritance?
In X-linked dominate inheritance, the trait is never passed from father to son
In X-linked recessive inheritance, males are much more likely to be affected than females
In X-linked inheritance, a woman whose father was affected has normal sons and affected sons in the ration of 1:1.
All of the above
None of the above

A

None of the above

They are all true

69
Q

An affected male and a normal female have four children; two affected daughters and two normal sons. Each of these affected daughters (and their normal husbands) produce affected sons and affected daughters. The couple’s normal sons married normal women and had all normal children. What is the most likely mode of inheritance for this trait?

A

X-linked recessive

70
Q

A mating between two heterozygous parents will yeild 3:1 ratio of the dominate and recessive traits among sibships of a particular size. How often families with eight children contain exactly six children with dominate phenotype and two with the recessive phenotype?

A

31%

71
Q

Following is a pedigree of x-linked dominate disease. What is the risk of disease in an individual IV-9?
Question 23

A

Male 0% and Female 100%

72
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about crossing over?
Crossing over takes place during meiosis
Crossing over is a physical exhange between chromatids in a pair of homologous chromosomes
The probability of crossing over between two genes increases as the physical distance between the genes becomes larger
All of the above
None of the above

A

None of the above.

These are all true about crossing over.

73
Q

Below is the result of DNA content analysis from tumour and normal tissues. What is the possible chromosomal abnormality in the tumour?

->Picture is on question 24 of test 2

A

Duplication

74
Q

The maximum recombination frequency between two genes is?

A

50%

75
Q

In a test cross experiments, the frequency of recombination between genes a and b is 0.2; between b and c is 0.3; between c and d is 0.4; between b and d is 0.1; and between a and c is 0.5. What could be the order of the four genes?

A

c-b-d-a

76
Q

A coefficient of coincidence of 0.25 means?

A

the frequency of double crossovers is 1/4 of the number expected if there were no interference

77
Q

The diagram below shows bands corresponding to restriction-fragment length polymorphism in two genes, one with alleles A and a and the other with alleles B and b. The banding patterns of the parents P1 and P2 are shown on the left, and the number of each possible type of banding pattern observed among 200 offspring are shown at the right. What is the frequency of recombination between A and B?
Test 2 question 28 has diagram

A

0.2

78
Q

Below is the genetic map of linked gene A and B. An individual has the genotype aB/Ab. What is the proportion of AB gametes that this individual produces?

A

5%

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT true?
Map distance between any two genes is 0 in the Drosophila male
In euchromatin, there is a good correlation between physical distance and map distance.
In the genetic map, the length of heterochromatin is longer than that of euchromatin
All of the above
None of the above

A

In the genetic map, the length of heterochromatin is longer than that of euchromatin

80
Q

Crossing over occurs during what stage of prophase I?

A

Pachytene

81
Q

You are doing a genetics experiment with the fruit fly. In the “P” generation, you cross two true-breeding (homozygote) flies. The female parent is brown and wingless and the male parent is black with normal wings. All of the flies in the F1 generation are brown and have normal wings. The color alleles (“B” and “b”) and the wing alleles (“N” and “n”) are linked. You took an F1 female and cross her to a true-breeding black, wingless male. When you count the F2 generation, you got: 85 brown winged flies, 728 black winged flies, 712 brown wingless flies, and 75 black wingless flies.

What is the genotype of the female parent?

What is the genetic distance between the color and the wing genes?

A

What is the genotype of the female parent?
bN/Bn

What is the genetic distance between the color and the wing genes?
10%

82
Q

In D. virilis, the mutations dusky body color (dy), cut wings (ct), and white eyes (w) are all recessive alleles located in the X chromosome. Females heterozygous for all three mutations were crossed to dy ct w males, and the following phenotypes were observed among the offspring.

What is the map distance between dy and ct?

What is the coefficient of coincidence?

A

What is the map distance between dy and ct?
0.098

What is the coefficient of coincidence?
0.58

83
Q

In addition to their ability to polymerize nucleotides, most DNA polymerases also can function as?

A

3’ to 5’ exonuclease

84
Q

In DNA replication, primase is responsible for?

A

synthesizing an RNA primer for DNA synthesis

85
Q

In a replicating DNA molecule, the region in which parental strands are separating and new strands are being synthesized is called?

A

replication fork

86
Q

Which of the following proteins has helicase activity?

A

DnaB

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about bacterial DNA polymerase III?
Core complex is involved in polymerization of nucleotide.
y complex serves as B clamp loader
B clamp prevents the core complex from dissociating from template DNA
All of the Above
None of the above

A

None of the above

88
Q

In DNA replication, the lagging strand is?

A

a single DNA strand synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately joined together

89
Q

Which DNA polymerase is a ‘real’ DNA polymerase in E.coli?

A

DNA polymerase III

90
Q

This enzyme removes over winding during DNA replication

A

gyrase

91
Q

Proofreading function is mediated by ____ activity of DNA polymerase?

A

3’ to 5’ exonuclease

92
Q

During DNA replication, the primers are removed by?

A

DNA polymerase I

93
Q

DNA ligase requires what as an energy source?

A

ATP

94
Q

Klenow fragment is a proteolytic product of E.coli DNA polymerase I which retains ____ and _____.

A

Dna polymerase activity and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity

95
Q

In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, what was the density distribution of the isolated DNA molecules two generation after shifting bacteria from ‘heavy’ to ‘light’ growth medium?

A

50% were of light density and 50% were of heavy density

96
Q

Which diagram shows the correct leading and lagging strant at the origin of replication?

Go look at test 2, 49 for pictures

A

D—>

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT true?
For genes that are distant along a chromosome, the true map distance is estimated by summing the recombination frequencies across shorter intervals.
Trans (repulsion) configuration means that the mutant alleles are on the same chromosomes
In any genetic crosses, the most frequent types of gametes are non-recombinate (parental).
During meiosis, the probability of single cross over is always greater than the probabilitity of double crossover

A

Trans (repulsion) configuration means that the mutant alleles are on the same chromosomes

98
Q

The origin of replication in E.coli is called?

A

oriC

99
Q

Disregarding crossing over, which increases the amount of genetic diversity, estimate the probability that all your chromosomes have come to you from your father’s mother and your mother’s mother?

A

(1/2)^23

100
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about eukaryotic replication?
Primer is a short stretch of RNA and DNA
Eukaryotic chromosomes contains multiple origins of replication
Bidirectional DNA synthesis creates a leading and a lagging strand.
Primers are removed as an intact unit of RPA/endonucleuses
The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is faster.

A

The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is faster.

101
Q

The picture below is two Holliday junctions in a pair of DNA molecules undergoing recombination. Breakage and rejoining of the strands indicated by the arrows _______ and ______ results in crossover.

A

2 and 3

102
Q

Which of the following means, “the second band in the first region of the short arm of the chromosome 3”?

A

3p12

103
Q

Gene conversion results from?

A

mismatch repair and gap repair

104
Q

Histone proteins contain high amounts of amino acids __________ and _______.

A

Arginine and Lysine

105
Q

How many different polypeptide chains are present in each nucleosome?

A

10

106
Q

How many polypeptide chains are present in each core particle?

A

8

107
Q

The chromosome shown here is

Test 3 question 8

A

submetacentric

108
Q

In some cancer cells, there is an over expression of HDAS. What could be the possible consequence of HDAC expression?

A

Increased acetylation of histones

109
Q

Where in the genome are loxP sites located in a Cre/loxP model?

A

on either side of the gene to be knocked out

110
Q

If one of the parents is a 14/21 translocation carrier, _____ of the total offspring would be viable.

A

1/2

111
Q

If one of the parents is a 14/21 translocation carrier then _____ of viable offspring would have down syndrome

A

1/3

112
Q

If one of the parents is a 14/21 translocation carrier, ___ of the total offspring would have monosomy 14.

A

1/2

113
Q

If one of the parents has a trisomy 21, the probability of their child will inherit down syndrom is?

A

1/2

114
Q

The exchange of chromosomal segments between two-nonhomologous chromosomes is called?

A

translocation

115
Q

Some XY individuals are phenotypically females. What chromsomal abnormality could account for this?

A

a deletion of the portion of the Y chromosome containing the testis determining factor

116
Q

47, XXY is a condition called?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

117
Q

Turner syndrome is the result of?

A

monosomy of the X chromosome

118
Q

And event in which the centromeric regions of two non-homologous acrocentric chromosomes is called?

A

Robertsonian translocation

119
Q

How many barr bodies would be present in white blood cells of an individual with karyotype 48, XXXY?

A

2

120
Q

The calico pattern of coat coloration in female cats is an example of?

A

random X chromosome inactivation

121
Q

In eukaryotic chromosomes, the first level of compaction is the formation of?

A

nucleosome

122
Q

Which of the following general trancription factors bind to helicase activity?

A

TFIIH

123
Q

Below is the structure of gene 1 and 2 in the chromosome, which of the following is not true?

Test 3 question 24 has the diagram

A

The coding strand for gene 2 is the top strand of DNA

124
Q

p-dependent termination requires?

A

Terminator and U-rich RNA sequence

OR

p-protein, terminator and U-rich RNA sequence

125
Q

All eukaryotes have 3 different RNA polymerases which transcribe different types of genes. Which RNA polymerase transcribes protein-coding genes into mRNA in eukaryotes?

A

RNA polymerase II

126
Q

What general transcription factor binds to DNA first during transcription?

A

TFII

127
Q

What does the sigma factor protein’s role in bacterial transformation do?

A

helps the RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter

128
Q

Mutations in bacterial promoters may increase or decrease the level of gene transcription. Promoter mutations that increase transcription are termed up-promoter mutations, and those that decrease are called down promoter mutations. The sequence of the -10 region of the promoter for the lac operon is 5’-TATGTT-3. If the consensus sequence of the -10 region is 5’-TATAAT-3, what would be the down promoter mutation?

A

5’TTTGTT-3

129
Q

Formation of the D-loop (displacement loop) occurs during?

A

Gap repair

130
Q

The DNA in the chromosome E.coli is?

A

organized into a set of looped domains

131
Q

The C-value paradox refers to

A

the lack of correlation between genome size and level of metabolic, developmental and behavioral complexity among eukaryotes

132
Q

Which of these is an example of a viable human trisomy?

Trisomy:
16
17
18
19
20
A

Trisomy 18 is the only viable human trisomy in the list

however 13, 18 and 21 are all the viable human trisomies

133
Q

Use figure 36 on test 3 to answer the following-

What is the 4th nucleotide in the sample DNA (5’ to 3’)?

A

C

134
Q

Use figure 36 on test 3 to answer the following-

Which nucleotide on DNA strand being synthesized is closest to the 3’ end of the primer?

A

C

135
Q

Use figure 36 on test 3 to answer the following-

What is the nucleotide on the 5’ end of the sample DNA

A

C

136
Q

Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase is involved in the synthesis of the primer?

A

DNA polymerase alpha

137
Q

ddNTP is different than dNTP in having?

A

H in place of OH in the 3’ carbon of dNTP

138
Q

Electrophoretic mobility shift (gel shift)/super shift assays are used to?

A

Study protein-DNA interactions

139
Q

What are the steps of FISH?

A

Fixation of chromosomes, denaturation of DNA, and addition of DNA probes

140
Q

What percentage of recognized pregnancies in humans terminate in spontaneous abort?

A

15%

141
Q

___% of spontaneous abortions are associated with chromosomal abnormalities

A

50

142
Q

The cells used for chromosome analysis are first arrested during?

A

metaphase

143
Q 
Which of the following is NOT formed during crossover mediated by homologous recombination?
d loop
heteroduplex
Holliday junctions
All of the above 
None of the above
A

none of the above

144
Q

Bill and Betty have had two children with Down syndrome. Bill’s brother has down syndrome and his sister has two children with down syndrome. On the basis of these observations, what is most likely?

A

Bill has 47 chromosomes

145
Q

Which of the following is not true?
the modifications of the histone tails are important for regulation of gene activity
A part compaction of the circular bacterial chromosomes results from supercoiling
Amino acid sequences of histones are highly conserved
In euchromatin, transcription is generally silent

A

In euchromatin, transcription is generally silent

146
Q

What are activators?

A

the bind to the DNA and induce transcription

147
Q

What are repressors?

A

decrease the transcription

148
Q

What are small effector molecules?

A

The DO NOT bind to DNA but instead bind to regulatory proteins and regulate their binding of DNA

149
Q

What does the Inducer do?

A

increases transcription

150
Q

What do the Corepressor do?

A

binds with repressor to create a functional repressor molecule

151
Q

What does the inhibitor do?

A

binds to an activator protein and prevents binding to DNA

Genetics (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions