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Anatomy 1 LECTURE > FINAL EXAM REVIEW > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is found in gray matter?

A

a. Cell bodies
B. Synapses
C. Unmyelinated axons

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2
Q

Why is white matter white?

A

Axons are myelinated here. Myelin on axons is made up mostly lipids.

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3
Q

What is the filum terminal and where is it found?

A

Pia matter that extends down past the spinal cord and attaches to the coccyx

a fibrous band that extends from the conus medullaris to the periosteum of the coccyx

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4
Q

What is cauda equina? Where can it be found?

A

nerve roots that start at inferior end of spinal cord + extend down until they exit

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5
Q

What can be found in the columns of the spinal cord?

A

Myelinated tracts

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6
Q

What can be found in the horns of the spinal cord?

A

Cell bodies, synapses, Unmyelinated axons

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7
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and where does it end?

A

Begins in foramen magnum and ends at L1

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8
Q

From superficial to deep, name the meninges and the type of tissue in each meninx:

A

a. Dura mater - fibrous connective tissue
b. arachnoid - fine collagen + elastic fibers
c. Pia mater- fibrous connective tissue

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9
Q

Where is CSF found? What is its function?

A

subarachnoid space - protection, carry nutrients and waste

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10
Q

What chemicals comprise CSF?

A

plasma, ions, 99% Water

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11
Q

How does the epidural space around the spinal cord differ from the epidural space around the
brain?

A

the epidural space around the spinal

Cord contains fat

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12
Q

What is a spinal tap? Where is a spinal tap performed and why?

A

Collection of CsF for testing. L2- L3 because there is no spinal cord, so no risk of damage.

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13
Q

What can be found in the central canal of the spinal cord?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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14
Q

What is a plexus?

A

Weaving of nerves near the spinal cord

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15
Q

What is the major nerve of the cervical plexus and where does it innervate?

A

Phrenic nerve - diaphragm

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16
Q

Name three nerves the exit the brachial plexus:

A

Axillary nerve, radial nerve, and ulnar nerve

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17
Q

Which brachial plexus nerve innervates muscles that extend the wrist?

A

Radial nerve

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18
Q

Name the major nerve of the lumbar plexus. Which large muscle does it innervate?

A

Femoral nerve - quadriceps femoris (anterior thigh)

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19
Q

The axons of motor neurons that innervate The hamstrings are found in which nerve? From which plexus?

A

Sciatic nerve - sacral plexus

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20
Q

Are spinal nerves sensory, motor, or mixed?

A

Mixed

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21
Q

What happens to the spinal nerves that exit the thoracic vertebrae? Do they form a plexus?

A

They create intercostal nerves. No plexus

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22
Q

Through which structures do the spinal nerves exit the vertebral column?

A

Intervertebral foramen

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23
Q

Are the spinal nerves part of the CNS or PNS

A

PNS

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24
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

Parts of skin that are supplied by spinal nerves

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25
Q

Why are dermatomes significant?

A

Can help determine where a spinal injury may be located

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26
Q

What is the difference between a tract and a nerve?

A

Tract- bundle of axons in CNS

Nerve- bundle of axons and PNS

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27
Q

What is the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?

A

Ganglion- Group of cell bodies in PNS

Nucleus- Group of cell bodies in CNS

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28
Q

Describe where the following tracts are located and what sensory information they carry:
A. Lateral spinothalamic tract
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract
C. Posterior columns tract

A

A. Lateral column - pain and temperature
B. Anterior column - crude touch and pressure
C. Posterior column - proprioception, vibration, discriminative touch

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29
Q

What sensory information does the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

Proprioception

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30
Q

Describe where the following tracts are located and what motor information they carry:
A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Anterior corticospinal tract

A

A. Lateral column - 80% of motor

B. Anterior column - 20% of motor

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31
Q

What motor information is carried by the indirect motor pathways?

A

Muscle tone, balance, and posture

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32
Q

Concerning reflexes, name the components of the reflex arc:

A

a. receptor
b. afferent/ sensory neuron
C. Integration center
d. efferent/ motor neuron
e. effector

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33
Q

Concerning the cross X anatomy of the spinal cord, what is located in each of the following:

a. dorsal root ganglion
B. Dorsal root
C. Posterior gray horn
D. Anterior gray horn
E. Ventral root
A 
A. cell body of unipolar afferent neuron
b. Axon of sensory afferent neuron
C. Cell body of integration neuron/ Second order neuron of spinothalamic pathway
d. Cell body of Efferent motor neuron
e. Axon of efferent motor neuron
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34
Q

Sensory impulses always enter the ___________ of the spinal cord.

A

Dorsal root

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35
Q

What type of neuron is found in the dorsal root ganglion?

A

Unipolar

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36
Q

Name the specific components of the reflex arc for the stretch reflex: (there’s 4)

A

A. Muscle spindle
B. Unipolar sensory neuron
C. Efferent Motor neuron
D. Effector

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37
Q

What is a muscle spindle? Where is it located? What does it detect?

A

detects muscle changes in length of muscle, protects from over stretching, located in skeletal muscle

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38
Q

What is a Golgi tendon organ? What does it detect?

A

detects contraction,

protects from over contraction

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39
Q

How does the response of the effector differ in the stretch reflex and the tendon reflex?
Are these reflexes monosynaptic or polysynaptic?
Are they ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

stretch reflex - contracts; monosynaptic
tendon reflex - relaxes; Polysynaptic
Both are ipsilateral

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40
Q

What is the clinical significance of a positive Babinski sign?

A

indicates brain damage

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41
Q

What is the difference between an autonomic and a somatic reflex?

A

Somatic - skeletal muscle

autonomic - smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

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42
Q

is the withdrawal reflex Ipsilateral or Contralateral? What is its purose?

A

the withdrawal reflex is ipsilateral- causes

Flexor muscles to flex away from dangerous stimuli

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43
Q

Identify the structures in the reflex arc for the withdrawal reflex:

A

a. nociceptor
b. sensory afferent neuron
c. integration neuron
d. motor efferent neuron
e. flexor muscles

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44
Q

Name at least three autonomic reflexes:

A

A. Defecation
B. Urination
C. Pupillary reflex

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45
Q

What happens in the pupillary reflex?
A. Name the receptor
B. The Afferent neuron is carried by the ____________ nerve.
C. The Efferent neuron is carried by the ____________ nerve.
D. Name the effector.

A

A. Photo receptor
B.  optic
C. Oculomotor
D. Constrictor pupillae muscle (bilateral response)

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46
Q

Which two arteries supply the brain with blood? Note that actually there would be four arteries,
because each artery has a right and left side.

A

A. Right and left internal carotid artery

B. Right and left vertebral artery

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47
Q

Which structure actually makes cerebrospinal fluid? Where in the brain is cerebrospinal fluid made?

A

Choroid plexus.

Ventricles.

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48
Q

Explain the flow of Cerebrospinal fluid from the lateral ventricles of the brain to the superior sagittal sinus naming all the structures involved.

A

Lateral ventricles > third ventricle > cerebral aqueduct > fourth ventricle > subarachnoid space > arachnoid villi > superior sagittal sinus

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49
Q

What is the superior sagittal sinus

A

A vein that cerebrospinal fluid drains into

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50
Q

What are arachnoid villi?

A

Extensions of arachnoid into superior sagittal sinus to drain cerebrospinal fluid

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51
Q

What is the function of the ependymal cells?

A

To move cerebrospinal fluid with cilia

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52
Q

What is a epidural hematoma?

A

A bleed between the Dura Mater and the cranium

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53
Q

What is a sub dural hematoma?

A

A bleed between the Dura Mater and the arachnoid.

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54
Q

What is the mesencephalic (cerebral) aqueduct?

A

Connects the third and fourth ventricles

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55
Q

Name the four major parts of the brain

A

A.  cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephalon
D. Brainstem

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56
Q

Is gray or white matter found in the outer most cortex of the brain?

A

Gray

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57
Q

What is the difference between:
A. Commissure (name one)
B. Association tract
C. Projection tract

A

A. Connects right and left brain (corpus callosum)
B. Connects same side of brain
C. Connects upper and lower parts of the brain

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58
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

A. Primary sensory cortex
What is its significance?
Why is it important that sensory impulses end here?

A

A. Post Central gyrus
Where sensory impulses end.
Sensory information on the right would be lost.

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59
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

B. Primary motor cortex
What is its significance?
What would happen if the primary motor cortex on the right side was damaged?

A

B. Precentral gyrus
All motor information starts here.
Motor on the left would be lost.

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60
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

C. Visual cortex

A

C. Occipital lobe

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61
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

D. Auditory cortex

A

D. Temporel lobe

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62
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

E. Brocas center (speech production)

A

E. Frontal lobe

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63
Q

Name the gyrus or lobe where each of the following is located:

F. Wernickes center (speech comprehension)

A

F. Parietal lobe

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64
Q

What is the function of the basal nuclei?

A

Semi automatic and subconscious motor movements.

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65
Q

Where are the basal nuclei located?

A

Cerebrum

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66
Q

Which inhibitory neurotransmitter is located at the basal nuclei?

A

Dopamine

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67
Q

A lack of dopamine is part of the Pathogenesis of which disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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68
Q

Name three important components of the diencephalon:

A

Thalamus, Epithalamus, and hypothalamus

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69
Q

Name three important function of the thalamus:

A

A. Sensory relay station
B. Memory and emotions
C. Motor function

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70
Q

Why is the thalamus called a sensory relay station?

A

Second order neurons end here. Third order neurons cell body receives, processes, and distributes almost all sensory and motor information that reaches the cortex.

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71
Q

The hypothalamus has many functions. List five.

A
  1. Feeding center
  2. Pituitary gland
  3. Day and night cycle
  4. Smell
  5. Autonomic nervous system
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72
Q

Name the three parts of the brain stem

A

A. mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata

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73
Q

The following structures are found in the mesencephalon. Name their functions:

A. Red nucleus
B. Cerebral peduncles
C. Substantia nigra
D. Mesencephalic aqueduct
E. Corpora quadrigemina
A 
A. Muscle tone
B. Descending motor tracts
C. Dopamine synthesis
D. Connects third and fourth ventricles
E. Hearing and vision reflex
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74
Q

Which major vital center is located in the pons?

A

Respiratory

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75
Q

Name three vital centers located in the medulla oblongata:

A
  1. Vasomotor
  2.  cardiac
  3. Respiratory
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76
Q

Name for non-vital centers in the medulla oblongata:

A
  1. Sneezing center
  2. Coughing center
  3. Vomiting center
  4. Swallowing center
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77
Q

Name two functions of the cerebellum:

A
  1. Muscle coordination

2. Balance

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78
Q

A loss of motor coordination and balance is called ______________.

A

Ataxia

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79
Q

Name the structures that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem:

A

Cerebellar peduncles

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80
Q

What is the limbic system?

What functions are controlled by the limbic system?

A

Play a role in emotional behavior and motivation

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81
Q

Name three specific parts of the brain that are components of the limbic system:

A 
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Fornix
d.  hippocampus
E. Amygdala
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82
Q

Are all components of the limbic system located In the cerebral hemispheres?

A

No

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83
Q

What is the reticular formation?

Where in the brain is it found?

A

Nuclei in brainstem

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84
Q

What is the reticular activating system? Where is it found?

A

Nuclei in mesencephalon

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85
Q

What is the function of the reticular formation and the activating system?

A

Formation- level of activity in the brain,

Activating- Wakefulness/sleep

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86
Q

What is the significance of the following neurotransmitters in the reticular formation?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin

A

A. Excitatory- wake up

B. Inhibitory- sleep

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87
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that innervates the trapezius

A

11 accessory

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88
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that carries hearing impulses

A

8 vestibulocochlear

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89
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that carries sensory input from the face

A

5 Trigeminal

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90
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that innervates zygomaticus major

A

7 facial

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91
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that constricts the pupil

A

3  oculomotor

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92
Q

What is Dr. Saroli’s formula?

A

LR6 - SO4
___________
3

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93
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that carries visual input from the eye

A

2 optic

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94
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that innervates the muscle for mastication or chewing

A

5 Trigeminal

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95
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that innervates the muscles for swallowing

A

10 vagus, 9 glossopharyngeal

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96
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that controls digestion

A

10 vagus

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97
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that innervates tongue muscles

A

12 Hypoglossal

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98
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The three nerves innervate extrinsic eye muscles

A

3 oculomotor, 4 Trochlear, 6 abducens

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99
Q

Name the cranial nerve described below:

The nerve that carries impulses for smell

A

1 olfactory

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100
Q

What is the difference between an interceptor and exteroceptor?

A

interoceptor detects internal changes, exteroceptors-external changes

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101
Q

What is a proprioceptor? Name three proprioceptors:

A

Detects body position.
A. Muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Joint receptor

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102
Q

In order to maintain balance, impulses for proprioception travel to the _______ in the brain.

A

Cerebellum

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103
Q

What do each of the receptors below detect?

A. Tactile Meissner‘s corpuscle
Where is it located?
B. Tactile Merkel cell/disc
Where is it located?
C. Laminated Pacinian corpuscle
Where is it located?
A

A. Touch; Epidermis
B. Touch, dermal papillae
C. deep pressure; dermis

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104
Q

What is a nociceptor? What stimulates these receptors?

A

Detects cell damage.

Pain.

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105
Q

Explain each of the following:

A. Referred pain
B. Phantom pain
C. Adaptation
D. Punctate distribution

A

A. When pain is being felt elsewhere from actual injury location
B. Feeling pain in an amputated limb because the impulse is ending at the post central gyrus
C. When the receptor is no longer aware of the stimulus
D. Uneven distribution of receptors in the skin

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106
Q

Give an example of a chemoreceptor.

A

Taste buds

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107
Q

Give an example of a photo receptor

A

Pupil

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108
Q

Give an example of a thermoreceptor

A

Free dendritic endings

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109
Q

How many neurons do most sensory pathways have?

A

3

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110
Q

How many neurons does the direct (pyramidal) motor pathway have?

A

2

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111
Q

What does the term “pathway” mean in neural integration?

A

How and where the neurons travel

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112
Q

Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?

A. Anterior spinothalamic
First neuron (cell body)
Second neuron (cell body)
Third neuron (cell body)
Crossover
A

Crude touch and pressure

Dorsal root ganglion

Posterior gray horn

Thalamus

Spinal cord

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113
Q

Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?

B. Lateral Spinothalamic
First neuron cell body
Second neuron cell body
Third neuron cell body
Crossover
A

B. Pain and temperature

Dorsal root ganglion

Posterior gray horn

Thalamus

Spinal cord

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114
Q

Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?

C. Posterior columns
First neuron cell body
Second neuron cell body
Third neuron cell body
Crossover
A 
C. Discriminative touch, proprioception, vibration
Dorsal root ganglion
Medulla oblongata
 thalamus
BRAIN
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115
Q

Name the sensory information carried by the following pathways as well as where the cell bodies of the three sensory neurons are located. Where does the pathway cross to the opposite side?

D. Direct motor pathways
i. Anterior corticospinal tract
First neuron
Second neuron
 crossover

ii. Lateral corticospinal
First neuron
Second neuron
Crossover

A

i. 20%
Precentral gyrus
Anterior gray horn
Spinal cord

ii. 80%
Precentral gyrus
Anterior gray horn
Decussation of pyramids

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116
Q

Do indirect motor pathways also affect the neurons in the anterior gray horn? What effects do indirect motor pathways have?

A

Yes, Control muscle tone, balance, and posture.

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117
Q

What is the role of the basal nuclei in motor movement?

A

uses dopamine to create smooth muscle movement,

influence subconscious motor centers.

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118
Q

Name three types of tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system:

A

Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands

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119
Q

What is meant by dual innervation of an organ?

A

When parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system have opposite effects end organ

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120
Q

How many motor neurons are involved in the autonomic nervous system pathway? Are these neurons afferent or efferent?

A

2, efferent

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121
Q

Where are first and second neuron cell bodies located in the efferent sympathetic nervous system?

A

a. Lateral gray horn

b. Sympathetic trunk

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122
Q

Is the preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic nervous system long or short?

A

Short

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123
Q

Name the two types of ganglia in the sympathetic nervous system.

A

Sympathetic trunk and collateral ganglia

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124
Q

What is the neurotransmitter in these sympathetic ganglia?

A

Acetylcholine

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125
Q

What is the neurotransmitter at the end organ in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Norepinephrine

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126
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

On the postganglionic neuron

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127
Q

What are alpha and beta receptors?

A

On the end organ

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128
Q

What is the function of the adrenal medullae in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

To release epinephrine into the blood

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129
Q

Where are the first and second neuron cell bodies located in the efferent parasympathetic
nervous system?

A

A. Lateral gray horn

B. Terminal ganglia

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130
Q

Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?

A

Ocular motor, facial, Vagas, Glossopharyngeal

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131
Q

Where is the second neuron cell body of the parasympathetic nervous system located?

A

In the terminal ganglion

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132
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released by the preganglionic neuron in the parasympathetic
system?

A

Acetylcholine

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133
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released in the terminal ganglion?

A

 acetylcholine

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134
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released at the end organ?

A

 acetylcholine

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135
Q

Where are muscarinic and nicotinic receptors found in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

 nicotinic- Postganglionic neuron,

Muscarinic- end organ

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136
Q

Name two organs not innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Arrector pili, adrenal gland,

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137
Q

What does it mean to say that the sympathetic nervous system is for the “fight or flight”
response?

A

It prepares the body for emergencies

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138
Q

What part of the brain activates the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous systems?

A

Hypothalamus

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139
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

A. Sweat glands

A

Sympathetic- secretion

Parasympathetic- inhibits secretion

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140
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

B. Lacrimal glands

A

Sympathetic - inhibit

Parasympathetic- activate tears

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141
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

C. Fat cells

A

Sympathetic- burn

Parasympathetic- store

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142
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

D. Blood glucose level

A

Sympathetic- raise

 parasympathetic- no effect

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143
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

E. Stomach

A

Sympathetic - shut down

Parasympathetic - active

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144
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

F. Pupil

A

 sympathetic -  dilate

Parasympathetic- constrict

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145
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

G. Salivary glands

A

 sympathetic- inhibit

Parasympathetic- activate

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146
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

H. Skin blood vessels

A

Sympathetic- constrict

Parasympathetic- dilate

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147
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

I. Bladder

A

Sympathetic- shit down

Parasympathetic- contraction

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148
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

J. Heart

A

Sympathetic- faster and stronger

Parasympathetic- slower and weaker

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149
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

K. Arrector pili

A

Sympathetic- contraction

parasympathetic- inhibit

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150
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

L. Sex organs

A

Sympathetic-  no affect

Parasympathetic- stimulate

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151
Q

Discus the parasympathetic (if any) response and sympathetic (if any) response on:

M. Bronchioles

A

Sympathetic- dilate

 parasympathetic- constrict

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152
Q

What would be a sympathomimetic (adrenergic) effect on the heart?

A

Increased heart rate, constricted heart blood vessels

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153
Q

What would be a parasympatholytic (anticholinergic) effect on the stomach?

A

Shut down digestion

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154
Q

What would be a Parasympathomimetic (cholinergic) affect on the pupil?

A

Constriction

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155
Q

Name three visceral reflexes:

A

A. Pupillary reflex
B. Salivary reflex
C. Urination reflex

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156
Q

What makes a visceral reflex different from a somatic reflex?

A

visceral reflex effectors are
cardiac, smooth, or glands

somatic- skeletal muscle

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157
Q

Cranial nerve mnemonic

A

On occasion our trusty truck acts funny. Very good vehicle anyhow.

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158
Q

Sensory or motor nerve mnemonic

A

Some say marry money but my brother says Big brains matter more.

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159
Q

What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?

A. Tight junction

A

Keeps fluid from passing through -skin, stomach

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160
Q

What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?

B.  desmosome

A

Welding Junction- intercalated disc

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161
Q

What is the function of each type of junction and where are they found in the body?

C. Gap junction

A

communication- intercalated disc

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162
Q

Name the four major types of tissue:

A

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous

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163
Q

Name 5 characteristics that contrast epithelial and connective tissues:

A

a. Free surface / No free surface
b. Basement membrane / No basement membrane
c. Avascular / vascular
d. Tightly packed cells / scattered cells
e. no matrix / Matrix

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164
Q

How are epithelial tissues classified? Give examples.

A. By shape
B. By layers

A

A. Squamous, Cuboidal, Columnar

B. Simple, Stratified

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165
Q

How would the following epithelial tissues be named?

A. One layer of flat cells
B. many layers with top layer of cells taller than they are wide

A

A. Simple squamous

B. Stratified columnar

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166
Q

What is a basement membrane? What does it contain?

A

Layer of collagen and glycoproteins that separate epithelium from connective tissue

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167
Q

Name three functions of the basement membrane.

A

Surface for mitosis; connects epithelium to connective tissue; determines what gets to epithelium

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168
Q

Where is each tissue found and what is its function?

A. Simple squamous

A

Found in blood vessels, body cavity lining, Air sacs

Function is Diffusion

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169
Q

Where is each tissue found and what is its function?

B. Stratified squamous

A

Found in the skin, vagina, rectum, and mouth

Functions as protection against friction

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170
Q

Where is each tissue found and what is its function?

C.  Pseudostratified

A

Found in most of respiratory tract, male reproductive tract

Functions as protection and produces mucus

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171
Q

Where is each tissue found and what is its function?

D. Transitional

A

Found in the bladder and uterus.

Functions to expand and contract.

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172
Q

Glands are made up of ________ tissue.

A

 epithelial

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173
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine- into blood or extracellular fluid

Exocrine- into duct

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174
Q

Name a unicellular gland. Where is it found?

A

Goblet cell found in pseudostratified tissues.

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175
Q

Give three examples of exocrine glands based on their secretions:

A

A. Merocrine- exocytosis
B.  apocrine- part of cytoplasm
C. Holocrine- cell bursts

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176
Q

Connective tissue is derived from embryonic tissue called ___________.

A

 mesenchyme

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177
Q

Connective tissues contain _____________ and extracellular ___________.

A

Connective tissue contains cells and extracellular matrix.

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178
Q

Name at least five types of cells found in connective tissues and their functions:

A 
A. Fibroblasts- secretes fibers
B. Mast cells - secretes histamine
C. Macrophages- Phagocytosis
D. Adipocytes- Store fat
E. Osteoblast - secrete osteoid
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179
Q

Name the two components of matrix;

A

A. Protein fibers

B. Ground substance

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180
Q

Name the three types of fibers. Describe the characteristics of each:

A

A. Collagen- tough and flexible
B. Elastic- elasticity and strength
C. Reticular- networking

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181
Q

What type of organic compound is a fiber?

A

Carbohydrate

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182
Q

Name the ground substance common to most connective tissues.

A

Hyaluronic acid

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183
Q

What are some other types of ground substance?

A

Glucosamine, chondroitin sulfate, calcium salts, plasma

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184
Q

Name three types of loose connective tissue. Why are they called Loose?

A

Areolar, adipose, reticular. The fibers are scattered or loose.

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185
Q 
For each of the tissues below, name the cells, extracellular matrix, functions, and locations. Will
each of these tissues bleed when damaged?
A. Areolar
B. Adipose
C. Reticular
D. Dense regular
E. Dense irregular
F. Hyaline cartilage
G.  fibrocartilage
H. Bone
I. Blood
J. Elastic cartilage
A

A. Areolar: fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, adipocytes (under basement membrane), hyaluronic acid, collagen, elastic, reticular fibers.

B. Adipose: adipocytes, hyaluronic acid, collagen, elastic, reticular fibers (hypodermis)

C. Reticular: reticular cells, reticular fibers; spleen, lymph nodes, liver, bone marrow

D. Dense regular: fibroblasts, collagen fibers- strength in one direction; tendons, ligaments

E. Dense irregular: fibroblasts, collagen fibers- strength in many directions; dermis (reticular layer), valves of the heart, perichondrium

F. Hyaline cartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in lacunae, glucosamine, embryonic skeleton, chondroitin sulfate, collagen fibers, articular cartilage, epiphyseal plate, nose

G. fibrocartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in Lucunae, collagen fibers; vertebral discs, meniscus

H. Bone: osteocytes and osteoblasts in lacunae, calcium salts and collagen fibers, Skeleton

I. Blood: Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma - no fibers unless clotting. In blood vessels

J. Elastic cartilage: WONT BLEED; chondrocytes in lacunae- elastic fibers; ear and epiglottis

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186
Q

Why do bone and cartilage have lacunae?

A

So they have space to grow and divide

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187
Q

How do bone cells get nourishment?

A

Haversian canals/Volkmanns canal/canuliculi

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188
Q

How do cartilage cells get nourishment?

A

From perichondrium through diffusion

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189
Q

How easily does cartilage repair itself? Why?

A

Not easily because it doesn’t have a good blood supply.

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190
Q

What characteristic does collagen give to the matrix of bone?

A

 flexibility

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191
Q

What characteristic do calcium salts give to the matrix of bone?

A

 hardness

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192
Q

Is an osteon part of spongy or compact bone?

A

Compact

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193
Q

Why is blood a unique connective tissue?

A

It has no fibers unless it clots

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194
Q

Why is cartilage a unique connective tissue?

A

It has no blood vessels or nerve supply

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195
Q

What is the main function of muscle tissue?

A

Can shorten and stretch

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196
Q

Classify each muscle tissue concerning involuntary/voluntary, striations, nuclei, shapes of cells, and location:
A. Skeleton
B. Smooth
C. Cardiac

A

A. Skeletal: voluntary; striations; many nuclei at sides of cell; long cylindrical; skeletal muscle
B. Smooth: involuntary; no striations; One nucleus; spindle; internal organs
C. Cardiac: involuntary; striations; One nucleus; branched; heart

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197
Q

What is the function of an intercalated disc?

A

coordinated muscle contraction (gap and desmosome)

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198
Q

How do the functions of neurons and neuroglia differ in nervous tissue?

A

Neuron- conduct electrical impulses

Neuroglia- supports neurons

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199
Q

What difference do neurons and neuroglia have relative to my mitosis?

A

Neuron- do not undergo mitosis

Neuroglia- undergo mitosis

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200
Q

What is the “space” between neuron cell bodies and neuroglia in nervous tissue?

A

Extracellular space

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201
Q

What are the two components of a membrane?

A

Epithelium and connective tissue

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202
Q

Name the four types of membranes discussed in class. For each, list the epithelium and
connective tissue as well as where the membrane is located:

A

A. Mucus membrane: various epithelium and areolar connective tissue (lamina propria) / digestive, respiratory, reproductive, urinary tracts, and goblet cells

B. Serous membrane: simple squamous and areolar connective tissue and adipose / pericardium, peritoneum, and pleura

C. Synovial membrane: scattered cells and areolar connective tissue and adipose / bursa, joints

D. Cutaneous membrane: keratinized stratified squamous and areolar connective tissue / skin

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203
Q

Does a synovial membrane have an epithelium? Explain.

A

No, epithelium is characterized as tightly packed cells. Synovial membranes contain scattered cells on top, so it is not a real epithelium.

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204
Q

Name 3 serous membranes in the body:

A

A. Pericardium
B. Peritoneum
C. Pleura

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205
Q

What are the three basic steps in tissue repair?

A

A.  inflammation
B. Granulation tissue
C. Maturation stage

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206
Q

What happens during inflammation stage of tissue repair?

A

Redness, pain, swelling, blood rushes to wound

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207
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

Connective tissue with many blood vessels that is actively growing

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208
Q

What is the difference between a stromal and a parenchymal cells?

A

Stromal cells leave a scar and parenchyma cells repair to good as new

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209
Q

What happens if fibroblasts are responsible for repair of cardiac muscle?

A

Collagen scar

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210
Q

Name four functions of the skin:

A

A. Protection
B. Vitamin D synthesis
C. Temperature regulation
D. Excretion

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211
Q

What is the function of Vitamin D?

A

Allows body to absorb calcium.

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212
Q

What type of epithelium is present to make the skin protective?

A

keratinized stratified squamous

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213
Q

What type of compound is keratin?

A

Protein

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214
Q

Where is keratin found in the skin?

A

Stratum corneum

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215
Q

What is keratin‘s function?

A

Protection

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216
Q

What is the superficial layer of epidermal cells called? What does it contain?

A

Stratum corneum - keratinized cells

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217
Q

What is the deep layer of epidermal cells called? What is its function?

A

Stratum basale- mitosis of keratinocytes

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218
Q

What do the following epidermal cells do?
A. keratinocyte
B. tactile (Merkel) cell/disc
C. Langerhans cell (dendritic cell)

A

A. keratinocyte- produce keratin
B. tactile (Merkel) cell/disc- Senses touch and vibrations
C. Langerhans cell (dendritic cel) - phagocytize harmful substances

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219
Q

What are the two layers of dermis and what tissues do they contain?

A

Epidermis- keratinized stratified squamous

Dermis- areolar and dense irregular

220
Q

What is the function of the dermal papillae?

A

Attachment of the epidermis to the dermis

221
Q

Name the tissues that are found in the hypodermis.

A

Areolar and adipose

222
Q

Is the hypodermis part of the skin?

A

No

223
Q

Name the three pigments that determine skin color and the layer where each pigment is
primarily found in the skin:

A

A. Melanin- stratum basale
B. Carotene- stratum corneum
C. Hemoglobin- dermis

224
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

When some melanocytes stop functioning and cause white patches.

225
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

When hemoglobin is deoxygenated in the skin turns blue

226
Q

Name the parts of the hair above and below the epidermis.

A

Shaft, root

Plexus, papillae, matrix

227
Q

What is the term for the portion of the hair that divides to make the hair grow?

A

Matrix

228
Q

Hair is made of the protein, ______________.

A

Keratin

229
Q

What is the function of the hair papillae?

A

To provide nourishment to the hair (blood vessels)

230
Q

What muscle is attached to the root of the hair?

A

Arrector pili muscle

231
Q

What determines hair color?

A

Melanin

232
Q

What is the product of sebaceous oil glands? What is its function?

A

Sebum- inhibits bacterial growth

233
Q

Where in the skin are sebaceous oil glands found?

A

Dermis- reticular layer

234
Q

What type of secretion do sebaceous oil glands have?

A

Holocrine

235
Q

Name the two types of sudoriferous glands and state where they are found:

A

A. Merocrine sweat gland: Palms of hands and soles of feet

B. Apocrine sweat gland: armpits and groin

236
Q

Explain two ways that the skin helps with the homeostasis of body temperature:

A

A. Excretion of sweat to cool the skin

B. Goosebumps to hold onto body heat. Contracting arrector pili muscles also generate heat.

237
Q

What is a ceruminous gland?

A

Modified sweat gland that produces cerum (ear wax)

238
Q

Fingernails are made of the protein, ____________.

A

Keratin

239
Q

What is the name for the part of the nail that divides to make it grow?

A

Matrix

240
Q

Why do nails appear pink?

A

 It’s the color of the nail bed underneath with blood vessels holding oxygenated hemoglobin.

241
Q

Is bone dead tissue? Why or why not?

A

No, it has blood supply through haversions and Volkmann’s canal‘s

242
Q

Does a bone, such as the femur, ever replace itself?

A

Yes

243
Q

Name important minerals found in bone.

A

Calcium, phosphorus

244
Q

Why do long bones have each of the following? State the significance of each:

A. medullary cavity 
B. periosteum (2 functions)
C. endosteum
D. epiphysis with spongy bone
E. epiphyseal cartilage (plate)-groWth, In length
A

A. medullary cavity - Contains Yellow bone marrow (stores fat)
B. periosteum (2 functions) - attachment to bone/protection; growth in width
C. endosteum- lines medullary cavity- growth + repair
D. epiphysis with spongy bone - Creates red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
E. epiphyseal cartilage (plate)- growth in length

245
Q

What blood cells are made in red bone marrow?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

246
Q

Name the two layers of periosteum:

A

Osteogenic layer and fibrous layer

247
Q

Does the periosteum have blood vessels and nerves?

A

Yes

248
Q

Name two places in a child’s long bone where hyaline cartilage can be found:

A

Epiphyseal plate and articular cartilage

249
Q

What are the two major components of the extracellular matrix of bone? Name the function of each:

A

A. Calcium salts- hardness

B. Collagen- flexibility

250
Q

What function does each component give to bone?

A

Hardness & flexibility.

251
Q

Name the four types of cells found in bone and the functions of each:

A

A. Osteoprogenitor cells- stem cells
B. Osteoclasts- break down bone
C. osteoblast- create osteoid
D. Osteocyte- mature bone cell

252
Q

Three of these types of cells are related. One is not. Which one is not related to the others?

A

Osteoprogenitor -> osteoblast -> osteocyte

Osteoclast not related.

253
Q

Which cell becomes active when blood calcium is low?

A

Osteoclast

254
Q

Name the two types of bone tissue and explain how they histologically differ. Make sure
words like lamellae (rings of osteon), lacunae, canaliculi, central (Haversian) canal, trabeculae, and osteocyte are understood.

A

A. Compact bone- osteocyte in lacunae which gets nutrients from Haversian canal from canaliculi.
B. Spongy bone- Trabeculae and osteocyte in lacunae

255
Q

How is a perforating (Volkmann) canal different from a central (Haversian) canal?

A

Volkmann- horizontal, Haversian- Vertical

256
Q

What is meant by appositional growth? How does it differ from interstitial growth?

A

Interstitial- bone is growing from inside (inside out);

Appositional- bone is added to existing bone (outside in)

257
Q

What is the term for the formation of bone?

A

 ossification

258
Q

Name the two types of tissue that bone is derived from and the name of bone formation from each:

A

A. Fibrous connective tissue- Intramembranous

B. Hyaline cartilage- endochondral

259
Q

Give examples of bones that undergo each type of formation.

A

 Intramembranous- cranium, clavicle, mandible, endochondral,
-most long bones, carpals

260
Q

Where does bone formation begin in endochondral ossification?

A

Primary ossification center

261
Q

Where are the secondary ossification centers located?

A

Epiphyses of long bones

262
Q

Which two places will remain hyaline cartilage even after ossification of a long bone is complete?

A

Epiphyseal plate and articular cartilage

263
Q

How can a radiologist “age” a child based on an x-ray of carpal bones?

A

whether the epiphyseal plate has ossified (epiphyseal line)

264
Q

How does bone grow in length?

A

Appositional and interstitial at epiphyseal plate

265
Q

Which side of the epiphyseal plate (epiphyseal side or diaphyseal side) becomes bone during
bone growth?

A

Diaphyseal side

266
Q

When in life are bones no longer able to grow in length? Why?

A

When the epiphyseal plate ossifies.

267
Q

How does bone grow in width?

A

Appositional growth

268
Q

Is there a time in life when bones are no longer able to grow in width? Explain.

A

No- bones grow and shrink in width throughout life

269
Q

Which hormone increases blood calcium levels? How?

A

parathyroid hormone- activating osteoclasts

270
Q

Which hormone decreases blood calcium levels? How?

A

Calcitonin- inhibiting osteoclasts

271
Q

Name four major steps in fracture repair:

A

a hematoma (blood clot)
b. Soft callus (fibrocartilage)
c hard callus (spongy bone)
d. Remodeling (Compact bone)

272
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

One side of bone is fractures and the other side is bent

273
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

When skin is broken

274
Q

What is a meniscus? Name a joint that has one.

A

Fibrocartilage in Knee

275
Q

What is the purpose of a meniscus? What type of tissue is found in a meniscus?

A

Fibrocartilage; assisting gliding movement and reduce wear and tear

276
Q

Why does the occipital bone have a large foramen?

A

An opening for the spinal cord

277
Q

With which bone of the vertebral column does the occipital bone form a joint?

A

Atlas (C1)

278
Q

What movement is permited at the occipital bone and the atlas (C1)?

A

Yes movement

279
Q

How is the scapula connected to the axial skeleton?

A

Clavicle

280
Q 
Name the bones that make up the following joints:
a. elbow
b. wrist
c. knee
d. hip
E. Shoulder 
F. ankle
A

a. elbow- radius, ulna, + humerus
b. wrist- Carpal bones, radius + ulna
c. knee- Patella, femur, tibia
d. hip- ilium + ischium
e. shoulder- humerus, Scapula
f. ankle- Tarsal bones + tibia + fibula

281
Q

Which axial bone forms a joint with the os coxae?

A

Sacrum

282
Q

The tibia articulates at its proximal end with the _______________ and _______________.

A

Fibula; femur

283
Q

To which bone is the coccyx attached?

A

Sacrum

284
Q

Which bone forms a joint with the hyoid bone?

A

The hyoid does not articulate with any other bone.

285
Q

What is the only moveable joint of the skull?

A

Temporal mandibular joint

286
Q

Name the two bones that form the moveable joint.

A

Temporal bone and mandible

287
Q

Does the femur form a joint with the fibula? The femur forms joints with the ____________, ______________, and ________________.

A

Patella; tibia; os coxa

288
Q

The proximal end of metacarpal I forms a joint with _______________.

A

Trapezium

289
Q

The distal end of proximal phalanx Il forms a joint with __________________________.

A

Middle phalanx II (proximal end)

290
Q

Name the two parts of an intervertebral disc.

A

Fibrocartilage and nucleus pulposus

291
Q

The clavicle forms a joint with which two bones?

A

Sternum and scapula

292
Q

Name the 3 bones of the os coxa and the 3 bones of the pelvis.

A

Os coxa: Ilium, pubis, ischium

Pelvis: sacrum, coccyx, os coxae

293
Q

What are inferior nasal conchae? What is their purpose?

A

Force air to circulate when we inhale

294
Q

Name the bones that have paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal, sphenoid, maxillae, ethmoid

295
Q

The medical term for “hunchback” is _____________.

A

Kyphosis

296
Q

What are the two ways to classify an articulation?

A

A.  functional

B.  structural

297
Q

A synarthrosis can structurally be a ____________ or ____________ joint. Give examples of each.

A

Fibrous (gomphosis, sutures)

Cartilage (epiphyseal plate)

298
Q

An amphiarthrosis can structurally be a ________________ or a ________________ joint.
Give an example of each.

A

Fibrous (syndesmosis)

Cartilage (symphysis)

299
Q

Name an amphiarthrotic, cartilaginous joint.

A

Symphysis pubis

300
Q

Name an amphiarthrotic, fibrous joint.

A

Syndesmosis

301
Q

How would you functionally classify a suture?

A

 synarthrosis

302
Q

How would you structurally classify a suture?

A

Fibrous

303
Q

How would you functionally classify a syndesmosis?

A

Amphiarthrosis

304
Q

How would you structurally classify a syndesmosis?

A

Fibrous

305
Q

Name three places in the body where synovial membranes are found:

A

A. Synovial joints
B. Bursae
C. Tendon sheaths

306
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

provide lubrication, shock absorber, nutrients to cartilage

307
Q

What is the structure of a synovial membrane? What is its function?

A

Scattered epithelial cells and areolar- secretes synovial fluid

308
Q

Demonstrate or explain the following movements:

a. plantar flexion (extension)/foot
b. flexion / knee
C. extension /hip
d. flexion/ trunk
e. abduction / hip
f. eversion/foot
G . pronation/ wrist
h. rotation / shoulder
I. flexion/shoulder
J. circumduction/hip
K. abduction/ eye

A

a. plantar flexion (extension)/foot= pointing toes
b. flexion / knee= bending knee
C. extension /hip= Standing
d. flexion/ trunk= bending over
e. abduction / hip= Leg away from body
f. eversion/foot= foot away from midline
G . pronation/ wrist= palm of hand Facing down
h. rotation / shoulder= twisting arm
I. flexion/shoulder= arm straight ahead
J. circumduction/hip= moving leg in a circle
K. abduction/ eye= moving eye to the outside

309
Q

Give at least two examples of each type of joint explaining the movement(s) possible at those joints:
A. Pivot joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Ball and socket joint

A

A. Pivot joint= axis and atlas/ proximal radius/ulna.
Rotation
B. Hinge joint= distal humerus and ulna/ proximal and middle phalanx.
Flexion/extension
C. Ball and socket joint= humerus and scapula/ femur and os coxa.
Flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, rotation, Circumduction

310
Q

Is a gliding joint a diarthrotic or amphiarthrotic joint?

A

 Diarthrotic

311
Q

Which ligament at the knee protects it from lateral rotation?

A

Lateral collateral ligament

312
Q

Why does the knee have two menisci? What type of tissue is found in a meniscus?

A

Shock absorber and cushion

Outer Dense connective tissue and inner fibrocartilage

313
Q

What are three factors that determine movement at a joint?

A

a. amount of soft tissue
b. Shape of condyles
c. Ligaments

314
Q

Explain why the shoulder joint has more range of motion than the hip joint.

A 
Shallow socket (glenoid fossa)
Less ligaments
315
Q

Differentiate the three types of muscle tissue (histologically, functionally):
A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Smooth

A

A. Cardiac= self-excitation, striations, single nucleus, inter-collated discs, no regeneration, involuntary, autonomic nervous system.
B. Skeletal= excitability, striations, Multinucleated, stretch and recoil, voluntary, somatic nervous system.
C. Smooth= stretch and relaxation response, no striations, good regeneration, involuntary, autonomic nervous system.

316
Q

What unique characteristics to muscle tissues have?

A

A. Excitability- able to conduct an action potential
B. Contractibility- able to contract with actin and myosin
C. Elasticity- stretch and recoil

317
Q

What are three functions of muscle tissue?

A

A. Posture
B. Movement
C. Body heat production

318
Q

Is an entire muscle an organ, tissue, or system? Why?

A

An organ because a whole muscle is many tissues working together.

319
Q

What is the difference between superficial and deep fascia? Where are they found?

A

Superficial fascia- under dermis (adipose and areolar)

Deep fascia- under superficial fascia and covers entire muscle (epimysium)

320
Q

What is the difference between a muscle fascicle, Muscle fiber, myofibril, and myofilament?

A

Muscle fascicle- bundle of muscle fibers.
Muscle fiber- bundle of myofibrils
Myofibrils- bundle of myofilaments
Myofilaments- bundles of myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.

321
Q 
Describe each of the following:
A.  sarcolemma
B. Transverse tubules
C. Sarcoplasm
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
A

A. sarcolemma- muscle cell membrane.
B. Transverse tubules- invagination of sarcolemma, brings the action potential to the inside of the cell.
C. Sarcoplasm- muscle cells cytoplasm (more K+)
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum- smooth endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cell.

322
Q

What type of organic compound is actin? What type of organic compound is myosin?

A

Protein

323
Q

What is the myosin head? What are three functions of the myosin head?

A

Part of the thick myofilament made of myosin

A. Breakdown of ATP
B. Swivel or pivot
C. Attached to Actin

324
Q

Name two proteins that are bound to actin:

A

A. Troponin

B. Tropomyosin

325
Q

What is the function of the troponin-tropomyosin complex?

A

Uncovers the Actin binding sites.

326
Q

To what mineral does troponin bind?

A

Calcium

327
Q

Troponin binds to:

A

A. Tropomyosin
B. Calcium
C. Actin

328
Q

What triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Action potential down the T-tubule (voltage gated)

329
Q

Is ATP required for calcium release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum? Why?

A

Yes, because it goes against the concentration gradient. (Active transport)

330
Q

What is meant by a voltage-sensitive calcium channel? Explain how that works.

A

A change in charge in sarcolemma causes the Channel to open.

331
Q

What is the power stroke?

A

The pivot/swivel motion of myosin head that shortens the sarcomere.

332
Q

Which steps in muscle contraction require ATP?

A

A. Exocytosis of acetylcholine
B. Detachment of myosin head from Actin
C. Calcium and Na/K pump

333
Q

What happens to each of these parts of the sarcomere when the sarcomere contracts?

a. A-band
b. I-band
c. H-zone
d. Z-line

A

a. A-band: Stays the same
b. I-band: gets shorter
c. H-zone: gets smaller disappears
d. Z-line: get closer together

334
Q

When does muscle contraction stop? What actually stops contraction?

A

When acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine.

335
Q

Can skeletal muscle contract without intracellular calcium? Why or why not?

A

No, because tropomyosin will still be covering actin binding sites.

336
Q

How is a low concentration of calcium maintained in the sarcoplasm?

A

Calcium pump

337
Q 
Define and explain the function of each of the following:
A. Neuromuscular junction
B. Motor end plate
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Neurotransmitter
A

A. Neuromuscular junction: how action potential travels to muscle cell.

B. Motor end plate: contains receptors for acetylcholine and channels for Na to flow into cell and cause change in charge.

C. Synaptic cleft: where diffusion of acetylcholine occurs.

D. Neurotransmitter: in synaptic vesicles, opens chemically-gated channels

338
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

A. action potential

A

Opens voltage-gated channels

339
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

B. Synaptic end bulb: what is in a synaptic end bulb.

A

Neurotransmitters (acetylcholine)

340
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

C. Calcium

A

Causes exocytosis of acetylcholine and binds to troponin

341
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

D. Exocytosis: what is released from the axon terminal?

A

Neurotransmitter

342
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

E. What is the Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

A

 acetylcholine

343
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

F. How does the neurotransmitter move across the synaptic cleft?

A

diffusion

344
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

G. What does the neurotransmitter do once it reaches the motor end plate?

A

Bind to receptors

345
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

H. What happens when acetylcholine binds to its receptors on the motor end plate?

A

Chemically gated channels open and Na+ rushes in

346
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

I. What is a chemically-gated channel? What does the chemically-gated channel on the
motor end plate do?

A

Opens when neurotransmitters bind to the receptor. Allows Na+ into the cell.

347
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

J. What initiates the action potential in a muscle cell?

A

Na+ in cell changes charge across sarcolemma

348
Q

Explain the role of each of the following at the neuromuscular junction:

K. Once the action potential begins on the motor end plate, how is it transmitted across the
muscle cell?

A

Across sarcolemma and down into t-tubule

349
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

One neuron and the muscle cells it innervates

350
Q

Which muscles would have small motor units? Why? Which have large motor units?

A

Small- eyes and fingers (fine motor movements).

Large- arm, legs, back

351
Q

What is meant by the all-or-none principle in muscle contraction?

A

Action potential goes or it doesn’t. The whole muscle contracts to its full ability or it doesn’t contract at all

352
Q

What is muscle tone?

A

Motor units are contracted at any given point (posture)

353
Q

Define hypotonic in relation to muscle tone.

A

Decreased muscle tone.

354
Q

Define hypertonic in relation to muscle tone.

A

Increased muscle tone

355
Q

What is recruitment?

A

Increasing number of motor units to increase strength of contraction

356
Q

What does atrophy?

A

Loss of myofibrils

357
Q

Name two mechanisms that can lead to atrophy:

A

A. When they are not used

B. Loss of nerve stimulation

358
Q

When is atrophy irreversible?

A

When the muscle tissue turns to fibrous tissue

359
Q

What is hypertrophy at the cellular level?

A

The muscle cell grows

360
Q

What leads to muscle hypertrophy?

A

When muscles are used excessively

361
Q

What is the role of phosphocreatine? How long can phosphocreatine stores supply ATP during vigorous exercise.

A

Supply P to ADP -> ATP + creatine

15 seconds

362
Q

Write out the reaction by which phosphocreatine is broken down.

A

 phosphocreatine + ADP creatine + ATP + energy

363
Q

Explain why phosphocreatine is instant energy.

A

Doesn’t require oxygen and phosphocreatine is stored in cell.

364
Q

How is glycogen present in muscle cells? What is it’s purpose?

A

Polysaccharides break down into glucose

365
Q

Muscle cells can “store” oxygen by binding O, to the protein, ______________________.

A

Myoglobin

366
Q

Why do muscle cells need oxygen?

A

To create ATP through Cellular respiration

367
Q

If oxygen is available, how do muscle cells produce ATP?

A

Cellular respiration

Glucose + O2 H2O + CO2 + 38 ATP

368
Q

Where in the muscle cell does cellular respiration occur?

A

Mitochondria

369
Q

Does cellular respiration require oxygen?

A

Yes

370
Q

What happens when no oxygen is present and the cell needs ATP?

A

Glycogen -> glucose -> 2 lactic acid + 2 ATP

371
Q

What is oxygen debt?

A

No enough O2 taken in to meet the muscles needs.

372
Q

What energy sources compounds are replaced in the cell after strenuous exercise?

A

A. Phosphocreatine
B.  glycogen
C. Myoglobin

373
Q

What happens if muscles cannot generate all of the ATP it needs?

A

Fatigue

374
Q

What is a muscle twitch?

A

Muscle’s response to an action potential.

375
Q

Do all muscle fibers predominantly use cellular respiration for ATP production? How does a glycolic muscle fiber differ from an oxidative muscle fiber?

A

No

Glycolic- NO O2
Oxidative- O2

376
Q

What is tetanus?

A

Contraction with no relaxation

377
Q

What is treppe?

A

contraction with full relaxation + even greater contraction

378
Q

What is an isotonic contraction? Give examples.

A

When the muscle shortens. Picking up a book, for example.

379
Q

List 5 differences between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cells:

A 
A. Intercalated discs
B. Self-excitation
C. Long refractory period
D. Involuntary 
E. No tetanus
380
Q

How is cardiac muscle contraction similar to skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Sarcomeres- thin and thick myofilaments

381
Q

How is smooth muscle different from skeletal muscle? List 5 differences.

A 
A. Involuntary 
B. No striations (thin and thick myofilaments)
C. No troponin
D. Good regeneration 
E. Stretch relaxation response
382
Q

What is the origin of a muscle?

A

Proximal- less movement at Point of attachment

383
Q

What is the insertion of a muscle?

A

Distal- more moveable at point of attachment

384
Q

Is it the origin or insertion of a muscle that normally moves?

A

Insertion

385
Q

Concerning elbow flexion:

a. Name the prime mover.
b. Name an antagonist.
c. Name a synergist.

A

a. Name the prime mover: brachialis
b. Name an antagonist: triceps brachii
c. Name a synergist: biceps brachii

386
Q

Why are fixator muscles extremely important? What do they do?

A

Keep bone of origin in place (stabilize)

387
Q

Concerning hip flexion:

a. Name the prime mover.
b. Name an antagonist.
c. Name a synergist.

A

a. Name the prime mover: iliopsoas
b. Name an antagonist:gluteus maximus, hamstrings
c. Name a synergist: Rectus femoris, sartorius, TFL

388
Q

What is unique concerning the facial muscles?

A

Insert into the skin

389
Q

What is the clinical term for ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles?

A

Bell’s palsy

390
Q

Name a muscle that closes the eye.

A

Obicularis oculi

391
Q

Name a muscle that plays a role in whistling and holding the cheeks against the teeth.

A

Buccinator

392
Q

Name a muscle that plays a role in smiling.

A

Zygomatic muscle

393
Q

Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?

A

Tibialis anterior

394
Q

Why are the gastrocnemius and the soleus together called the triceps surae?

A

Have 3 heads and are located at the calf. Sura means calf.

395
Q

What does the term triceps mean?

A

3 heads

396
Q

Explain why contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle on the right causes rotation of the head to the left.

A

The muscle shortens, pulling the mastoid process closer to the clavicle.

397
Q

Are any skeletal muscles innervated by cranial nerves? Are cranial nerves part of the CNS or PNS?

A

Facial muscles

PNS

398
Q

Name the three hamstrings:

A

a biceps femoris

b. semimembranosus
c. semitendinosus

399
Q

Name at least six muscles that span two joints:

A

a. biceps femoris
b. Scmimembranosus
C. semitendinosus
d. biceps brachil
e. rectus femoris
F. gastrocnemius

400
Q

Muscles that abduct the thigh would be located on the ______________thigh.

A

Lateral

Gluteus Maximus

401
Q

Muscles that flex the knee would be located on the ________________ knee.

A

Posterior

Hamstrings, gastrocnemius

402
Q

Name the major organs of the CNS:

A

A. Brain

B. Spinal cord

403
Q

Name the two major organs of the PNS:

A

Receptors and nerves

404
Q

What can a receptor do?

A

Binds to Neurotransmitters to open chemically-gated channels

405
Q

What are two types of efferent motor neurons?

A

A. Somatic

B. Autonomic

406
Q

Afferent neurons will always carry ____________

information.

A

Sensory

407
Q

How are neurons classified based on function?

A

Sensory, motor, mixed

408
Q

How are neurons classified based on structure?

A

Multipolar, bipolar, unipolar

409
Q

Name the four types of neuroglial cells in the CNS and the function(s) of each:

A

A. astrocytes- blood brain barrier, ion balance, metabolism of NT, repair, neuronal connections
B. microglia- phagocytosis of debris
C. Ependymal cells- line spaces and produce cerebrospinal fluid
D. Oligodendrocytes- make myelin sheath

410
Q

Explain how the oligodendrocyte and the neurolemmocyte (Schwann cell) myelinate an axon.

A

Oligodendrocytes- many sheaths on many neurons

 Schwann cell- One sheath on one neuron

411
Q

What is myelin?

A

Phospholipid, faster action potential, insulation, conserves ATP

412
Q

What is a node of Ranvier?

A

spaces between myelin beads on axon where action potential occurs.

413
Q

What is neurilemma?

A

 cytoplasmic nucleated layer of Schwann cell. Plays role in regeneration.

414
Q

What is the difference between an axon and a dendrite?

A

Dendrites bring impulses towards cell body.

Axons bring impulses away from the cell body.

415
Q

What are Nissl bodies?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum of neurons

416
Q

What is found in axon terminals?

A

Synaptic vesicles with Neurotransmitters

417
Q

What is the function of the axon hillock in action potential generation?

A

To decide when to send the action potential (reaches threshold)

418
Q

What are three advantages of myelin?

A

a. speeds up impulse
b. Conserves ATP
c. Insulation

419
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

When action potential jumps from node to node of Ranvier

420
Q

Are all neurons myelinated?

A

No

421
Q

What is the term for a bundle of axons in the PNS? In the CNS?

A

PNS- nerve

CNS- tract

422
Q

Explain how the resting membrane potential in a neuron develops.

A

When there is no action potential, difference in voltage between inside and outside of cell.

423
Q

What are the two parts of an action potential and what happens in each?

A

A. Depolarization- Na+ channels open (+ inside)

B. Repolarization- K+ channels open (- inside)

424
Q

What is the purpose of the Na+/K+ pump in an action potential?

A

To put Na+ back out of cell and K+ into cell

425
Q

What is meant by an all-or-none response of a neuron?

A

Action potential at beginning of axon is the same as at the end

426
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

Time in which the neuron cannot generate another action potential

427
Q

Which neurons send action potentials the fastest?

A

Myelinated neurons (A fibers)

428
Q

Are all receptors on postsynaptic neurons located on dendrites?

A

No, some are on cell body membrane

429
Q

Where does calcium play a role in the transmission of an impulse across a synapse?

A

Calcium triggers exocytosis of neurotransmitters

430
Q

Where in a synapse is a voltage-gated channel involved?

A

Axon terminal, nodes of Ranvier

431
Q

Where in a synapse is a chemically-gated channel involved?

A

Postsynaptic neuron membrane

432
Q

What is an excitatory neurotransmitter? What will it do to the postsynaptic membrane when it binds to its receptor?

A

Bring the inside of the cell closer to threshold

 depolarize the membrane. Cause an EPSP (+ in or - out)

433
Q

What is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? What will it do to the postsynaptic membrane when it binds to its receptor?

A

Bring the inside of the cell further away from threshold.

Hyperpolarize membrane. Cause an IPSP (- in or + out)

434
Q

What is an EPSP?

A

 excitatory post synaptic potential

435
Q

What is an IPSP?

A

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

436
Q

Which type of neurotransmitter causes hyperpolarization? What is hyperpolarization?

A

Inhibitory neurotransmitter. Further away from threshold (< -70mv)

437
Q

Explain how acetylcholine works at the neuromuscular junction when it binds to its receptor.

A

Allows Na+ to flow into cell EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential)

438
Q

How is acetylcholine broken down?

A

 acetylcholinesterase

439
Q

Is acetylcholine only located at neuromuscular junctions?

A

No

440
Q

Name the neurotransmitter:
A. inhibitory, most common neurotransmitter in the brain
b. excitatory, most common neurotransmitter in the brain
C. called a neuromodulator that acts as a natural pain killer
d. plays a role in sleep and mood

A

A. GABA
B.  glutamate
C. Endorphins
D. Serotonin

441
Q

Can a neurotransmitter be a gas? Give an example.

A

Yes - nitric oxide

442
Q

How can a neurotransmitter be inhibitory at one synapse and excitatory at another?

A

Depending on the receptor and what channel it opens

443
Q

Give examples of voltage gated channels. Name three. How do they work?

A

Ca+ in axon terminal,
Na+,
K+.

Open when there is a change in charge.

444
Q

Give an example of a chemically-gated channel. How does it work?

A

Chemically-gated Na+ channel.

Opens when neurotransmitter binds to receptor

445
Q 
Give examples of each of the following levels of organization:
A. Chemicals
B. Organelles
C. Cells
D. Tissues
E. Organs
F. Systems
A 
A. K+, Na+, O2
B. Mitochondria, rough ER
C. Osteoblast, fibroblasts
D. Epithelium, connective 
E. Bone, brain, liver
F. Nervous, skeletal, endocrine
446
Q

For example, what level of organization do the following represent?
A. Centriole
B. Glycogen
C. Skin

A

A. Organelle
B. Chemical
C. Organ

447
Q

Understand the concept of homeostasis. How does the body control homeostasis of each of
the following?

Calcium

A

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

448
Q

Why is it important to control homeostasis of calcium?

A

Bone formation and muscle contraction

449
Q

Why is it important to control homeostasis of pH and temperature?

A

So proteins in our body don’t denature

450
Q

Why is water considered an inorganic compound?

A

Because water does not have a carbon backbone.

451
Q

What types of chemicals dissolve in water? Why is that significant?

A

 polar- determines what can dissolve in blood. Determines what can enter the cell.

452
Q

What types of bonds are present in water?

A

Hydrogen bonds

453
Q

How is water involved in dehydration synthesis?

A

Bonds are created by removing water

454
Q

Write out a dehydration synthesis reaction.

A

 glucose + glucose —> Maltose + H2O

455
Q

What tissue has water as its ground substance?

A

Blood and lymph

456
Q

What three elements are found in all carbohydrates? What is the typical ratio of these elements!

A

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

1:2:1 ratio.

457
Q

Do carbohydrates dissolve in water? Why?

A

Yes, because they are polar.

458
Q

Name three monosaccharides.

A

Glucose, fructose, galactose

459
Q

Which of the following would be an example of a mucous membrane?

A

Pseudostratified epithelium and connective tissue of the trachea

460
Q

Which of the following tissue cells readily undergoes mitosis?

A

Neuroglia

461
Q

In which type of tissue would you find a mast cell

A

Areolar connective tissue

462
Q

Which of the following would be typical for the matrix of hyaline cartilage?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

463
Q

A tissue has many layers in the cells have all kinds of shapes. They are columnar at the bottom, cuboidal in the middle, and squamous at the top. What would we call the tissue?

A

Stratified squamous tissue

464
Q

Which type of muscle tissue would be characterized the striated and voluntary?

A

 skeletal

465
Q

In which of the following locations is there hyaline cartilage

A

Trachea

466
Q

Which type of junction would you expect to be most important between cells in a tissue which is undergoing a lot of stretch?

A

 desmosome

467
Q

Which of the following would not be characterized of epithelial tissues?

A

Blood vessels

468
Q

What type of tissue would you expect to find in the opening of your ear canal

A

Stratified squamous tissue

469
Q

You are looking at a microscope and see a few oblong cells which are scattered with thick and thin purple lines weaving back-and-forth between them. You know this must be

A

Connective tissue

470
Q

Adipose tissue, bone tissue, hyaline cartilage tissue, and blood are all derived from

A

Mesenchyme

471
Q

Name the three tunics of the eyeball

A

Fibrous, vascular, nervous

472
Q

What structures are part of the fibrous tunic

A

Sclera and cornea

473
Q

What is the significance of the choroid

A

Nourish the retina and absorb scattered light

474
Q

What are the two functions of the ciliary body

A

Secrete aqueous humor (ciliary process)

Shape of lens (ciliary muscle)

475
Q

What types of photo receptors are found in the retina

A

Rods and cones

476
Q

What does each type of photo receptor detect

A

Rods- dim light

Cones- color and sharpness of vision

477
Q

What is the significance of the central fovea

A

Where we see things sharply, cones only

478
Q

What is the significance of the Blindspot?

A

We are axons leave the eye- no rods or cones

479
Q

Where is aqueous humor found

A

Anterior cavity

480
Q

Where is vitreous humor found? What is its purpose?

A

Posterior cavity- holds the shape of the eye

481
Q

 accommodation (importance of lens)

A

Changing shape of lens

482
Q

Hyperopia

A

Eyeball too short

483
Q

Myopia

A

Eyeball too long

484
Q

Cataract

A

Protein in lens becomes yellow

485
Q

Glaucoma

A

More aqueous humor produced than absorbed

486
Q

AStigmatism

A

Irregular curvature of cornea

487
Q

 presbyopia

A

Lens loses ability to change shape

488
Q

What are the three layers of cells in the retina

A

Photo receptors, bipolar neurons, ganglion cells

489
Q

The axons of which cells create the optic nerve?

A

Ganglion cells

490
Q

Which retinal fibers cross in the optic chiasma? Why is the significant

A

The retinal fibers on the medial side.

Shining light into the eye will stimulate The occipital lobe on both sides

491
Q

Do visual impulses pass through the thalamus?

A

Yes

492
Q

What structures are part of the external ear? What are their functions?

A

a. Auricle - collect sound waves
b. External Auditory canal
c. tympanic membrane

493
Q

What structures are part of the middle ear?

A

Malleus, incus, stapes

494
Q

Which passageway connects the antrum or the ear with the nasopharynx? What is its function?

A

Auditory tube- equalize air pressure

495
Q

Name the three maior structures of the inner ear. What are their functions?

A

a. Cochlea- sense of hearing
b. semicircular canals
C. vestibule

496
Q

What is the difference between conduction deafness and sensorineural deafness?

A

Conduction- damage to external/middle ear

Sensorineural- damage to internal ear/ brain

497
Q

Name the cranial nerve that matches the function below:

A 
carries impulses for hearing
vestibulocochlear
innervates the superior oblique muscle or the eye
trochlear
Innervates the lacrimal aland
facial
pacian, sits bop hairgin gea1, vagus
innervates the trapezius muscle
accessory
carries impulses for eveball abduction
abducens
carries parasympathetic impulses to the heart
vagus
carries Impulses for smell
olFactor
carries action potentials during a toothache
trigeminal
innervates the muscle that closes the eye (winking)
facial
innervates the muscles needed for swallowing
glossopharyngear
carries impulses for vision
optiC
carries impulses for the pupillary reflex
oculomotor
498
Q

Name the four cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic impulses.

A

Ocular motor, facial, glossopharyngeal, Vagus

499
Q

Is there a cranial nerve that carries sympathetic impulses?

A

Bo

500
Q

Which cranial nerve allows Anatomy and Physiology students to smile?

A

Facial

501
Q

What four elements are found in all amino acids?

A

carbon, Hydrogen, oxygen, Nitrogen

502
Q

Describe the primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of proteins.

A

Primary- sequence of amino acids
 secondary- shape resulting from hydrogen
 tertiary- unique folding
Quaternary- more than one amino acid chain

503
Q

Name important functions of proteins

A

catalyze reactions in the cell(enzyme), transport substances In blood, Support

504
Q

Do proteins generally dissolve in water?

A

Yes, polar

505
Q

What is an enzyme

A

A protein that catalyzes reactions in the cell

506
Q

How does an enzyme function

A

Lock and key- substrate binds into a very specific pocket in the enzymes structure

507
Q

List at least four characteristics of an enzyme

A

Speed up reactions, only one reaction, can be used over and over, work at specific pH and temperature

508
Q

What are the two basic parts of a triglyceride?

A

 glycerol (3-carbon backbone) and three long chains (C-H fatty acid chains)

509
Q

What is the function of triglycerides

A

Store unused calories. Provide the body with energy

510
Q

Name three types of fat

A

Triglycerides, phospholipids, steroids

511
Q

Name functions of phospholipids

A

Barrier for cell membrane

512
Q

Nucleic acids consist of phosphate, sugar, and _____________

A

Nitrogenous bases

513
Q

What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases in DNA?

A

Three nitrogenous bases codes for one amino acid in an amino acid chain

514
Q

What is the function of DNA

A

Contains the code for proteins

515
Q

What is the function of mRNA?

A

Builds proteins using info from DNA

516
Q

Catabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats occurs by a process called __________

A

Hydrolysis

517
Q

Identify the
type of organic compound represented by each of the followina (fat, protein, carbohydrate. or
nucleic acid):

A 
Identify the
type of organic compound represented by each of the followina (fat, protein, carbohydrate. or
nucleic acid):
glycogen- carb
cholesterol-fat
cellulose-carb
keratin-  Protein
myelin-fat
lactose- carb
myosin-protein
starch- carbohydrate
actin- Pro Tien
DNA- nucleic acid
phospholipids- fat
sucrose- carbohydrate
glucose- carb
triglycerides- fat
Tropomyosin- protein
troponin- protein
collagen- protein
518
Q

What is the normal pH range of the body?

A

7.35-7.45

519
Q

What is a buffer?

A

Resist changes in pH when acid or bases are added

520
Q

Write out the reaction for the carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system.

A

H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-

521
Q

What is the danger if the pH of the body drastically changes?

A

Proteins made denature

522
Q

What is the role of ATP in the body

A

Usable form of energy in the body

523
Q

Write out the reaction in which ATP Is formed from P and ADP

Does that process occur by dehydration synthesis or hydrolysis?

A

ADP + P + energy ATP + H2O

Dehydration synthesis

524
Q

Transport processes that do not require ATP are called ___________ transport

A

Passive

525
Q

Looking at the processes below, identify those that require AlP and those that do not.

A 
facilitated diffusion- NO ATP
Na/K* pump- ATP
exocytosis- ATP
osmosis- NO A TP
calcium pump -ATP
526
Q

Name three chemical components of the plasma membrane

A

Phospholipid bilayer, protein, cholesterol glycolipid + glycoprotein

527
Q

What types of substances can diffuse easily across the membrane! Give an example

A

 Nonpolar- oxygen, carbon dioxide

528
Q

What is the difference between active and passive transport?

A

The use of ATP and concentration gradient

529
Q

Give examples of active and passive transport

A

Active- exocytosis, endocytosis, pumps

 passive- diffusion, osmosis

530
Q

What is osmosis

A

Movement of water across A semi permeable membrane

531
Q

What is meant by the terms hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic?

A

Hypotonic- Low amount of solute
Hyper- high amount of solute
Isotonic- same amount of solute

532
Q

What percent NaCl solution is isotonic to red blood cells

A

0.9%

533
Q

Does water move from a hypertonic to hypotonic solution or vice versa?

A

Water moves hypotonic to hypertonic

534
Q

What is hemolysis?

What is Crenation?

A

Hemolysis is when a cell is placed into a hypotonic solution and the cell bursts.

Crenation is when a cell is placed into a Hypertonic solution in the cell shrinks

535
Q

How do the following move across the cell membrane?

A 
 glucose- facilitated diffusion
Na+\K+ - sodium potassium pump
Carbon dioxide- diffusion
Acetylcholine- exocytosis
Water soluble amino acids- facilitated diffusion
Triglycerides- diffusion
536
Q

What is the function and purpose of the following organelles

A

Golgi apparatus packages secretions for export.
Ribosomes make proteins.
Mitochondria uses O2 to break down glucose to make ATP.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum- protein synthesis
Nucleus is the control center of the cell.
Lysosomes destroy bacteria, remove damaged organelles, and digest proteins fats and carbs.

537
Q

What happens in mitosiS!

A

Nuclear division, Making two identical daughter cells

538
Q

Do all cells undergo mitosis

A

No

539
Q

What important steps occur in interphase to prepare the cell for mitosis?

A

Growth, DNA and centrioles duplication, makes enzymes for division

540
Q

What happens in each of the following phases?

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

A

Prophase- nuclear membrane disintegrates, centrioles separate, chromatin turn into chromosomes

Metaphase- chromosomes lineup in the middle, muscle fibers attached to centromere

Anaphase- chromosome splits, chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell

Telophase- chromosomes uncoil, nuclear membrane reforms

541
Q

If a cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, the daughter cells will have ___________.

A

40 chromosomes

542
Q

Distinguish the following: chromatin, chromosomes, centromere, cytokinesis, and mitotic spindle

A

Chromatin is DNA when it’s not dividing.

 chromosomes are DNA while dividing.

The centromere is in the middle of The chromosome.

Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm.

543
Q

During which phase does chromatin condense to chromosomes?

A

Prophase

544
Q

In which phase of mitosis does cytokinesis (primarily) occur?

A

 telophase

545
Q

In which phase of mitosis do the centromeres split?

A

Anaphase

546
Q

Name the four major types of tissue in the body and their basic characteristics:

A

Epithelial- tightly packed cells, avascular, free surface, basement membrane.

Connective-blood supply, scattered cells in a matrix, no free surface

Nervous - conduct nerve impulses

Muscle - can shorten + stretch

Anatomy 1 LECTURE (4 decks)

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