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Host Defense > Final Exam - Old Test Questions 2012 > Flashcards

Final Exam - Old Test Questions 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an antibody preparation in which every antibody is identical?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

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2
Q

What is the name for a bacterial protein used to bind iron?

A

Siderophore

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3
Q

Which toll-like receptor is most useful for detecting viral infections?

A

TLR - 3

Detects ds RNA (viruses)

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4
Q

Name two advantages to using a killed or inactivated vaccine

A

More stable storage

Unlikely to cause disease or illness in immunosuppressed

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5
Q

What is one disadvantage to using a subunit vaccine?

A

They only stimulate immunity against a single protein (epitope) which may not impart full protection

-Must carefully choose antigen to target!

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6
Q

_________________ is one way in which acute phase proteins assist in innate immunity.

A

They are produced by the liver in response to pro inflammatory cytokines such as IL-6, LPS and TNF-a

CRP (C reactive protein) binds to PHOSPHORYLCHOLINE on bacterial surfaces to:

  1. Opsonize
  2. Activate complement by binding C1q

**MBL (Mannose binding lectin) also does these two things. **

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7
Q

Viruses are not subject to complement-mediated immunity, true or false?

A

False

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8
Q

Which type of MHC presentation is most important for antiviral immunity?

A

MHC Class 1 because viruses are endogenous

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9
Q

Atopic dermatitis and food allergies can cause an itching sensation, thus they are called ____________

A

Pruritic

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10
Q

What do we call the fluid component of clotted blood?

A

Serum

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11
Q

Tolerance induced by exposure to high doses of antigen is due to __________

A

Clonal Exhaustion

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12
Q

An adjuvant of oil and water with dead mycobacteria is called _________

A

Complete Freund’s Adjuvant

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13
Q

LPS from Gram negative bacteria binds to which receptor on phagocytes?

A

TLR - 4 (CD 14)

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14
Q

Deleting self-reactive B cells in the bone marrow is what type of tolerance?

A

Central Tolerance

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15
Q

Specifically, aluminum hydroxide assists vaccination by ___________

A

Delaying the release of antigen; and allowing enhance macrophage uptake

Called: Alum (aluminum hydroxide)

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16
Q

Antibody-antigen precipitation works maximally at the __________

A

Equivalence, 1:1

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17
Q

Which of the following would be an example of peripheral tolerance?

a. tissue expression of Fas ligand
b. high expression of MHC class I molecules in certain tissues
c. deletion of self-reactive T lymphocytes in the thymus
d. atrophy of the thymus after puberty
e. accumulation of CTL within a tissue or body site

A

A. Tissue expression of Fas ligand

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18
Q

Which would be an example of natural passive immunity?

a. generation of antibodies following vaccination
b. administration of monoclonal antibodies to treat cancer
c. acquisition of antibodies from colostrum
d. a blood transfusion
e. transferring effector T cells between identical twins or genetically matched individuals

f. all of the above

A

C. Acquisition of antibodies from colostrum

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19
Q

Which of the following is unique to Gram-positive bacteria?

a. endotoxin
b. capsules
c. flagellin
d. pilin
e. peptidoglycan
f. lipoteichoic acids

A

F. Lipoteichoic acids

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20
Q

A substance that enhances the immunogenicity of an antigen is called a(n):

a. adjuvant
b. hapten
c. marker vaccine
d. costimulatory molecule
e. none of the above

A

A. Adjuvant

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21
Q

Blood typing is usually and simply done using:

a. the DTH response
b. agglutination
c. ELISA
d. radialimmunodiffusion
e. Coombs test

A

Agglutination

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22
Q

What is one major disadvantage of passive immunization?

a. immune cells can be transmitted to the recipient
b. immunity is short-lived
c. the antigen can trigger cross-reaction to self epitopes
d. regulatory T cells are induced and mute response to subsequent antigen challenge
e. only IgA antibodies are transferred

A

B. Immunity is short lived

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23
Q

A foreign tissue graft into the brain survives much longer than the same tissue transplanted to the skin. What is the term for this phenomenon?

a. immune privilege
b. Colfax retention
c. antigen escape
d. cross-presentation
e. antigen mimicry
f. none of the above

A

A. Immune privilege

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24
Q

The bulk of intraepithelial lymphocytes in the villi of the gut are:

a. a mixture of CD4+ and CD8+ T cells
b. M cells
c. B cells secreting IgA
d. a mixture of CD8+ T cells and γ/∂ T cells
e. Treg cells

A

D. A mixture of CD8+ T cells and gamma/delta T cells

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25
Q

How could you create a marker vaccine for pneumovirus that affects turkeys?

a. remove an antigenic capsid protein gene from an attenuated strain without impeding viral replication
b. cross-link two viral subunits
c. clone the gene for a viral antigen and express it in a nonpathogenic virus such as vaccinia
d. grow the virus, isolate the virions, and chemically treat them to inactivate the virus
e. express a recombinant version of a neutralizing viral antigen and inject the turkeys
f. all of the above

A

A. Remove an antigenic capsid protein gene from an attenuated strain without impeding viral replication????

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26
Q

Dr. Gramer described an HI titer > 1:40 to be protective against swine flu virus. What does this mean?

a. pigs with at least 40 antibodies against the HI antigen are protected
b. serum from protected pigs can be diluted at least 40-fold and still inhibit red blood cell hemagglutination by the virus
c. at least 1 in 40 B cells from a pig produce an antibody that binds the virus
d. pigs have sufficient antibody to neutralize at least 40 swine flu strains due to cross-reactivity
e. protected pigs have serum antibodies sufficient to recognize 40 different viral hemagglutinins

A

B. Serum from protected pigs can be diluted at least 40 fold and still inhibit RBC hemagglutination by the virus

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27
Q

Which immune component contributes most directly to atopic dermatitis in dogs?

a. IgG
b. TH17 cells
c. basophils
d. neutrophils
e. TH2 cells
f. TH1 cells

A

E. Th2 Cells

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28
Q

Treg cells mediate aspects of immune tolerance in part by cytokine secretion, including:

a. TNF-α
b. ß-defensins
c. interferon-α/ß
d. IL-6
e. IL-10
f. IL-23

A

E. IL - 10 (and TGF - beta)

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29
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are being incorporated into treatment of cancers. Dr. Husbands discussed one in particular (avastin) that targeted the receptor for VEGF. How does it work?

a. the antibodies directly bind CD3 to activate CTLs specific for VEGF
b. the antibodies directly bind CD3 to activate CTLs specific for VEGF receptor
c. the antibodies promote NK cell activity against tumors
d. they help reduce co-infections associated with immunosuppression in cancer patients
e. the antibodies block angiogenesis necessary for the tumor to grow
f. none of the above

A

E. The antibodies block angiogenesis necessary for the tumor to grow

30
Q

Goblet cells produce which component of the intestinal epithelial cell layer?

a. polyIg receptors
b. intraepithelial lymphocytes
c. defensins
d. mucins
e. lysozyme
f. lamellar bodies

A

D. Mucins

31
Q

Bovine anaplasmosis is a tick-borne infection of great economic importance. Infected animals are often detected serologically for the presence of antibodies using the complement fixation test? If serum from your steer, Hellacious Hugh Jass, is positive for infection, what will the test look like?

a. the serum will convert the clear substrate to a colored byproduct in the test well
b. red blood cells will agglutinate on the slide
c. the red blood cells will lyse
d. a precipitation ring will form around the well in which the serum was placed e. a precipitation line will form between the wells holding Hugh Jass’ serum and the test antigen
f. none of the above

A

h

32
Q

Which T cell population is most important for immunity to parasites? Why? (3 pts)

A

Th2 - because this helps B cells create IgE antibody which is important for mast cells and eosinophils to be able to deal with parasites.

33
Q

Please list three ways that natural killer cells contribute to antiviral immunity. (3 pts)

A
  1. Secretion of cytokines - mainly IFN a/b and TNF a that activate other cells
  2. Ab dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) - many viruses insert their protein on the cell surface as they prepare to bud out. Ab can then attach and then NK cells & macrophages can kill.
  3. Recognize a lack of MHC 1 - and then lyse the cell
34
Q

Please succinctly describe the origin of Treg cells.

A

No.

35
Q

Viruses trigger cells to produce interferons. This in turn activates expression of many genes, including enzymes that contribute to viral resistance or clearance. Please name 4 such enzymes

A

2’5’ OAS = 2’5’ Oligoadenylate Synthetase

PKR = Protein Kinase R

Mx Protein GTPase

APOBEC (ADAR)

36
Q

Please name 4 independent reasons why a vaccine or a vaccination protocol may fail

A

Improper storage

Incorrect adminstration - Inappropriate route, Death of live vaccine, Administerd to passively protected animal

Vaccine given too late, animal already infected

Wrong strain or organism used

Non protective antigens used

Animal fails to respond - Prior passive immunization, Animal immunosuppressed, Biological variation, Inadequate vaccine

37
Q

What are four characteristics of a good veterinary vaccine? Be specific.

A
  1. Cost
  2. Ease of application
  3. Multivalent vaccines
  4. Stability
38
Q

Which term best describes the structure of the placenta that allows maternal IgG antibodies to be transferred to the fetus, as occurs in cats and dogs? (1pt)

a. Endotheliochorial
b. Fibrochorial
c. Epitheliochorial
d. Hemochorial

A

A. Endotheliochorial

39
Q

Which of the animals listed below only obtain systemic protection from maternal antibodies upon nursing? (1pt)

a. cat
b. human
c. cow
d. pelican
e. dog

A

C. Cow

40
Q

Conversion of systemic immunity to intestinal immunity by maternal antibodies is regulated by which process in a newborn horse? (1pt)

a. lactation
b. placental transfer
c. vaccination
d. conversion
e. intestinal permeability

A

E. Intestinal Permeability

41
Q

Which tissue locations do naïve lymphocytes primarily migrate through? (1pt)

a. peripheral tissues, including the skin and gut lining
b. sites of inflammation
c. primary lymphoid organs
d. secondary lymphoid organs
e. bothAandD

A

D. Secondary lymphoid organs

42
Q

What is the benefit of the recirculation pattern of naïve lymphocytes? (1pt)

a. to prevent lymphocytes from all going to one location
b. to prevent hypersensitivity
c. to separate effector lymphocytes from naïve lymphocytes
d. to broadly distribute their diverse antigen recognition capability

A

D. To broadly distribute their diverse antigen recognition capability

43
Q

If a naïve T cell was stimulated by antigen in the Peyer’s patch, what lymphoid compartment would you expect the generated effector T cells to preferentially migrate through? (1pt)

a. gut-associated lymphoid tissue
b. skin-associated lymphoid tissue
c. spleen
d. bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue
e. all secondary lymphoid organs

A

A. Gut-associated lymphoid tissue

44
Q

What might be the benefit of tissue selective trafficking by effector lymphocytes? (1pt)

a. to prevent lymphocytes from all going to one location
b. to prevent chronic inflammation
c. to separate effector lymphocytes from naïve lymphocytes
d. to direct lymphocytes to tissue locations where they most likely will re-encounter antigen
e. none of the above

A

D. To direct lymphocytes to tissue locations where they most likely will re-encounter antigen

45
Q

A metastatic tumor was surgically removed from a 1-year-old cat. The cat was then administered a compound to nonspecifically stimulate the immune response. What term best describes this type of therapy? (1pt)

a. passive immunotherapy
b. immunoediting therapy
c. augmentation
d. chemotherapy

A

C. Augmentation

46
Q

Select the best example of a tumor-specific antigen? (1pt)

a. an oncofetal antigen
b. a protein expressed by a tumor virus
c. a protein expressed by a proto-oncogene
d. a protein expressed by a normal gene

A

B. A protein expressed by a tumor virus

47
Q

Select the best example of a tumor-associated antigen? (1pt)

a. a protein expressed by an oncogene
b. a protein expressed by a proto-oncogene
c. altered glycosylation of a cell surface protein
d. a protein expressed by a normal gene

A

C. Altered glycosylation of a cell surface protein

ALSO, ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS

48
Q

A metastatic tumor was surgically removed from a 3-year-old dog. Lymphokine-activated killer cells were isolated from the tumor, expanded in a medical laboratory, and then re-injected back into the animal. What term best describes this type of therapy? (1pt)

a. passive immunotherapy
b. augmentation
c. active immunotherapy
d. chemotherapy

A

A. Passive immunotherapy

49
Q

Which lymphocytes might best kill tumor cells that do not express MHC? (1pt)

a. macrophages
b. CD8 T cells
c. NK cells
d. B cells

A

C. NK cells

50
Q

Which tumor antigen would you consider to be the best target of CD8 T cells during immunosurveillance? (1pt)

a. protein expressed by a viral gene
b. a protein with altered glycosylation
c. protein expressed by a proto-oncogene
d. all of the above

A

A. Protein expressed by a viral gene

51
Q
  1. Skin contact with an allergen would best be characterized as? (1pt)
    a. atopic dermatitis
    b. Arthus reaction
    c. allergic contact dermatitis
    d. an autoimmune response
A

????

52
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity best describes serum sickness? (1pt)

a. type I hypersensitivity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity

A

C. Type III hypersensitivity

53
Q

A 4-year old guinea pig is being treated for an abdominal infection. A few minutes after intravenous administration of penicillin to treat the infection, the patient becomes lethargic, unresponsive, and dies. Which of the following immunologic disorders most likely occurred? (1pt)

a. type I hypersensitivity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity
e. type II autoimmunity

A

A. Type I hypersensitivity

54
Q

A 4-year old guinea pig is being treated for an abdominal infection. A few minutes after intravenous administration of penicillin to treat the infection, the patient becomes lethargic, unresponsive, and dies. Which of the following immunologic disorders most likely occurred? (1pt) (Question 53 continued) Which immune component most likely contributed to this reaction to penicillin? (1pt)

a. neutrophils
b. NK cells
c. complement
d. IgG
e. IgE

A

E. IgE

55
Q

A 4-year old guinea pig is being treated for an abdominal infection. A few minutes after intravenous administration of penicillin to treat the infection, the patient becomes lethargic, unresponsive, and dies. Which of the following immunologic disorders most likely occurred? (1pt) (Question 53 continued) Which immune component most likely contributed to this reaction to penicillin? (1pt) (Question 53/54 continued) Which term best describes the reaction that occurred in the patient? (1pt)

a. anaphylactic shock
b. septic shock
c. transfusion reaction
d. immune complex formation

A

A. Anaphylactic shock

56
Q

A Lab Technician with a Type I hypersensitivity to latex gloves develops almost immediate redness and swelling of his hands upon putting on the gloves. What ‘amine and peptide’ category of proinflammatory factor is most likely accounting for this reaction? (1pt)

a. IgE
b. cytokines
c. histamine
d. leukotriene
e. prostaglandin

A

C. Histamine

57
Q

A Lab Technician with a Type I hypersensitivity to latex gloves develops almost immediate redness and swelling of his hands upon putting on the gloves. What ‘amine and peptide’ category of proinflammatory factor is most likely accounting for this reaction? (1pt) (Question 56 continued) What cells are most likely to release this proinflammatory factor? (1pt)

a. neutrophils
b. mast cells
c. macrophages
d. NK cells

A

B. Mast cells

58
Q

Your patient is producing an antibody reactive to a receptor on the surface of her own liver cells, and this antibody causes activation of hepatic cells. What terms best describes this situation? (1pt)

a. type II autoimmunity plus antagonistic antibody
b. type II autoimmunity plus agonistic antibody
c. type III hypersensitivity plus agonistic antibody
d. type III autoimmunity plus antagonistic antibody
e. none of the above

A

B. Type II autoimmunity plus agonistic antibody

59
Q

Which skin test would best determine whether a patient had a Type III hypersensitivity to a particular drug? (1pt)

a. Arthus reaction
b. wheal and flare reaction
c. delayed type hypersensitivity
d. scratch test

A

A. Arthus Reaction

60
Q

Which answer best explains the relationship between streptococcal infection and rheumatic fever? (1pt)

a. autoinflammatory disease
b. molecular mimcry
c. type III autoimmunity
d. immune complex formation

A

B. Moleculary mimicry

61
Q

Which is the best example of an autoinflammatory disorder? (1 pt)

a. Crohn’s disease
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. rheumatic fever
d. serum sickness

A

A. Chrohn’s disease

62
Q

What term other than tumor best describes a new growth occurring in an excessive and unregulated manner?

A

Neoplasm

63
Q

What term best describes immunity provided to a fetus or newborn by its mother?

A

Passive Immunity

64
Q

Which mammary gland secretion is most abundant in antibodies?

A

Colostrum

65
Q

A specific term was discussed in class that describes an individual that produces abnormally high levels of IgE antibody (think carefully)?

A

Atopic ????

66
Q

This term describes an active therapy that specifically stimulates the immune system to destroy tumor cells?

A

Vaccination

67
Q

This term describes the multi-step process of tumor induction?

A

Oncogenesis or carinogenesis

68
Q

What ONE WORD term best describes the transfer of immunological experience from the mother to the offspring?

A

Imprinting

69
Q

What are five advantages and one disadvantage of needleless injections for vaccination?

A

Advantages:

  1. Less painful
  2. No risk of dz transfer between individuals
  3. No “sharps” waste
  4. No risk of needle breakage in carcass
  5. Better disbursement of antigen

DISADVANTAGE

More expensive

70
Q
A
71
Q
A

Host Defense (3 decks)

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