Final Exam: PPT Slide Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What could indicate to the nurse that a patient taking a sedative-hypnotic requires more teaching?

a. the patient wants to listen to music
b. the patient has saved her urine to be measured
c. the patient says she has taken 1800 mL of fluid today
d. the patient requests a cup of kava kava tea to help her get to sleep faster

A

D. The patient requests a cup of kava kava tea to help her sleep faster

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2
Q

An older adult complains of insomnia. Which suggestion would be the most appropriate for the nurse to provide as an initial method to deal with this issue?

a. take Benadryl pills each evening before bedtime
b. drink warm milk or chamomile tea before bedtime
c. develop an exercise regimen for the evening
d. take naps during the day when you feel drowsy

A

B. drink warm milk or chamomile tea before bedtime

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3
Q

Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor when a patient is receiving lithium?

a. urinalysis
b. serum glucose
c. serum electrolytes
d. complete CBC

A

C. serum electrolytes

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4
Q

Which advice will the nurse include when teaching the patient about lithium therapy?

a. take the drug on an empty stomach
b. eliminate all sodium from your diet
c. stop taking the lithium when you feel better
d. it may take 1-2 weeks before you have any benefits from taking the medication

A

D. It may take 1-2 weeks before you have any benefits from taking the medication

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5
Q

A patient has been advised to take ibuprofen. When teaching the patient about ibuprofen, which instruction should the nurse include? (Select all)

a. avoid taking aspirin with ibuprofen
b. take with food to reduce GI upset
c. monitor for bleeding gums, nosebleeds, black tarry stool
d. take herbs, ginkgo and garlic, with ibuprofen
e. take NSAIDs 2 days before menstruation to decrease discomfort

A

A. avoid taking aspirin with ibuprofen
B. take with food to reduce GI upset
C. monitor for bleeding gums, nosebleeds, black tarry stools

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6
Q

A patient enters the ED with a draining wound. Once the patient is admitted and assessed, the priority nursing intervention is to?

a. administer the ordered antibiotics
b. teach the patient about the antibiotics
c. culture the wound
d. enforce droplet isolation precautions

A

C. culture the wound

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7
Q

Which statement will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy?

a. avoid ingesting buttermilk or yogurt when taking medication
b. stop taking the medication when you feel better
c. immediately stop taking the medication if you develop nausea
d. inform your HCP if you develop mouth ulcers

A

D. inform you HCP if you develop mouth ulcers

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8
Q

A patient asks the nurse why she gets yeast infections after a course of antibiotics. The nurse explains,

a. the antibiotics will lower your WBC
b. people are poorly nourished and hydrated after an infection
c. yeast infections happen if the antibiotic is not taken for the full course
d. yeast infections are common when the normal body flora are disrupted

A

D. yeast infections are common when the normal body flora are disrupted

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9
Q

When teaching a patient about TMP-SMZ, the nurse gives the highest priority to teach the patient to

a. increase fluid intake
b. report ringing in the ears or loss of hearing
c. expect the change of color in their urine to a red-orange
d. take the drug with diary products or antacid to protect the stomach

A

A. increase fluid intake

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10
Q

A patient has been prescribed TMP-SMZ. The nurse realizes that this drug is most likely used to treat which condition?

a. gonorrhea
b. rickettsial infection
c. chlamydial infection
d. urinary tract infection

A

D. urinary tract infection

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11
Q

A patient is prescribed aspirin and clopidogrel. The nurse identifies the drug classification of clopidogrel as

a. anticoagulant
b. thrombotic inhibitor
c. antiplatelet
d. thrombolytic

A

C. antiplatelet

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12
Q

A patient arrived in the ED 2 hours after an acute ischemic stroke. The patient is given an IV injection of alteplase. It is most important for the nurse to monitor what? (Select all)

a. bleeding
b. vital signs
c. PT levels
d. allergic reactions
e. electrocardiogram

A

A. bleeding
B. vital signs
C. allergic reactions
D. electrocardiogram

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13
Q

Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about warfarin therapy?

a. increase green, leafy vegetables in diet
b. rinse mouth instead of brushing teeth
c. follow up with lab tests such as PT or INR to regulate doses
d. use a new razor blade each time you shave

A

C. follow up with your lab tests such as PT or INR to regulate doses

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14
Q

A patient is on heparin secondary to DVT. The nurse has which medication on hand as an antidote in case it is needed?

a. vitamin K
b. protamine sulfate
c. warfarin
d. aminocaproic acid

A

B. protamine sulfate

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15
Q

Four patients are considered as potential candidates for thrombolytic therapy. Which patient is most likely to receive thrombolytic therapy?

a. patient who recently received acetaminophen
b. patient with a hx of severe HTN
c. patient who recently had spinal surgery
d. patient with a hx of warfarin use

A

A. patient who recently received acetaminophen

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16
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who received alteplase for treatment of the acute coronary syndrome. The patient starts to bleed. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?

a. protamine sulfate
b. vitamin k
c. warfarin
d. aminocaproic acid

A

D. aminocaproic acid

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17
Q

A patient is recovering from surgery to replace her right hip. In the early post-op phase, the nurse anticipates the administration of which drug to prevent DVT?

a. dipyridamole
b. low-molecular-weight heparin
c. abciximab
d. anagrelide

A

B. low-molecular-weight heparin

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18
Q

The patient develops a DVT. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?

a. intravenous heparin
b. clopidogrel
c. vitamin K
d. protamine sulfate

A

A. IV heparin

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19
Q

The patient is being discharged home on warfarin therapy. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient?

a. results of apTT time will determine if the medication is effective
b. INR results should be between 2-3
c. a normal response is for you stools to look tarry
d. increase the amount of gree leafy vegetables in your diet

A

B. INR results should be between 2-3

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20
Q

Which medication is a first-generation antihistamine?

a. cetirizine
b. fexofenadine
c. diphenhydramine
d. loratidine

A

C. diphenhydramine

21
Q

Before administering diphenhydramine to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of

a. allergy to penicillin
b. HTN
c. type 2 CM
d. narrow-angle glaucoma

A

D. narrow-angle glaucoma

22
Q

A patient with COPD asks the nurse what the albuterol he is taking does. The nurse should inform the patient that albuterol is used to

a. mobilize respiratory secretions
b. decrease the cough response
c. increase the work of breathing
d. dilate the larger airways

A

D. dilate the larger airways

23
Q

A nurse who is administering atorvastatin calcium realizes the importance of monitoring for which serious adverse reaction?

a. pharyngitis
b. rash/pruritus
c. rhabdomyolysis
d. agranulocytosis

A

C. rhabdomyolysis

24
Q

A patient has angina pectoris. The patient’s BP is 100/60. The nurse administers nitroglycerin sublingually. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of?

a. bradycardia
b. hypotension
c. bradypnea
d. hypokalemia

A

B. hypotension

25
Q

A nurse is administering digoxin. Which nursing interventions will the nurse implement? (Select all)

a. check apical pulse before administration
b. monitoring the patient’s serum digoxin level
c. instructing the patient to report pulse less than 60
d. advise patient to avoid foods high in potassium
e. always give an antacid with digoxin to reduce GI distress

A

A. check apical pulse before administration
B. monitoring patient’s serum digoxin level
C. instructing the patient to report pulse rate less than 60

26
Q

A patient is ordered to receive digoxin to treat CHF. The nurse is most concerned about which assessment finding?

a. HR 56 bpm
b. BP 138/90
c. RR 18 bpm
d. 1+ pitting edema in LE

A

a. HR of 56 bpm

27
Q

The nurse should teach the patient to report which of the following to the HCP immediately if experienced after taking nitroglycerin?

a. dizziness
b. faintness
c. headache
d. persistent pain

A

D. persistent pain

28
Q

A patient is receiving an angiotensin II receptor blocker. Which does the nurse recognize as an angiotensin II receptor blocker?

a. valsartan
b. amlodipine
c. captopril
d. metoprolol

A

A. valsartan

29
Q

A patient is receiving an angiotensin II receptor blocker. It is most important for the nurse to assess for?

a. constipation
b. tremors
c. asthmatic attacks
d. dizziness

A

D. dizziness

30
Q

A patient with HTN is ordered to receive an ACE inhibitor. The nurse identifies a common benign side effect of this class of medications as

a. hiccups
b. flatulence
c. ABD distension
d. a dry cough

A

D. a dry cough

31
Q

Which patient teaching should be included when taking spironolactone? (Select all)

a. assess serum sodium levels
b. monitor urinary output
c. administer in the morning to avoid nocturia
d. advise patients with high serum potassium levels to avoid foods high in potassium

A

B. monitor urinary output
C. administer in the morning to avoid nocturia
D. advise patients with high serum potassium levels to avoid foods high in potassium

32
Q

A patient with peptic ulcer disease is noted to have a positive breath test for H. pylori. The nurse would anticipate treating the patient with

a. antacids and narcotics
b. pepsin inhibitors and antiemetics
c. proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics
d. emetic agents and tranquilizers

A

C. proton pump inhibitors and antibiotics

33
Q

An older adult patient reports taking aluminum hydroxide on a daily basis to relieve symptoms of GERD. The nurse needs to evaluate for which condition?

a. constipation
b. diarrhea
c. flatulence
d. ABD pain

A

A. constipation

34
Q

A patient with a gastric ulcer is ordered sucralfate. This medication works to

a. calm the patient to reduce acid production
b. block the H2 receptors
c. neutralize the gastric acids
d. coat the gastric lining

A

D. coat the gastric lining

35
Q

Bisacodyl has been ordered for a patient who is constipated. The nurse realizes that bisacodyl

a. increases peristalsis to produce a BM
b. is incompatible with alcohol consumption
c. should be avoided during pregnancy
d. may lead to paralytic ileus

A

A. increases peristalsis to produce a BM

36
Q

A patient is ordered bisacodyl. Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for which?

a. HTN
b. anemia
c. allergy to penicillin
d. appendicitis

A

D. appendicitis

37
Q

Lactulose is ordered for a patient with liver disease. What would indicate the medication is exerting a positive therapeutic effect on the patient?

a. decreased ascites
b. decreased ammonia level
c. decreased jaundiced
d. decreased BP

A

B. decreased ammonia level

38
Q

A patient is prescribed metformin. Which is a side/adverse effect common to metformin?

a. seizures
b. constipation
c. bitter or metallic taste
d. polyuria and polydipsia

A

C. bitter or metallic taste

39
Q

A nurse gives the patient NPH insulin at 8 am. At 2 pm, the nurse finds the patient lethargic but conscious. The patient is diaphoretic and slightly combative. The nurse should

a. call the HCP
b. ensure that the patient has a meal
c. provide the patient with 4 oz of orange juice
d. administer the next dose of insulin

A

C. provide the patient with 4 oz of orange juice

40
Q

When teaching the patient about the storage of insulin, which statement will the nurse include?

a. keep insulin in the freezer
b. warm the insulin in the microwave before administration
c. do not place insulin in sunlight or a warm environment
d. open insulin vials lose their strength after one year

A

C. do not place insulin in sunlight or a warm environment

41
Q

A patient with type 1 DM is ordered insulin therapy once daily to be administered at bedtime. What is the type of insulin that patient is most likely receiving?

a. insulin glargine
b. lente insulin
c. lispro insulin
d. regular insulin

A

A. insulin glargine

42
Q

Patients receiving extensive amounts of mafenide acetate for the treatment of burns are most at risk for the development of which imbalance?

a. hypomagnesemia
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. hypocalcemia

A

B. metabolic acidosis

43
Q

A patient has adrenocortical insufficiency and was taking hydrocortisone. Before discharge, the drug was switched to prednisone. Which appropriate teaching for discharging a patient with oral prednisone?

a. stop the drug when feeling better
b. prednisone is always given by injection
c. the dose needs to be tapered off over 1-2 weeks
d. hyperkalemia is common

A

C. the dose needs to be tapered off over 1-2 weeks

44
Q

A nurse has been teaching a patient about levothyroxine. Which side effect should the nurse teach the patient to observe for?

a. somnolence
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. nervousness

A

D. nervousness

45
Q

A nurse will teach a patient taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism to notify the HCP if he or she experiences

a. dizziness
b. nausea
c. palpitations
d. ABD cramps

A

C. palpitations

46
Q

During a dx for parathyroid function, a patient asks the nurse what the parathyroid gland does. The nurse correctly informs the patient that the parathyroid gland is responsible for?

a. regulating metabolism
b. maintain blood glucose
c. controlling the release of glucocorticoids
d. regulating calcium levels

A

D. regulating calcium levels

47
Q

A patient has hypoparathyroidism. The nurse anticipates the administration of which medication?

a. mitotane
b. fludrocortisone
c. dexamethasone
d. calcitriol

A

D. calcitriol

48
Q

A patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. The nurse teaches the patient to observe for common side effects of the drug including which of the following?

a. ABD pain and hives at injection site
b. dry mouth and dizziness
c. weight gain and blurred vision
d. generalized rash

A

A. ABD pain and hives at the injection site