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Pathology I > Final Exam question stems > Flashcards

Final Exam question stems Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is characterized by immune complex injury - antibody:antigen complex deposits in tissue and initiates complement?

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity

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2
Q

What is a chronic multisystemic inflammatory disease that has the characteristic triad of butterfly rash, joint pain and fever?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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3
Q

What diagnostic test is definitive for SLE?

A

Serum ANA

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4
Q

Scleroderma patients develop a combination of symptoms known as CREST syndrome. What does the T stand for?

A

Telangestasia which is groups of dilated vessels in the skin

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5
Q

What inflammatory disease damages skeletal muscles due to chronic inflammatory infiltrates and usually affects proximal muscles of the skeleton, sparing extraocular muscles?

A

Polymyositis

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6
Q

What inflammatory disease has both skin and muscle involvement and is characterized by butterfly rash, heliotrope eyelids and purple bumps on knuckles?

A

Dermatomyositis

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7
Q

Is primary osteoporosis inflammatory?

A

No

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8
Q

Decreased bone mass/loss of trabeculae in vertebrae associated with primary osteoporosis affects what population most?

A

Postmenopausal women

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9
Q

What are the three common spine deformities associated with loss of bone mass due to osteoporosis?

A
  • codfish vertebrae
  • schmorl’s nodes
  • compression fracture (leads to hyperkyphosis)
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10
Q

What serological findings would be present in osteomalacia?

A
  • Decreased calcium and phosphate

- Increased alkaline phosphatase

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11
Q

What musculoskeletal condition is characterized b pseudo fractures and “Looser’s zones” due to bone softening?

A

Osteomalacia

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12
Q

What are the 4 common skeletal deformities associated with rickets?

A
  • rachitic rosary - enlarged costochondral junctions
  • pigeon breast
  • Harrison’s groove
  • craniotabes - flat skull
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13
Q

What musculoskeletal disorder is associated with moth eaten X-ray appearance, brown tumors and skeletal deformities and fractures?

A

Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone AKA osteitis fibrosis cystica

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14
Q

Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone (AKA osteitis fibrosis cystica) is associated with what other condition?

A

Advanced hyperPTH

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15
Q

What serology would be seen with Paget’s disease?

A
  • High serum alkaline phosphates

- normal calcium and phosphate levels

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16
Q

What musculoskeletal condition is associated with “tile-like mosaic” on X-ray, bowing of bones and gross thickening of bone that is porous and lacks strength?

A

Paget’s disease

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17
Q

What causes Paget’s disease?

A

An infectious agent activates osteoclasts, causing bone resorption

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18
Q

Scleroderma is due to an overproduction of ______.

A

Collagen

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19
Q

What would be seen on a bone scan in Paget’s disease?

A

Increased metabolic activity due to hyperosteolytic bone

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20
Q

What is the difference between tuberculous osteomyelitis and Pott’s disease?

A

PUlmonary TB can lead to lesions on the bone, causing tuberculous osteomyelitis. If those lesions develop on the spine, it is called Pott’s disease

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21
Q

An infection of the bone marrow and bone (usually due to bacteria) is called ______.

A

Osteomyelitis

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22
Q

Small interosseous abscess that is walled off by reactive bone in pyogenic osteomyelitis?

A

Brodie’s abscess

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23
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Brodie’s Abscess?

A

Osteoid osteoma

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24
Q

Secondary (metastatic) disease of bone is ____% more common that primary bone tumors

A

70

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25
Q

What is the most common malignant bone tumor?

A

Osteosarcoma - 40% of primary bone cancer

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26
Q

Primary osteosarcoma is most common in what age group?

A

Children and young adults (10-25 years)

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27
Q

What malignant bone tumor can lead to erosion of the cortex which forms Codman’s triangle?

A

Secondary osteosarcoma

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28
Q

What malignant bone tumor can occur secondary to Paget’s disease?

A

Osteosarcoma

29
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Infection

30
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

10-15 is peak incidence, which is the youngest age group of the malignant bone tumors

31
Q

What percentage of giant cell tumors are malignant?

A

20%

32
Q

What malignant bone tumor is characterized by “soap bubble” appearance on X-ray?

A

Malignant giant cell tumors

33
Q

What inflammatory joint disease is usually unilateral/mono articular and tends to affect larger joints?

A

Infectious (septic/pyogenic) arthritis

34
Q

What inflammatory joint disease is usually poly articular and tends to affect smaller joints in the the extremities?

A

RA

35
Q

What is the most common joint disease?

A

Osteoarthritis

36
Q

What are the signs of early DJD?

A

Fragments of cartilage are lost from the superficial layers

37
Q

What are the common features of DJD?

A
  • asymmetrical
  • OSTEOPHYTES
  • subchondral cysts
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • joint mice
38
Q

Are bony erosions seen in RA?

A

Yes

39
Q

Other than the type of joints affected, what is a key distinguished between infectious arthritis and RA?

A

Infectious has pus, RA does not

40
Q

What is the mechanism of inflammation in RA?

A

Proliferative synovitis - contributes to erosion of articular cartilage and underlying bone that can lead to fusion of joints.

41
Q

Are bony erosions seen in osteoarthritis (DJD)?

A

No

42
Q

How is JRA different from RA?

A

No Rf factor or nodules

43
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome?

A

A variant of RA with hematologists changes (anemia, leukopenia, splenomegaly)

44
Q

What is another name of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Mary strumpell disease

45
Q

What population is most commonly seen with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Young (19-35 years) men

46
Q

What joint is always affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

SI

47
Q

“Bamboo spine” is characteristic in what condition?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

48
Q

What 3 conditions are seronegative spondylo-arthropathies commonly associated with HLA-B27?

A
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • Reiter’s syndrome
  • enteropathic arthropathy
49
Q

What condition, in its early manifestations, present with morning stiffness and low back pain that is worse at rest?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

50
Q

What condition, in its advanced manifestations, shows spinal immobility, loss of lumbar lordosis and “bamboo-spine” on x-ray?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

51
Q

What are the three symptoms commonly associated with Reiter’s syndrome?

A
  • urethritis
  • conjunctivitis
  • arthritis
52
Q

What condition is similar to ankylosing spondylitis in its symptoms but also has a GI component?

A

Enteropathic arthropathy

53
Q

What condition is characterized by hyperuricemia, tophi and will present with a red, hot, swollen joint when in the acute phase?

A

Gout

54
Q

What are some contributing factors to the development of gout?

A

Alcohol and diets rich in purines

55
Q

What is the treatment for gout?

A

Dietary adjustments (low purines and no alcohol) and well as anti inflammatories

56
Q

What are alternate names for chondrocalcinosis?

A

CPPD

Pseudogout

57
Q

What condition is characterized by deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in joints?

A

chondrocalcinosis (AKA CPPD or pseudogout)

58
Q

What joint condition is caused by excessive and repetitive joint trauma due to loss of peripheral sensation from DM, vitamin D deficiency or other neuropathy?

A

Charcot joint (neuropathic arthropathy)

59
Q

What percentage of Reiter’s syndrome cases are related to HLA-B27?

A

80-90%

60
Q

Distal weakness in skeletal muscle = ______ while proximal weakness in skeletal muscle = _____.

A 
Distal = neuropathy
Proximal = myopathy
61
Q

What are the two chronic diseases of skeletal muscle?

A

Muscular dystrophy

Metabolic myopathy

62
Q

Rapidly progressing muscle disease = ______

A

Myositis

63
Q

Define myopathy?

A

diverse group of diseases that affect muscle fibers but are NOT due to neuronal disease or dysfunction of myoneural junction

64
Q

Gower’s sign, winged scapula, scoliosis and pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles are associated with what condition?

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

65
Q

What is the mechanism associated with Myesthenia Gravis?

A

Antibodies attack ACh receptors on postsynaptic membrane of myoneural junction to block its action

66
Q

Who commonly is affected by Myesthenia Gravis?

A

Young women

67
Q

What condition is characterized by weakness of extremity muscles, ptosis and thymic hyperplasia?

A

Myesthenia Gravis

NOTE: polymyocytis also affects muscles of extremities but does NOT affect the eyes

68
Q

Type 1 collagen deficiency associated with a blue sclera?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

69
Q

What condition causes dwarfism?

A

Achondroplasia

Pathology I (10 decks)

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