final exam prep COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lead

Fifth intercostal space on the left midclavicular line

A

v4

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2
Q

What is the lead

Horizontal to V4 at midaxillary line

A

V6

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3
Q

Horizontal to V4 at left anterior auxiliary line

A

V5

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4
Q

Fourth intercostal space at left margin of sternum

A

V2

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5
Q

Fourth intercostal space at right margin of sternum

A

V1

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6
Q

Midway between V2 and V4

A

V3

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7
Q

The tricuspid valve us located between the

A

Right atrium and ventricle

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8
Q

A patient is considered to have hypertension if the blood pressure is consistently elevated above

A

140/90

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9
Q

Which of the following is a condition in which the heart pumps too weakly to supply the body with blood

A

Heart failure

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10
Q

Which of the following conditions involves the localized inflammation of a vein

A

phlebitis

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11
Q

Lead I of an EKG attaches to

A

RA-LA

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12
Q

Lead II of an EKG attaches to

A

RA-LL

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13
Q

Lead III of an EKG attaches to

A

LA-LL

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14
Q

Which augmented lead is this Ra and (LA-LL)

A

aVR

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15
Q

Which augmented lead is this La and (RA-LL)

A

aVL

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16
Q

Which augmented lead is this LL and (RA-LA)

A

aVF

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17
Q

When using a halter monitor the ECG electrodes are attached to a patients

A

Chest wall

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18
Q

When placing the ECG electrodes on a patients lower leg the connectors should point

A

up

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19
Q

The bipolar leads are attached to which part of the body

A

Upper utter arms and inner lower calves

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20
Q

The first part of the cardiac cycle is called

A

Atrial depolarization

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21
Q

The ______ walls are thin one cell structures

A

capillary

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22
Q

blopod flows out from the ___ and into the aorta

A

Left ventricle

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23
Q

Which ECG lead records the voltage difference between left arm and the left leg

A

Lead III

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24
Q

What’s is the foremost contributing factor to stroke and kidney damage

A

Hypertension

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25
Q

The ___ records the heart voltage difference between the left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm

A

aVF

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26
Q

Med term Cardi/o

A

Heart

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27
Q

Med term Phleb/o

A

Vein

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28
Q

Med term Angi/o

A

Vessel

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29
Q

Med term Thromb/o

A

Clot

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30
Q

Med term Atri/o

A

Atrium

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31
Q

What is flow of the cardiac cycle

A
Superior/inferior vena cava 
Right atrium 
Tricuspid AV 
Right Ventricle 
Semilunar pulmonic valve 
Pulmonary artery 
Lungs for co2, o2 back in 
Pulmonary veins 
Left atrium 
bicuspid AV 
Left ventricle 
Semilunar aortic valve 
Aorta 

Starts all over 24/7 365 a year until we pass

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32
Q

Which disease is commonly known as whopping cough

A

Pertusis

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33
Q

The lymph tissue in the ____ intercepts antigens invading the upper respiratory tract

A

Tonsils and adenoids

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34
Q

Needles should be ___ after they have been used

A

Placed in a puncture-proof container

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35
Q

An autoclave is used for

A

Sterilization

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36
Q

You should not use any sterile package if it More then ___ from the time it was sterilized

A

30 days

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37
Q

define microorganisms power to produce a disease

A

Virulence

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38
Q

Parasites that depend completely on their host for survival

A

obligate parasite

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39
Q

Single celled internal parasite that have a true nucleus and survive on living matter

A

Protozoa

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40
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease

A

Pathogens

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41
Q

Cohabitation of microorganisms that live in or within an organism to provide a natural immunity against certain infections

A

Normal flora

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42
Q

multicellular parasite that live on the surface of a host and include scabies and lice

A

ectoparasites

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43
Q

Microorganisms that need oxygen to grow

A

aerobes

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44
Q

Microorganisms that grow best in the absence of oxygen

A

anaerobes

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45
Q

Branch of the immune response system that results from T cell activity

A

Cell-mediated immune response

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46
Q

Drugs that are incorporated into the DNA of HIV and stop the building process, slowing the spread of HIV

A

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

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47
Q

Ability to engulf and destroy antigens

A

phagocytosis

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48
Q

Group of disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells

A

Cell-mediated immune response

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49
Q

Immature cells that have little ability to fight infection

A

Monoctyes

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50
Q

Blood test used to measure the presence of different classes of immunoglobulin

A

Serum protein electrophoresis

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51
Q

Branch of the immune response system that results from B cell activity

A

Antibody- mediated immune response

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52
Q

Lymphocyte destroyer

A

cortisol

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53
Q

Group of genes that encode molecules found in all body cells, creating a biochemical “fingerprint” that serves as the “ID” for cells that they are marked as “self”

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

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54
Q

Yeast infection that is sometimes present in the mouth, esophagus, and vagina

A

candidiasis

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55
Q

Drugs that prevent HIV replication by inhibiting a viral protein

A

Non-nucleoside reverse transcription inhibitors (NNRTIs)

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56
Q

Substances that announce their foreigners by carrying different kinds of characteristics shapes, called epitopes, which stick out from the surface

A

Antigens

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57
Q

Family of proteins that can fight viruses

A

Interferon

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58
Q

Form of cancer that appears as purplish blotches on the skin

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

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59
Q

Newer type of drug used to prevent HIV from entering healthy T cells

A

Fusion inhibitor

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60
Q

Painful blister on the lips is a symptom of

A

Herpes simplex virus

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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five characteristics on infectious microorganisms

  • viruses
  • parasites
  • chloroplasts
  • rickettsiae
A

chloroplasts

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62
Q

Chain of infection 1-6 (I,R,P,M,E,S)

A
  1. Infectious agent
  2. reservoir or source
  3. Portal of exit of source
  4. Means of transmission
  5. Entry of host or source
  6. Susceptible host
    (I,R,P,M,E,S)
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63
Q

Hepatitis is an inflammation and infection of the

A

Liver

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64
Q

The correct order of the phases of the digestive process , from start rot finish, is (IDAE)

A

Ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination (IDAE)

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65
Q

Bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding muscle is characteristics of

A

diverticulosis

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66
Q

A spree to overindulge such as with alcohol or food

A

Binge

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67
Q

To be deprived ;without; having to do without or unable to use

A

Deprivation

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68
Q

Absence of menses; without menstruation

A

Amenorrhea

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69
Q

One suffering from anorexia

A

Anorexic

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70
Q

To become abnormally thin; loss of too much weight

A

Emaciation

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71
Q

An organic combination of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen as a sugar , a starch, or cellulose

A

carbohydrate

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72
Q

One who is trained in dietetics, which includes nutrition, and in charge of the diet of an institution

A

Dietitian

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73
Q

A unit for measuring the heart value of food

A

calorie

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74
Q

Substance deliberately added to a material to fulfill some specific purpose such as enhancing taste or color or prolonging shelf life

A

additive

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75
Q

Disease resulting from lack of vitamin b, thiamine

A

beriberi

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76
Q

When the partially digested food in the stomach is changed into a semiliquid state

A

Chyme

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77
Q

The presence of bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding muscle

A

Diverticulosis

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78
Q

Gas

A

Flatus

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79
Q

A three inch long instrument used to examine the lower rectum and anal canal

A

proctoscope

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80
Q

Chronic disease of the liver causes destruction of the liver cells

A

Cirrhosis

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81
Q

Surgical opening of the ileum that allows the chyme of the small intestine to empty through the abdominal wall

A

ileostomy

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82
Q

The first of three sections of the colon, a C-shaped segment about nine inches long

A

duodenum

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83
Q

The surgical removal of the gallbladder

A

cholecystectomy

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84
Q

Also refered to a gastric (stomach) ulcer

A

Peptic

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85
Q

Used to perform an examination to view the lower portion of the sigmoid and rectum through a 10-12 inch sigmoidoscope

A

sigmoidoscopy

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86
Q

Has two layers of involuntary muscles the inner layer forms circles around it, where as the outer layer runs longitudinally along its approximately 10 inches long

A

Esophagus

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87
Q

Gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

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88
Q

Inflammation of the colon that causes tenderness and discomfort

A

Colitis

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89
Q

The connecting chain of organs of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Alimentary canal

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90
Q

The combination of mashed food and substances and saliva

A

bolus

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91
Q

The bile is absorbed into the bloodstream , producing the yellow discoloration of the sclera, mucosa, and skin

A

Jaundice

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92
Q

A patients condition interferes with the ability to control the anus, as in a stroke with paralysis and the rectum empties whenever the nerve impulse is triggered

A

Incontinent

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93
Q

Once food is swallowed its movement through thru body is Manistee by smooth involuntary muscle action called

A

peristalsis

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94
Q

Cirrhosis is a disease of the

A

Liver

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95
Q

Occult blood test will

A

Detect blood in feces

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96
Q

Where does mechanical digestion occur

A

Mouth

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97
Q

Which organ is responsible for the secretion of bile

A

Liver

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98
Q

Urine is produced through

A

Secretion

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99
Q

The major work of the urinary system is performed by the

A

Kidneys

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100
Q

Which of the following is considered an invasive procedure

A

Catheterization

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101
Q

Before performing an intravenous pyelography (IVP), it is extremely important to determine if the patient has an allergic reaction response to ?:

A

Barium

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102
Q

Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder usually caused by an ascending organism introduced through the

A

meatus

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103
Q

Correctly identify the two types dialysis

A

Hemodialysis and peritoneal

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104
Q

In the male, the urethra is about ___ inches long

A

8

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105
Q

Which kidney is displaced by the liver

A

Right

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106
Q

Women who have had cystitis a few times can identify the characteristic symptoms and will start to drink water and ___?

A

Cranberry juice

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107
Q

The treatment for pyelonephritis consists primarily of

A

Antibiotics

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108
Q

The involuntary loss of drops of urine is called

A

Dribbling

109
Q

The most common underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is

A

glomerulonephritis

110
Q

Urinary output

A

Anuria

111
Q

This is created by a vascular surgeon who joins an artery and a vein together and makes an opening between the two so that blood flows directly from artery to vein bypassing the capillaries

A

Fistula

112
Q

Inflammation of the bladder that usually results from an ascending organism introduced through the

A

Cystitis

113
Q

Scanty urinary output

A

oliguria

114
Q

renal stones

A

calculi

115
Q

Narrowing of a passage way that interferes with the movement of substances through its interior

A

Stricture

116
Q

Urine left in the bladder after a patient has voided

A

Residual

117
Q

An alternative to hemodialysis using the patients own peritoneal membrane to cleanse the blood

A

Peritoneal

118
Q

medulla is divided into triangular shaped wedges called renal pyramids with bases towards the cortex and tops or renal Padilla emptying into cavities called

A

calyx

119
Q

pain or discomfort associated with voiding

A

dysuria

120
Q

function ooh the nephron moves substances directly from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the urine in the distal and collecting tumbles

A

Secretion

121
Q

Method of kidney stone removal

A

Lithotripsy

122
Q

Dropping of the kidneys that occurs in very thin person as a result of inadequate fatty cushion

A

ptosis

123
Q

Similar to fistula except it is made with either a synthetic material or a treated, sterilized animal vein

A

graft

124
Q

Life-preserving service of the kidney is performed by microscopic units called

A

Nephron

125
Q

Tube leading from the bladder to an exit from the body

A

Urethra

126
Q

Opening between the clitoris and the vagina within the folds of the labia minora

A

Urinary meatus

127
Q

After the kidneys have preformed their functions, the waste material urine is carried through these, one for each kidney to temporary storage in the bladder

A

ureter

128
Q

The pituitary gland is attached to which organ

A

Brain

129
Q

Which pheromone stimulates contractions during childbirth

A

oxytocin

130
Q

Which of the following is a gonadotropic hormone

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

131
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located

A

Larynx

132
Q

Which hormone develops the primary male sexual characteristics

A

Testosterone

133
Q

The adrenal gland sits atop the

A

Kidneys

134
Q

Blood sugar test is performed to assed the function of the

A

Pancreas

135
Q

Lack of ___ causes the thyroid gland to enlarge

A

Iodine

136
Q

tetany is treated by the addition of

A

calcium

137
Q

Majority of the islets of Langerhans cells are___ cells

A

Beta (B cells)

138
Q

Disorder characterized by a group of symptoms that results from the hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex caused by excess ACTH production

A

Cushing syndrome

139
Q

Small mass of tissue attached by a slim stalk to the roof of gut hormones that are advantageous for insulin secretion and decrease glucagon levels

A

antidiabetic drugs

140
Q

Autoimmune disease that eventually results in severe insulin deficiency

A

Type 1 diabetes

141
Q

Reduce insulin resistance by modulating activity of nuclear transcription factors

A

thiazolidinediones

142
Q

Extreme clinical development of hyperthyroidism

A

Thyroid storm

143
Q

Condition that results from a deficient of adrenal hormones in the cortex of the adrenal gland

A

Addison disease

144
Q

Method used by diabetic patients to evaluate their glucose level

A

Finger stick

145
Q

Work to lower sugar levels by blocking the release of glucose by the liver lindictae the answer choice that best describes completes the statement or answers the questions

A

biguanides

146
Q

which hormone is responsible for developing breast tissue and stimulating the secretion of milk from the mammary glands

A

prolactin

147
Q

Which hormone regulates the exchange of calcium between the bones and blood and increases blood calcium

A

parathormone

148
Q

The principle hormone of the medulla is

A

Adrenaline

149
Q

myxedema is an endocrine condition associated with

A

Too little thyroid hormone

150
Q

Patients with hyperthyroidism commonly experience

A

Irritability

151
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by overgrowth or cartilaginous and connective tissue

A

acromegaly

152
Q
Which of the following does not influence the amount of insulin a diabetic patient needs
A. vomiting
b. pregnancy
c. exercise
d. weather conditions
A

Weather conditions

153
Q

When the blood sugar level falls too low., the hormone glucagon is released causing ___ to release store glycogen into the blood

A

Liver

154
Q

The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is

A

Autoimmune destruction of the cells producing the hormone

155
Q

The radioactive iodine uptake test is a test of which gland

A

Thyroid gland

156
Q

Diabetes causes

A

hyperglycemia

157
Q

Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the

A

Ovaries

158
Q

Enlarged thyroid, nervousness and weight loss are symptoms of

A

Graves disease

159
Q
The following are symptoms of hyperglycemia except
A. nervousness
b. paleness
c. full bounding pulse
d. dry skin
A

Dry skin

160
Q

A moon face and a buffalo hump are symptoms of

A

Cushing syndrome

161
Q

What is the first phase on menstruation

A

Follicular phase

162
Q

Following fertilization, a zygote begins the journey to the well-prepared uterus arriving about___ after ovulation

A

6 days

163
Q

After 8 weeks an embryo is called a

A

Fetus

164
Q

The cervix must dilate to about ___ centimeters before the baby can be delivered

A

10

165
Q

What is the most common type of vaginal infection that causes irritation symptoms

A

candidiasis

166
Q

What is the treatment of choice for syphilis

A

Penicillin

167
Q

Its symptoms in women include a vaginal discharge mimicking gonorrhea and frequent painful urination associated with urinary tract infections

A

Chlamydia

168
Q

Group of infections with similar manifestations that are not linked to a single organism

A

nongonococcal urethritis (NGU, NSU)

169
Q

Examination and biopsy of the cervix done to rule out cancer when there are abnormal pap smear results

A

Pap test

170
Q

Blood taken at about the 15th to 20th week of pregnancy to aid in the detection of birth defects

A

Alpha-fetoprotein screening (AFP)

171
Q

Lesion that appear at the point of entrance and is associated with syphilis

A

Chancre

172
Q

Sac or fluid or semisolid material on an ovary

A

Ovarian cyst

173
Q

Disease from that appears on the external genitalia, mouth, or angus

A

Type II herpes

174
Q

Which method of contraceptive is typically most effective

A

condom

175
Q

The epididymis is

A

Shaped like a half moon

176
Q

The large pad of fat that overviews the symphysis pubis is known as the

A

mons pubis

177
Q

What is not an early sign of pregnancy

A

Edema of the hands, feet, face, and legs

178
Q

What is NOT a symptom of gonorrhea in men

A

Inflammation with a greenish-yellow discharge from the penis

179
Q

bulbourethral glands are sometimes called __ glands

A

Cowper’s

180
Q

The ___ is a rounded mass composed of two small columns of erectile tissue

A

Clitoris

181
Q

What is the most common gynecological malignancy

A

Uterine cancer

182
Q

Risk factors fop ovarian cancer peaks when a woman is in her

A

80s

183
Q

This is a predisposing factor for breast cancer

A

Drinking alcoholic beverages

184
Q

Med term coop/o

A

vagina

185
Q

Med term Hester/o

A

Uterus

186
Q

Med term mamma/o

A

Breast

187
Q

Med term men/o

A

Menstruation

188
Q

colposcope is an instrument used too

A

View the cervix

189
Q

A ___ is a surgical procedure that involves cutting through the abdomen and into the uterus to remove the baby and after birth

A

Cesarean

190
Q

This test is preformed at 15-20 weeks of pregnancy to detect chromosomal disorders

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

191
Q

Sperm are produced in the

A

Seminal tumbles

192
Q

Menarche means the

A

Beginning of the menses

193
Q

This is the metric unit that measures length

A

Meter

194
Q

A person who weighs 125 pounds weighs approximately ___ kilograms

A

56.82

195
Q

Which type of drug counteracts poisons and their effects selectively by binding with the toxin to inhibit further absorption

A

Antidote

196
Q

Classification Sudafed is a

A

Decongestant

197
Q

Classification Glucophage is a

A

Hypoglycemic, oral

198
Q

Classification kaopectate is a

A

antidiarrheal

199
Q

Classification Plavix is a

A

Antiplatelets

200
Q

Classification Tylenol is a

A

analgesic

201
Q

Classification Novocaine is a

A

Anesthetic

202
Q

Classification Proventil is a

A

Bronchodilator

203
Q

Classification Librium is a

A

antianxiety

204
Q

Classification coumadin is a

A

Anticoagulant

205
Q

Classification Benadryl is a

A

Antihistamine

206
Q

Classification Metamucil is a

A

Laxative

207
Q

Classification Mylanta is a

A

Antacid

208
Q

Classification lithium is a

A

antimanic

209
Q

Classification duracillin is a

A

antibiotic

210
Q

1 tsp= ____ ml

A

5ml

211
Q

1T=____ml

A

15ml

212
Q

The prefix centi- means

A

1/100th of a unit

213
Q

Which system of measurement is most commonly used in health carte

A

Metric

214
Q

What is conversion factor for converting pounds to kilograms

A

2.2lb=1kg

215
Q

After beginning the immunization schedule, infants are typically examined

A

Every 2-3 months for the first 18 months

216
Q

Which of the following is not a measurement commonly obtained at well child visits

A

Circumference of the abdomen

217
Q

When using a snellen chart, the child

A

Indicates with the fingers which way the big E is facing

218
Q

How often does the CDC release recommended childhood and adolescent immunization scheduled for children in the united states

A

Every year

219
Q

Infants typically begin their journey through the pediatricians office

A

1-2 weeks old

220
Q

Medicaid comprehensive and preventative child health program does not include which service

A

Cosmetic surgery

221
Q

It is customary to weigh infants

A

unclothed

222
Q

When measuring a Childs chest circumference the measuring tape should be placed

A

Directly over the nipples

223
Q

Which of the following is a symptoms of neglect

A

Apparent malnutrition

224
Q

Which of the following is a sign of abuse

A

Frequent injuries requiring medical attention

225
Q

Item that may be kept near the front desk in case a child becomes sick in the reception area and vomits

A

Emesis basin

226
Q

Observed by watching a child from behind as he or she walks to the caregiver

A

Gait

227
Q

Establishment of a positive parent-child relationship through examining, touching, cuddling and expressions of love

A

attachment

228
Q

Lack or withholding of care

A

Neglect

229
Q

Significantly influences growth patterns, making it important to have a complete family health history in the medical record

A

Heredity

230
Q

Helps to keep sick children isolated from well children while they wait to see the provider

A

Separate reception area

231
Q

Occurs when an infant or young child is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts

A

Failure to thrive (FTT)

232
Q

Observed by watching a Childs reaction to surrounding sounds

A

Hearing

233
Q

Inflicting emotional, physical or sexual injury

A

Abuse

234
Q

Documents the possible side effects of an immunization

A

Vaccination information sheet ( VIS)

235
Q

An apgar score ___ requires immediate intervention and continued evaluation

A

Below 7

236
Q

At what age can an infant first role from the back to the side

A

2-4 months

237
Q

At 5 months, a typical infant can

A

Hold a bottle

238
Q

At 12-15 months a child can typically

A

Say 10 or more words

239
Q

At 24 months a child can typically can

A

Ride a tricycle

240
Q

When measuring a Childs head circumference, the measurement should be read to be nearest

A

1/4 inch

241
Q

growth graphics aid in the diagnosis of growth abnormalities, nutritional disorders, and diseases of children from birth to age

A

20

242
Q

Toys in the play area of the reception are should

A

Be washable

243
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of a vision deficiency in a child

A

Holding books an arms length away when reading

244
Q

5 commonly given routine baby vaccines

A

Dtap, polio, HepB, Varicela, MMR

245
Q

Atrial depolarization represents which wave

A

p wave

246
Q

Ventricular depolarization represents which wave

A

qrs wave

247
Q

Ventricular depolarization represents which wave

A

t wave

248
Q

What is the range for normal blood pressure

A

Less than 120/70

249
Q

Arteries always carry blood ___ from the body

A

Away

250
Q

Veins carry blood ___ to the body

A

toward

251
Q

contraction phase is known as

A

systole

252
Q

Relaxation phase is called

A

Distole

253
Q

What is the 1st phase of menstruation

A

Follicular phase

254
Q

second phase of menstruation is

A

Ovulation

255
Q

Third phase of menstruation is

A

luteal phase

256
Q

Fourth phase of menstruation is

A

Menstruation

257
Q

1st phase of birth is

A

Contractions begin

258
Q

2nd phase of birth

A

10cm dilated and crowning of the head and birth

259
Q

3rd phase of birth

A

Detachment of placenta (after birth)

260
Q

Med term abdomin/o

A

abdomen

261
Q

Med term bucc/o

A

cheek

262
Q

Med term enter/o

A

Small intestine

263
Q

Med term stomat/o

A

mouth

264
Q

Med term gastr/o

A

Stomach

265
Q

Med term an/o

A

anus

266
Q

Med term ceil/o

A

lips

267
Q

Med term sial/o

A

saliva

268
Q

Med term hepat/o

A

liver

269
Q

Med term lingu/o

A

tongue