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Kin 101 - Physiology > Final exam prep > Flashcards

Final exam prep Flashcards

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1
Q

What do valves in the heart do?

A

prevent back flow of blood

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2
Q

Myocardial muscle cell characteristics

A
  • single nucleus
  • branched
  • connected to each other by intercalated disks
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3
Q

What are the two pathways of blood through the heart?

A
  • systemic
  • pulmonary
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4
Q

What is the endocardium?

A
  • inner layer
  • layer of endothelial cells
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5
Q

What is the myocardium?

A
  • middle layer
  • cardiac muscle
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6
Q

What is the epicardium?

A
  • outer layer
  • external membrane
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7
Q

What protects the heart?

A
  • the pericardium
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8
Q

Characteristics of the pericardium?

A
  • sac filled with fluid
  • connected to the diaphragm
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9
Q

What does pericardial fluid do?

A

-lubricates and allows the heart to move in a friction free environment

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10
Q

How do we look inside the heart?

A
  • echocardiogram
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11
Q

What information does the echocardiogram give?

A
  • the size and shape of the heart
  • its pumping strength
  • location and extent of any damage
  • disease of the heart valves and cardiac hypertrophy (excessive development of the heart)
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12
Q

Which ventricle is thicker in the heart?

A
  • the left
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13
Q

Why is one ventricle thicker than the other?

A
  • to be able to deliver blood to the entire body
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14
Q

Another name for the mitral valve?

A
  • bicuspid valve on the left side of the heart
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15
Q

Which valve remains closed in order to ensure back flow does not occur to the atria when ventricles contract?

A
  • Atrioventricular valve (AV)
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16
Q

Why do semilunar valves open and close?

A
  • pressure differences
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17
Q

Which valve prevents back flow of blood into the ventricles during ventricle relaxation?

A
  • semilunar valves
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18
Q

Where are coronary vessels located?

A
  • on the surface of the heart
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19
Q

What does systemic circulation include?

A
  • arteries
  • veins
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20
Q

What do arteries do?

A
  • carry oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to tissues
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21
Q

What do veins do?

A
  • carry deoxygenated blood back to the right atrium
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22
Q

What does pulmonary circulation include?

A
  • pulmonary arteries
  • pulmonary veins
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23
Q

What do pulmonary arteries do?

A
  • blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
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24
Q

What do pulmonary veins do?

A
  • blood from the lungs to the left atrium
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25
Q

How does blood flow?

A
  • Ohm’s Law (General)
  • The physiological Equivalent (specific)
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26
Q

What is Ohm’s law equation?

A
  • flow = change in pressure / resistance
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27
Q

What is the physiological equivalent equation?

A
  • Q = MAP/ TPR
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28
Q

What is Q?

A
  • cardiac output
  • heart function
  • The amount of blood leaving the ventricles every minute
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29
Q

What is MAP?

A
  • mean arterial pressure
  • blood pressure
  • outward pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels
  • NET driving pressure
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30
Q

What is TPR?

A
  • total peripheral resistance
  • blood vessels and their diameter
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31
Q

How is Q calculated?

A
  • heart rate (beats/min) x stroke volume (mlblood/beat)
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32
Q

What is MAP directly proportional to?

A
  • cardiac output x resistance
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33
Q

What is homeostasis equal to?

A
  • physiological equilibrium
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34
Q

Define total peripheral resistance

A
  • total resistance of all the blood vessels
  • most impacted by arterioles
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35
Q

What is the average blood pressure of the systemic circulation?

A
  • 93 mm Hg (millimetres of mercury) in aorta
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36
Q

Which blood vessels have low pressure?

A
  • veins
  • venae cavae
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37
Q

Define resistance

A
  • the radius of the blood vessels determines resistance and is physiologically regulated
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38
Q

Characteristics of vasodilation

A
  • r (radius) increases
  • R (resistance) decreases
  • Blood flow increases (assuming constant pressure)
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39
Q

Characteristics of vasoconstriction

A
  • r (radius) decreases
  • R (resistance) increases
  • Blood flow decreases (assuming constant pressure)
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40
Q

How are flow and resistance related?

A
  • inversely
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41
Q

If resistance increase, how does flow respond?

A
  • decreases
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42
Q

If resistance decreases, how does flow respond?

A
  • increases
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43
Q

What does resistance depend on?

A
  • length of the tube
  • radius of the tube
  • viscosity of the fluid
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44
Q

How does length of the tube affect resistance?

A
  • As R increases, L increases
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45
Q

How does radius of the tube affect resistance?

A
  • As R increases, radius decreases
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46
Q

How does viscosity of the fluid affect resistance?

A
  • As R increases, viscosity increases
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47
Q

Q refers to flow due to?

A
  • central factors
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48
Q

R refers to resistances due to?

A
  • peripheral factors
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49
Q

What type of cells spontaneously fire action potentials in the heart?

A
  • autorhythmic
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50
Q

How does depolarization of the autorhythmic cells spread to adjacent contractile cells?

A
  • gap junctions
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51
Q

How does the heart contract?

A
  • it twists
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52
Q

What allows the heart to twist while contracting?

A
  • the spiral arrangement of the muscle
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53
Q

How is force transferred from cell to cell?

A
  • intercalated disks contain desmosomes that transfer force
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54
Q

What allows electrical signals to pass rapidly from cell to cell?

A
  • gap junctions
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55
Q

Define desmosomes

A
  • string protein that surrounds sarcomeres and bind neighbouring sarcomeres
  • allow force to be transferred
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56
Q

Characteristics of cardiac muscle

A
  • single nucleus
  • distinctive short rectangular shape (are smaller compared to skeletal muscle)
  • spontaneously contract
  • branch and join neighbouring cardiac cells through intercalated disks
  • depends partly on extracellular Ca2+
  • T- tubular network is more extensive than skeletal muscle
  • large volume of mitochondria
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57
Q

What controls heart rate?

A
  • sinoatrial node
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58
Q

What are intercalated disks comprised of?

A
  • desmosomes hold cells together
  • gap junctions move ions
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59
Q

Where is Ca2+ stored in cardiac muscle

A
  • Ca2+ is sequestered/ isolated in the sarcoplasmic reticulum like skeletal muscle but the SR is less voluminous
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60
Q

What does t - tubules do?

A
  • allows rapid, synchronous excitation - contraction coupling
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61
Q

Why does the heart have so many mitochondria and how much of the heart does mitochondria make up?

A
  • the heart depends on aerobic ATP production
  • 1/3 of volume
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62
Q

Why is there a delay in the action potential of a cardiac contractile cell?

A
  • filling time of the heart
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63
Q

How do you determine the amount of force generated by the heart muscle?

A
  • The number of active cross bridges
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64
Q

In a cardiac muscle fibre, how long does the refractory period last?

A
  • as long as the entire muscle twitch
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65
Q

What does a long refractory period in cardiac muscle prevent?

A
  • tetanus
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66
Q

What determines the amount of active cross bridges in cardiac muscle?

A
  • determined by how much calcium is bound to troponin
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67
Q

How do you determine the force generated in skeletal muscle?

A
  • proportional to number and frequency of stimulations
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68
Q

What builds tension and what determines level of tension?

A
  • tetanus and fused tetanus
  • summation determines level of tension
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69
Q

How long is the refractory period in a fast twitch skeletal muscle fibre?

A
  • very short
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70
Q

What is summation in skeletal muscles?

A
  • muscles that are stimulated repeatedly
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71
Q

What effects force of contraction of cardiac muscle?

A
  • sarcomere length
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72
Q

Action potentials in cardiac autorhythmic cells have a…

A
  • unstable membrane potential
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73
Q

Since the membrane potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells is unstable, it is also called?

A
  • pacemaker potential
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74
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of a cardiac autorhythmic cell?

A
  • -60mV
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75
Q

What are If channels?

A
  • funny (f) current (I) channels
  • leaky channels that cause pacemakers to depolarize
  • results in pacemaker potential
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76
Q

Where does the right atrium receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: venae cavae
  • send: right ventricle
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77
Q

Where does the right ventricle receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: right atrium
  • send: lungs
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78
Q

Where does the left atrium receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: pulmonary veins
  • send: left ventricle
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79
Q

Where does the left ventricle receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: left atrium
  • send: body except for lungs
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80
Q

Where does the venae cavae receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: systemic veins
  • send: right atrium
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81
Q

Where does the pulmonary truck receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: right ventricle
  • send: lungs
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82
Q

Where does the pulmonary vein receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: veins of the lungs
  • send: left atrium
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83
Q

Where does the aorta receive and send blood to?

A
  • receive: left ventricle
  • send: systemic arteries
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84
Q

What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?

A
  • the transportation of nutrients, water, gases, wastes, and chemical signals to and from all parts of the body
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85
Q

What kind of system does the heart pump blood through?

A
  • a closed system
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86
Q

blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart

A
  • arteries
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87
Q

blood vessels that carry blood to the heart

A
  • veins
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88
Q

Where does the pulmonary circulation take place?

A
  • the right side of the heart to the lungs and back to the heart
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89
Q

Where does the systemic circulation take place?

A
  • the left side of the heart to the tissues and back to the heart
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90
Q

How is pressure affected by fluid flowing?

A
  • pressure decreases over distance
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91
Q

What is driving pressure?

A
  • the pressure created when the ventricles contract
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92
Q

Which of the three factors that affect resistance have the greatest effect?

A
  • radius
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93
Q

What type of muscle is cardiac muscle?

A
  • striated muscle
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94
Q

What do contractile muscles contain?

A
  • started fibres organized into sarcomeres
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95
Q

Where does the signal for contraction of the heart originate?

A
  • autorhythmic cells (non contractile_
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96
Q

Where does coronary circulation originate?

A
  • at the beginning of the aorta
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97
Q

Where does coronary circulation drain into?

A
  • the chambers of the heart
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98
Q

Brief explanation to contractile cell excitation-contraction coupling

A
  • action potential opens Ca2+ channels
  • Ca2+ entry into the cell triggers the release of additional Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through calcium induced calcium released
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99
Q

The force of a cardiac muscle contraction is due to?

A
  • how much ca2+ enters the cell
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100
Q

What is cardiac output (Q)?

A
  • heart rate x stroke volume
  • beats/min x mlblood/beat
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101
Q

Define stroke volume

A
  • amount of blood pumped by one ventricle during a single contraction
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102
Q

How to calculate stroke volume?

A
  • end diastolic volume (EDV) - end systolic volume (ESV)
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103
Q

What is end diastolic volume?

A
  • heart is most full
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104
Q

What is end systolic volume?

A
  • heart is most empty
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105
Q

How can one increase stroke volume?

A
  • increase end diastolic volume (more blood in ventricle to be ejected: Preload)
  • increase ejection fraction (more blood ejected from the ventricle: contractility)
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106
Q

Define ejection fraction

A
  • the percentage of EDV ejected with a single contraction
  • functional index of ventricular performance
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107
Q

How do you calculate ejection fraction?

A
  • stroke volume/ end diastolic volume x 100
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108
Q

What is heart rate determined by?

A
  • rate of depolarization in autorhythmic cells
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109
Q

What kind of innervation results in a decrease in heart rate?

A
  • parasympathetic
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110
Q

What kind of innervation results in an increase in heart rate?

A
  • sympathetic
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111
Q

Define pulse rate (different then heart rate)

A
  • time between pressure waves in an artery
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112
Q

Define systolic pressure

A
  • highest pressure in the ventricles and arteries
  • occurs during ventricular systole
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113
Q

Define diastolic pressure

A
  • lowest pressure in the ventricles and arteries
  • occurs during ventricular diastole
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114
Q

Define pulse pressure

A
  • difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures
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115
Q

How to calculate pulse pressure

A
  • systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
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116
Q

What is heart rate?

A
  • time between two R waves and two P waves
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117
Q

What is a P wave?

A
  • atrial depolarization
  • SA node depolarizes then the atria
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118
Q

What is a P-R segment?

A
  • conduction through AV node and AV bundle
  • time between end of atrial depolarization and onset of ventricular depolarization
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119
Q

What is a QRS complex?

A
  • ventricular depolarization
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120
Q

What is a T wave?

A
  • ventricular depolarization
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121
Q

What is an electrocardiogram divided into?

A
  • waves
  • segments between the waves
  • combinations of segments and waves
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122
Q

Electrical events of the cardiac cycle

A

Start
- p wave
- P-Q or P-R segment
- Q wave
- R wave
- S wave
- S-T segment
- T wave
End

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123
Q

When does atrial contraction begin?

A
  • during the latter part of the P wave
  • through the PR segment
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124
Q

When does ventricular contraction begin?

A
  • just after the Q wave
  • continues through the T wave
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125
Q

What comes first, electrical events or mechanical events?

A
  • electrical events
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126
Q

What is the Q wave?

A
  • the SA node depolarizes and then the bundle branches lasted in the septum
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127
Q

What is the R wave?

A
  • the purkinge fibres depolarize loaded in the apex and outer walls of the heart
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128
Q

What is a wave?

A
  • deflections above or below baseline
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129
Q

What are segments?

A
  • sections of baseline between waves
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130
Q

What are intervals?

A
  • combinations of waves and segments
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131
Q

What is a ST segment?

A
  • Time between end of ventricular depolarization and onset of ventricular repolarization
  • continuing ventricluar contraction
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132
Q

What is a PR interval?

A
  • time between onset of atrial depolarization and ventricular depolarization
  • AV blocks
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133
Q

What is a QT interval?

A
  • time between onset of ventricular depolarization and end of repolarization
  • long QT syndrome
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134
Q

What is systolic?

A
  • contraction
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135
Q

What is dystolic?

A
  • relaxation
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136
Q

Autonomic control of heart rate: Parasympathetic control

A
  • decreases heart rate
  • Ach on muscarinic receptor
  • K+ permeability increases
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137
Q

Autonomic control of heart rate: sympathetic control

A
  • increases heart rate
  • beta one adrenergic receptors in node
  • Na+ and Ca2+ permeability increases
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138
Q

Events of the cardiac cycle

A
  • late diastole
  • atrial systole
  • isovolumic ventricular contraction
  • ventricular ejection
  • isovolumic ventricular relaxation
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139
Q

What is late diastole

A
  • both sets of chambers are relaxed and ventricles fill passively
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140
Q

What is atrial systole

A
  • atrial contraction forces a small amount of additional blood into ventricles
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141
Q

What is isovolumic ventricular contraction

A
  • first phase of ventricular contraction pushes AV valves closed but does not create enough pressure to open semilunar valves. Maximum blood volume in ventricles = end-diastolic volume
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142
Q

What is ventricular ejection

A
  • as ventricular pressure rises and exceeds pressure in the arteries, the semilunar valves open and blood is ejected
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143
Q

What is isovolumic ventricular relaxation

A
  • as ventricles relax, pressure in ventricles falls. Blood flows back into cusps of semilunar valves and snaps them closed. Minimum blood volume in ventricles = end systolic volume
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144
Q

What factors affect stroke volume?

A
  • Preload
  • contractility
  • afterload
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145
Q

What is preload?

A
  • The longer (more stretch) the muscle fibre and sarcomere when contraction begins, the greater the tension (more force) developed
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146
Q

What is Frank-Starling law of the heart

A
  • Stroke volume is proportional to EDV
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147
Q

How can we increase the blood volume in the ventricles ?

A
  • increased venous return
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148
Q

What is venous return?

A
  • the amount of blood that returns to the heart from venous circulation
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149
Q

What is venous return affected by?

A
  • skeletal muscle pump
  • respiratory pump
  • venous constriction
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150
Q

What is skeletal muscle pump?

A
  • contraction of skeletal muscle that compresses veins and pushes blood towards the heart
  • enhanced venous return
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151
Q

What is respiratory pump?

A
  • decreased pressure on inferior vena cava allowing it to draw in more blood from the abdomen
  • enhanced venous return
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152
Q

What is venous constriction?

A
  • increased sympathetic activity causes veins to contract
  • decrease in volume of the veins
  • result is more blood “squeezed” out of them
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153
Q

What are sympathetic nervous system effects on contractility?

A

increased sympathetic activity =
- increased epinephrine release
- increase strength of contraction
- increate rate of both contraction and relaxation
- decreased duration of contraction

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154
Q

What do catecholamines do?

A
  • increase cardiac contraction
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155
Q

What is afterload?

A
  • is the combined load of EDV and arterial resistance during ventricular contraction
  • “ventricular force must exceed the resistance created by blood filling the arterial system”
  • blood must be pushed through the semilunar valves and into circulation
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156
Q
A
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157
Q

What happens during aerobic exercise to decrease afterload?

A
  • peripheral vasodilation
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158
Q

What clinical condition is associated with increased afterload?

A
  • hypertension
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159
Q

Where do action potentials originate in the heart?

A
  • sinoatrial node (SA node)
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160
Q

What follows action potentials in the heart?

A
  • a wave of contraction
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161
Q

Pathway that electrical signal moved through the heart?

A
  • from the SA node through
  • the internal pathway to the atrioventricular node
  • then to the AV bundle
  • to the bundle branches
  • to the terminal purkinje fibres
  • to the myocardial contractile cells
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162
Q

What sets the pace of the heart beat?

A
  • SA node
  • if SA node malfunctions, other autorhythmic cells in the AV node or ventricles take over
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163
Q

What does an ECG provide information on?

A
  • heart rate
  • rhythm
  • conduction velocity
  • condition of the cardiac tissues
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164
Q

What speeds up the rate of the pacemaker depolarization?

A
  • norepinephrine and epinephrine act on beta one receptors
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165
Q

What hyper polarizes the pacemaker of the heart?

A
  • acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors
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166
Q

What makes the first heart sound?

A
  • closure of the AV valves
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167
Q

What happens during isovolumeic ventricular contraction?

A
  • pressure rises but ventricular blood volume does not change
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168
Q

When do semilunar valves open?

A
  • when ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
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169
Q

When does most of the blood enter ventricles?

A
  • when the atria is relaxed
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170
Q

What creates the second heart sound?

A
  • the semi lunar valves closing
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171
Q

What is the average cardiac output at rest?

A
  • 5L/min
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172
Q

How are homeostatic changes accomplished in cardiac output?

A
  • varying heart rate
  • stroke volume
  • or both
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173
Q

What does epinephrine and norepinephrine do when they bind to beta one adrenergic receptors?

A
  • increase the force of myocardia contraction
  • shorter the duration of cardiac contraction
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174
Q

What enhances contractility of the heart and what kind of effect do they have?

A
  • catecholamines and certain drugs
  • inotropic effect
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175
Q

What is poiseuille’s law

A
  • R=8Ln(weird n)/pir^4
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176
Q

What does the weird n stand for?

A
  • viscosity
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177
Q

What is viscosity?

A
  • the thickness of the fluid of blood
178
Q

What determines the thickness of blood?

A
  • the amount of plasma, RBCs, and the amount of proteins
179
Q

How does blood flow?

A
  • down pressure gradients, from regions of high pressure to low pressure
  • blood only flows if there is positive pressure
  • depends on the pressure gradient not on the absolute pressure
180
Q

What are arteries?

A
  • measure pressure
  • act as pressure reservoir
  • thick layers of vascular smooth muscles
  • lots of elastic and fibrous connective tissue
181
Q

What are arterioles?

A
  • site of variable resistance
  • part of the microcirculation
  • less elastic and more muscular
182
Q

What are metarterioles?

A
  • branches of arterioles
  • partial smooth muscle layer
  • Pre capillary sphincters open and close to direct blood flow to capillaries or venous circulation
183
Q

Which blood vessels are more easily changeable, less muscular, and accepts blood?

A
  • venules
  • veins
184
Q

When is the velocity of blood flow the slowest?

A
  • where the cross sectional area is the greatest
185
Q

What blood vessel acts as volume reservoir?

A
  • veins
  • at rest they “hold” the majority of the blood volume
186
Q

When does redistribution occur?

A
  • when Q (cardiac output) increases
  • as tissues demand more oxygen and nutrients (like during exercise)
187
Q

Where do venues receive blood from?

A
  • from capillaries
188
Q

How is blood pushed through veins?

A
  • by skeletal muscles contracting
189
Q

Where does blood flow to in veins?

A
  • to the heart
190
Q

Which type of blood vessels are more numerous?

A
  • arteries
191
Q

Which blood vessel is closer to the surface of the skin?

A
  • arteries
192
Q

What are capillary beds?

A
  • site of gas exchange
193
Q

What is exchanged in capillaries?

A
  • plasma and cell exchange
194
Q

What are capillaries made of?

A
  • a single layer of flattened endothelial cells
  • supported by basal lamina
195
Q

What is capillary density related to?

A
  • metabolic activity of cells
196
Q

Define Angiogenesis

A
  • Angiogenesis is development of new blood vessels
197
Q

What does angiogenesis do?

A
  • necessary for normal development
  • enhanced heart and skeletal muscle blood flow
198
Q

How can blood pressure be estimated?

A
  • sphygmomanometer
199
Q

Define systolic pressure?

A
  • highest pressures in the ventricles and arteries occur during ventricular systole
200
Q

Define diastolic pressure?

A
  • lowest pressures in the ventricles and arteries occur during ventricular diastole
201
Q

Define pulse pressure?

A
  • difference between systolic and diastolic pressures
202
Q

What does MAP (mean arteriole pressure) = ?

A
  • diastolic pressure + 1/3 (pulse pressure)
203
Q

How is mean arterial blood pressure determined?

A
  • blood volume
  • effectiveness of the heart as a pump
  • resistance of the system to blood flow
  • relative distribution of blood between arterial and venous blood vessels
204
Q

How is blood volume determined?

A
  • fluid intake
  • fluid loss
205
Q

How is the effectiveness of the heart as a pump determined?

A
  • heart rate
  • stroke volume
206
Q

How is resistance of the system to blood flow determined?

A
  • diameter of the arterioles
207
Q

How is the relative distribution of blood between arterial and venous blood vessels determined?

A
  • diameter of the veins
208
Q

What system has the a rapid response to control blood pressure?

A
  • cardiovascular system
209
Q

What system is slower to respond to control blood pressure?

A
  • the kidneys
210
Q

How does the cardiovascular system respond to increased blood pressure?

A
  • by vasodilation
    or
  • by decreasing cardiac output
211
Q

How does the kidneys reduce blood pressure?

A
  • excretion of fluid in urine
212
Q

What happens when blood volume increases?

A
  • increased blood pressure
213
Q

Which organ is responsible for removing excess fluid from the body?

A
  • the kidneys
214
Q

What if blood pressure is too low?

A
  • lost fluid volume compensated through drinking (slow)
  • intravenous infusion (rapid) - IV
  • vasoconstriction (rapid)
  • sympathetic stimulation of the heart?
215
Q

What is heart rate determined by?

A
  • rate of depolarization in autorhythmic cells
216
Q

What is stroke volume determined by?

A
  • force of contraction in the myocardium
217
Q

Define hyperaemia

A
  • hyperaemia is a locally mediated increase in blood flow
218
Q

Active hyperaemia is like?

A
  • exercise
219
Q

Reactive hyperaemia is like?

A
  • after measuring blood pressure
220
Q

What influences arteriolar resistance?

A
  • influenced by both local and systemic control mechanisms
221
Q

What is myogenic auto regulation?

A
  • adjusts blood flow
222
Q

What do paracrine signals influence?

A
  • vascular smooth muscle
223
Q

Local factors?

A
  • can have greater impact on vessel diameter than catecholamines like during exercise hyperaemia
224
Q

What chemicals mediate vasoconstriction?

A
  • norepinephrine (alpha receptors)
  • vasopressin
  • angiotensin II
225
Q

What chemicals mediate vasodilation?

A
  • epinephrine (beta 2 receptors)
  • nitric oxide
  • adenosine
  • decreasing O2; increasing CO2, H+, K+
  • natriuretic peptides
226
Q

What happens to distribution of blood during physical activity?

A
  • majority (88%) goes to skeletal muscles
227
Q

What does homeostatic regulation of the cardiovascular system aim at maintaining?

A
  • adequate blood flow to the brain and heart
228
Q

What is the desirable blood pressure?

A
  • 120mmHg (systolic)
  • 80mmHg (diastolic)
229
Q

What are blood vessels comprised of?

A
  • smooth muscles
  • elastic and fibrous connective tissue
  • endothelium
230
Q

What is blood composed of?

A
  • Plasma (water, proteins, organic molecules, ions and dissolved gases)
  • Cellular elements (red blood cells, platelets, white blood cells)
231
Q

What are red blood cells also called?

A
  • erythrocytes
232
Q

What are platelets also called?

A
  • megakaryocyte
233
Q

What are white blood cells also called?

A
  • leukocytes
234
Q

What are the functions of plasma?

A
  • transports materials around the body
  • solvent for cellular elements
235
Q

What manages plasma?

A
  • primarily the kidneys
  • Involves the absorption and excretion of water
236
Q

What does the presence of proteins in the plasma do?

A
  • makes the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood higher that that of the interstitial fluid.
237
Q

What does colloid osmotic pressure do?

A
  • pulls water from the interstitial fluid into the capillaries and offsets filtration out of the capillaries created by blood pressure
238
Q

What protein is most prevalent in blood?

A
  • albumins
239
Q

What does the protein albumins do?

A
  • transport free fatty acids
240
Q

What do plasma portend do generally?

A
  • act as carriers, participate in blood clotting, and defend against foreign invaders.
  • create colloid osmotic pressure
241
Q

What are the two divisions to white blood cells?

A
  • phagocytes
  • granulocytes
242
Q

What are all the white blood cells? (LMNOP)

A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
243
Q

Define hematocrit?

A
  • percentage of total blood volume that is occupied by packaged red blood cells
244
Q

What is the normal range of hematocrit in a male and female?

A
  • males: 40 - 54%
  • females: 37-47%
245
Q

Define hemoglobin?

A
  • the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells
246
Q

What is the normal range of hemoglobin in males and females?

A
  • 15
247
Q

Where is hemoglobin located?

A
  • inside a red blood cell
248
Q

How much oxygen can on hemoglobin bind?

A
  • 4 oxygens
249
Q

How much oxygen can be transported in a fully saturated (1 gram) Hb?

A
  • 1.34ml of O2
250
Q

What does a RBC not have which allows for biconcave shape?

A
  • a nucleus
251
Q

What is a downsize to RBCs?

A
  • they live 120 days (no DNA to replicate)
252
Q

What is a hemoglobin made up of?

A
  • 2 beta chains
  • 2 alpha chains
253
Q

Define anemia

A
  • occurs when you do not have enough red blood cells OR when your red blood cells do not function properly
254
Q

What value of hemoglobin does a person have to be diagnosed anemic?

A
  • men: less than 13.5gm/dl
  • woman: less than 12.0gm/dl
255
Q

What are the types of anemia?

A
  • sickle cell disease
  • iron deficiency anemia (female athletes)
  • hemolytic anemia
256
Q

How to calculate O2 content in red blood cells per 100ml of blood

A
  • amount of hemoglobin (mass) x amount of O2 bound to hemoglobin x % saturation at a given PO2
257
Q

What is the typical hemoglobin mass/ 100ml blood?

A
  • 15g
258
Q

What is the saturation of arterial blood?

A
  • 100%
259
Q

What is the saturation of venous blood?

A
  • 75%
  • 1.00ml of O2
260
Q

What is O2/L of blood for individuals with normal Hb?

A
  • 201ml
261
Q

What is O2/L of blood for individuals with anemia?

A
  • 134ml
262
Q

Where are blood cells produced?

A
  • in bone marrow
263
Q

What bone produces the most RBCs?

A
  • the femur
264
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A
  • production of blood cells
  • 25% RBCs
  • 75% WBCs
265
Q

What is hematopoiesis controlled by?

A
  • cytokines –> interleukins
266
Q

What are cytokines?

A
  • are peptides or proteins released from one cell that affect the growth or activity of another cell
267
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A
  • regulates red blood cell production
268
Q

What is trhomboepoietin?

A
  • regulates platelet production
269
Q

What are colony stimulating factors?

A
  • regulates leukopoiesis
270
Q

What cytokines are involved in hematopoiesis?

A
  • erythropoietin
  • thrombopoietin
  • colony stimulating factors
271
Q

Sites of production for erythropoietin?

A
  • kidney cells
272
Q

Sites of production for thrombopoietin?

A
  • liver
273
Q

Sites of production for colony stimulating factors?

A
  • endothelium and fibroblasts of bone marrow, leukocytes
274
Q

Why don’t RBCs live as long in athletes?

A
  • mechanical factors
275
Q

Define hematocrit or “CRIT”

A
  • ratio of red blood cells to plasma
  • expressed as a percentage
276
Q

Define mean corpuscular volume?

A
  • size of red blood cells
277
Q

What is the stimulus for erythropoietin release?

A
  • low O2 levels in the tissue
  • hypoxia
278
Q

What is stimulated after hypoxia is detected?

A
  • hypoxia - inducible factor 1
279
Q

What does HIF-1 do?

A
  • increases EPO synthesis in the kidneys
280
Q

What is required for hemoglobin synthesis?

A
  • iron
281
Q

What is a Heme

A
  • a ring with an Fe atom in the centre
282
Q

Where does Iron for hemoglobin come from?

A
  • diet
283
Q

Where is excess iron stored?

A
  • in liver by ferritin
284
Q

What are remnants of heme groups converted to?

A
  • bilirubin –> excreted as bile
285
Q

What is jaundice a result of?

A
  • elevated levels of bilirubin
286
Q

What are platelets?

A
  • cell fragments from megakaryocytic
287
Q

What are life spans of platelets?

A
  • 10 days
288
Q

What do platelets do?

A
  • stop blood loss, immunity, and inflammation
289
Q

What kind of feedback is platelet plug formation?

A
  • postive feedback
290
Q

Steps in a platelet plug formation?

A
  • exposed collagen binds and activates platelets
  • release of platelet factors
  • factors attract more platelets
  • platelets aggregate into platelet plug
291
Q

How are platelet plugs restricted to the site of injury?

A
  • prostacyclin
292
Q

What do intrinsic and extrinsic pathways lead to?

A
  • generation of thrombin
293
Q

What does coagulation do?

A
  • converts a platelet plug into a clot
294
Q

What is the clotting protein?

A
  • fibrinogen
295
Q

How does all blood cells develop?

A
  • from a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
296
Q

What triggers platelet adhesion and platelet aggregation?

A
  • exposed collagen
297
Q

What do anticoagulants limit?

A
  • the extent of blood clotting within a vessel
298
Q

define mean corpuscular hemoglobin?

A
  • amount of hemoglobin per RBC
299
Q

define mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

A
  • amount of hemoglobin per volume of one red blood cell
300
Q

define thrombus?

A
  • a blood clot that adheres to the undamaged wall of a blood vessel
301
Q

Respiratory system functions

A
  • exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood
  • homeostatic regulation of body pH
  • protection from inhaled pathogens and irritating substances
  • vocalization
302
Q

Total pulmonary ventilation value

A
  • 6L/min: resting
303
Q

Total alveolar ventilation value

A
  • 4.2L/min: resting
304
Q

Maximum voluntary ventilation value

A
  • 125 - 170L/min
305
Q

Resting respiration rate

A
  • 12 breaths/min
306
Q

Resting tidal volume

A
  • 500ml
307
Q

Define eupnea

A
  • normal quiet breathing
308
Q

Define hyperpnea

A
  • increased respiratory rate and/ or volume in response to increased metabolism
  • ex: exercise
309
Q

Define hyperventilation

A
  • increased respiratory rate and/ or volume without increased metabolism
  • ex: blowing up ballon, or emotional
310
Q

Define hypoventilation

A
  • decreased alveolar ventilation
  • ex: asthma
311
Q

Define tachypnea

A
  • rapid breathing
  • usually increased respiratory rate with decreased depth
  • ex: panting
312
Q

Define dyspnea

A
  • difficulty breathing
  • ex: various pathologies, or hard exercise
313
Q

Define apnea

A
  • cessation of breathing
  • ex: holding breath
314
Q

What does the respiratory system to do air?

A
  • warms it
  • adds water vapour/ humidify
  • filters out foreign material
315
Q

What does the upper respiratory system include?

A
  • pharynx
  • voal cords
  • esophagus
  • nasal cavities
  • tongue
  • larynx
  • trachea
316
Q

What does lower respiratory system include?

A
  • right lung
  • left lung
  • left bronchus
  • right bronchus
  • diaphragm
317
Q

How many lobes does the left lung have?

A
  • 2
318
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have?

A
  • 3
319
Q

Define bronchoconstriction?

A
  • increases resistance
  • parasympathetic
320
Q

Define brochodilation?

A
  • decreases resistance
  • sympathetic
321
Q

What is pleural fluid?

A
  • lowers friction between membranes
  • holds lungs tight against the thoracic wall
322
Q

What encloses the lungs?

A
  • pleural sacs
323
Q

What does the respiratory cycle include?

A
  • one inspiration and one expiration
324
Q

What is used to measure pulmonary function?

A
  • spirometer
325
Q

What are the four lung volumes?

A
  • tidal volume
  • inspiratory reserve volume
  • expiratory reserve volume
  • residual volume
326
Q

What is vital capacity?

A
  • tital volume + IRV + ERV
327
Q

What is total lung capacity?

A
  • VC + RV
328
Q

What is inspiratory capacity?

A
  • Tidal volume + IRV
329
Q

What is functional residual capacity?

A
  • RV + ERV
330
Q

Define tidal volume

A
  • volume that moves during a respiratory cycle
331
Q

Define inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

A
  • additional volume above tidal volume
332
Q

Define expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

A
  • forcefully exhaled after the end of a normal expiration
333
Q

Define residual volume (RV)

A
  • volume of air in the respiratory system after maximal exhalation
334
Q

Where does flow take place?

A
  • from higher to lower pressure
335
Q

What creates pressure gradients?

A
  • a muscular pump
336
Q

How does air flow into the lungs?

A
  • when pulmonary (alveolar) pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure
337
Q

When does inspiration occur?

A
  • when alveolar pressure decreases
338
Q

When does expiration occur?

A
  • when alveolar pressure increases
339
Q

What does Boyle’s Law describe?

A
  • describes pressure-volume relationships
  • the inverse relationship between pressure and volume
340
Q

What does Dalton’s law describe?

A
  • total pressure equals sum of all partial pressures
341
Q

What is the normal sub atmospheric intrapleural pressure?

A
  • -3mmHg
342
Q

What happens when alveolar pressure = atmospheric pressure?

A
  • no air flow
343
Q

What happens when alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric?

A
  • air flows in
344
Q

What happens when alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric?

A
  • air flows out
345
Q

What do type one alveolar cells do?

A
  • gas exchange
346
Q

What do type two alveolar cells do?

A
  • produce surfactant
347
Q

What are other features of alveolar cells?

A
  • compliance: related to connective tissue and elastin and collagen
  • ventilation perfusion matching association with capillary blood flow and alveolar ventilation
348
Q

What does surfactant do?

A
  • reduces surface tension and this increases compliance, which decreases the work of breathing
349
Q

Where is more surfactant present?

A
  • in smaller alveoli to equalize pressure between alveoli
350
Q

What is Newborn respiratory distress syndrome?

A
  • premature babies born with inadequate surfactant
351
Q

What is alveolar ventilation?

A
  • the amount of “fresh” air that reaches the alveoli each minute
352
Q

How is gas exchange maximized?

A
  • perfusion of blood past alveoli is matched to alveolar ventilation
353
Q

What is bronchiole diameter mediated by?

A
  • CO2 levels in exhaled air
354
Q

What is VE?

A
  • Total pulmonary ventilation
355
Q

How to calculate VE?

A
  • Tidal volume x breathing frequency
356
Q

How to calculate alveolar ventilation?

A
  • ventilation x (tidal volume - dead space)
357
Q

What determines breathing efficiency?

A
  • rate and depth of breathing
358
Q

What is the thoracic cavity bound by?

A
  • ribs
  • spine
  • diaphragm
359
Q

What is hypoxia?

A
  • too little oxygen
360
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A
  • increased concentrations of carbon dioxide
361
Q

What do you have to do when calculating partial pressure of gas in humid air?

A
  • subtract the water vapour pressure from the total pressure
362
Q

How do you calculate VO2 (fick equation)?

A
  • Q x A-VO2difference
363
Q

What does the fick equation calculate?

A
  • the ability to intake, transport, and utilize oxygen
364
Q

What is the typical oxygen consumption rate at rest?

A
  • 250ml/min
365
Q

How is oxygen transported in the blood?

A
  • bound to hemoglobin on RBCs
  • dissolved in plasma
366
Q

At rest how much oxygen can a fully saturated hemoglobin carry?

A
  • 20mlO2/L
367
Q

At rest how much oxygen can plasma carry?

A
  • 0.3mlO2/L
368
Q

What factors affect O2-Hb binding?

A
  • anything that changes the conformation of Hb:
  • pH
  • Temperature
  • CO2
  • 2,3 - diphosphoglycerate
369
Q

How does exercise affect HbO2 saturation curve?

A
  • shifts the curve downward and rightward
370
Q

How is CO2 transported?

A
  • dissolved in blood
  • combined with bicarbonate ions
  • bound to Hb
371
Q

How is ventilation regulated?

A
  • respiratory neurons in the medulla control inspiratory and expiratory muscles
  • rhythmic pattern of breathing arises from a neural network of spontaneously discharging neurons
  • continuous modulation by chemoreceptor and mechanoreceptor linked reflexes and higher brain centres
372
Q

What is the primary stimulus for changes in ventilation?

A
  • primary stimulus for changes in ventilation
373
Q

What are the ventilation changes initiated by the medulla oblongata caused by?

A
  • changes in cerebrospinal fluid pH
374
Q

What pressure must O2 fall below to stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors?

A
  • 60mmHg
375
Q

How is pH affected by increased CO2?

A
  • decrease in pH
376
Q

How is pH affected by decreased CO2?

A
  • increase in pH
377
Q

What is the most important function of the kidneys?

A
  • the homeostatic regulation of the water and ion content of the blood
  • balancing intake of ions and water with their excretion in the urine
378
Q

How much of the fluid that enters the kidney is returned to the blood?

A
  • 99%
379
Q

How much plasma does the kidneys filter each day?

A
  • 180 litres
380
Q

What is the average volume of urine leaving the kidneys per day?

A
  • 1.5 liters
381
Q

How much kidney function must you lose before homeostasis is affected?

A
  • 75%
382
Q

What does the afferent arteriole do?

A
  • controls inflow
383
Q

What does the glomerulus do?

A
  • filtration
384
Q

What does the efferent arteriole do?

A
  • controls outflow
385
Q

What does the peritubular capillaries do?

A
  • reabsorption
386
Q

What does the vasa recta do?

A
  • reabsorption
387
Q

How are the kidneys arranged?

A
  • outer cortex (80%)
  • inner medulla (20%)
388
Q

What are the vascular components of the kidney?

A
  • afferent arteriole
  • glomerulus
  • efferent arteriole
  • peritubular capillaries
  • vasa recta
389
Q

What are the tubular components of the kidney?

A
  • Bowmans capsule
  • proximal tubule
  • loop of henle
  • distal tubule
  • collecting ducts
  • distal nephron
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus
390
Q

What does the bowman’s capsule do?

A
  • is the site of plasma filtration with the glomerulus
391
Q

What is the bowman’s capsule and glomerulus referred to?

A
  • renal corpuscle
392
Q

What is the loop of henle do?

A
  • descending and ascending limb
393
Q

What does the collecting duct do?

A
  • converge and drain into the renal pelvis
394
Q

What is the distal nephron?

A
  • distal tubule and collecting ducts
395
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A
  • ascending limb passes between afferent and efferent between arterioles at the glomerulus
396
Q

What is the kidneys function?

A
  • filtration
  • reabsorption
  • secretion
397
Q

Filtration in the kidneys

A
  • about 20% of plasma is filtered in the nephron
  • remaining 80% flows into the peritubular capillaries
  • less than 1% of filtered fluid is eventually excreted
  • takes place in the renal corpuscle
398
Q

What is the filtration fraction?

A
  • the percentage of total plasma that enters the renal corpuscle and filters into the tubule
399
Q

Reabsorption in the kidneys

A
  • most reaborsptlon occurs in the proximal tubules
  • reabsorption can occur by active or passive transport
400
Q

Secretion in the kidneys

A
  • at distal convoluted tubule
  • is the transfer of molecules from the extracellular fluid into the lumen of the nephron
  • depends mostly on membrane proteins for transport
  • is an active process moving against concentration gradients
401
Q

What causes filtration?

A
  • capillary pressure
402
Q

What two factors have to be overcome in order for filtration to occur?

A
  • colloid osmotic pressure
  • hydrostatic pressure
403
Q

What are 3 filtration barriers?

A
  • pores in endothelium
  • foot process of podocyte
  • basal lamina
404
Q

What increases membrane permeability?

A
  • hormones
405
Q

How do hormones increase membrane permeability?

A
  • by changing the size of the filtration slits or contraction of the mesangial cells
406
Q

How does glomerular filtration rate (GFR) increase or decrease?

A
  • changing renal blood flow
  • changing blood pressure
  • changing permeability of Bowmans capsule
407
Q

What hormone influences GFR?

A
  • angiotensin II –> vasoconstriction
408
Q

How is GFR regulated?

A
  • inflow ad outflow
  • afferent and efferent arteriole
409
Q

What is the myogenic response?

A
  • intrinsic ability of vascular smooth muscle to respond to pressure changes
  • similar to auto regulation in other systemic arterioles
410
Q

What is tubuloglomerular feedback?

A
  • a local control path where fluid flow through the tubule influences GFR
  • paracrine control
411
Q

What is the average hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries?

A
  • 55mmHg
412
Q

What is maintaining ECF osmolarity equilibrium essential to?

A
  • mining cell volume hemostasis
413
Q

What is law of mass balance?

A
  • mass balance = existing load + intake or metabolic production - excretion or metabolic removal
414
Q

What is water movement driven by?

A
  • the osmotic gradient between the tubule and the interstitial fluid
415
Q

What part of the loop of henle is impermeable to ions?

A
  • the descending section
416
Q

What part of the loop of henle is impermeable to water?

A
  • the ascending section
417
Q

What happens at the vasa recta?

A
  • reabsorption of water and some ion in a countercurrent flow
418
Q

Define diuresis

A
  • removing excess water in urine
419
Q

What does vasopressin control?

A
  • water reabsorption
420
Q

Where is ADH secreted from?

A
  • posterior pituitary gland
421
Q

What is the result of maximal vasopressin?

A
  • urine is highly concentrated
422
Q

What happens when vasopressin is not present?

A
  • urine is dilute
423
Q

What does vasopressin act on?

A
  • on the collecting duct
424
Q

Vasopressin is secreted in response ti three physiological changes:

A
  • increased plasma osmolarity
  • decreased blood pressure
  • decreased blood volume
425
Q

What is the Na+ stimulus closely related to?

A
  • blood volume and blood pressure
426
Q

What hormone regulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal portions of the nephron and collecting duct?

A
  • aldosterone
427
Q

What type of hormone is aldosterone?

A
  • a steroid hormone
428
Q

Where is aldosterone synthesized?

A
  • in the adrenal cortex (outer part of adrenal gland, on top of the kidney)
429
Q

What is aldosterone secretion regulated by? (wanting more)

A
  • increased extracellular K+ concentrations
  • decreased blood pressure
  • decreased plasma Na+
430
Q

What is aldosterone secretion regulated by? (wanting less)

A
  • increased ECF osmolarity
431
Q

What two effects does aldosterone have when combining with a cytoplasmic receptor?

A
  • in the early repose, Na+ and K+ channels increase permeability, intracellular Na+ concentrations rise and the Na+-K+-ATPase pump speeds up, and results in increased Na+ reaborsptlon and K+ secretion
  • in the slower phase, new ion channels and pumps are inserted in the epithelial cell membranes, and allows for a quicker response and greater capacity for Na+ reabsorption
432
Q

How does your body respond to a drop in blood pressure?

A
  • Renin - angiotensin - aldosterone (RAAS)
433
Q

When do granular cells produce and secrete Renin when?

A
  • they directly detect low blood pressure
  • sympathetic neurons that terminate on the granular cells are activated by the cardiovascular control centre when blood pressure decreases
  • they receive paracrine feedback from the macula dense cells to increase secretion due to decreased fluid flow in the distal tubule
434
Q

What are the many effects of angiotensin II?

A
  • stimulates adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone
435
Q

What is the pathway of ANG II to increase blood pressure?

A
  • ANG II increases vasopressin secretion
  • ANG II stimulates thirst
  • ANG II is one of the most potent vasoconstrictors
  • Increases sympathetic output to the heart ad blood vessels
  • ANG II increases proximal tubule Na+ rweaborption
436
Q

Define natriuresis

A
  • urinary Na+ loss
437
Q

What does natriuresis do?

A
  • decreases blood volume
  • dilates affernt artioles, increasing GFR
  • decreases Na+ reabsorption in the collecting ducts
  • suppress RAS
438
Q

Define atrial natriuretic peptide

A
  • produced in atria myocardial cells
439
Q

Define brain natriuretic peptide

A
  • produced in ventricular myocardial cells and certain brain neurons
440
Q

How is thirst triggered?

A
  • by hypothalamic osmoreceptors
441
Q

Why do people have a salt appetite?

A
  • triggered by aldosterone and angiotensin
442
Q

How is aldosterone inhibited?

A
  • aldosterone can be inhibited when there is high osmolarity and low blood volume despite the presence of ANG II

Kin 101 - Physiology (2 decks)

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