Final Exam - Old Test Questions 2010 Flashcards

1
Q

Protein kinase R is an anti-viral enzyme that:

	a. activates the transcription factor NF-kB to induce IFN-α/ß gene expression
	b. stimulates the activational receptors on NK cells
	c. induces isotype switching to favor IgA production
	d. inhibits viral protein synthesis by activating RNase L
	e. is activated following engagement of acute phase protein receptors
	f. none of the above
A

h

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2
Q

A virus could avoid being cleared by the immune system by:

	a. blocking synthesis of MHC class I molecules
	b. producing virokines that suppress Tc activity
	c. preventing peptide processing and transport to the endoplasmic reticulum
	d. disrupting interferon signalling
	e. all of the above
	f. none of the above
A

h

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3
Q

The major disadvantage of passive immunization is that it:

	a. fails to activate VDJ gene rearrangement
	b. is expensive
	c. causes non-specific activation of macrophages
	d. provides short-term immunity
	e. requires species-matched scavenger receptors
A

h

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4
Q

Which pathogen associated molecular pattern is found only in Gram negative organisms?

	a. lipopolysaccharide
	b. flagella
	c. peptidoglycan
	d. unmethylated CpG DNA
	e. teichoic acid(s)
A

h

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5
Q

A bacterium may evade complement action by which mechanism(s)?

	a. secreting toxins that kill lymphocytes
	b. cleaving surface-bound IgG
	c. expression of siderophores
	d. having flagella (being mobile)
	e. b, c, and d only above
A

h

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6
Q

Which enzyme(s) induces mutations in the genome of certain viruses?

	a. elongation factor 1
	b. RNaseL
	c. ADAR-1
	d. Mx proteins 
	e. superoxide disumutase
	f. a and b above
A

h

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7
Q

C reactive protein is an acute phase protein that:

	a. causes hepatocytes to produce IFN-gamma
	b. accelerates Th0 cell maturation into Th1 cells
	c. accelerates Th0 cell maturation into Th2 cells
	d. can opsonize bacteria
	e. accelerates Th0 cell maturation into Th17 cells
	f. none of the above
A

h

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8
Q

Clostridium tetani causes disease due to the presence of tetanospasmin, a toxin that blocks neurotransmitter release. Animals vaccinated with a tetanus toxoid vaccine are resistant to the effects of C. tetani infection through:

	a. TLR-9 signals
	b. enhanced phagocytosis of the bacterium
	c. elimination of the toxin by T cells
	d. toxin neutralization by antibody
	e. mast cell degranulation
	f. CD14
	g. none of the above
A

h

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9
Q

The NOD mouse strain is a good model for studying:

	a. Johne’s disease
	b. cancer metastases
	c. diabetes
	d. atopic dermatitis
	e. the autoimmune component of osteogenesis imperfecta
A

h

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10
Q

A bacterial protein that is used to chelate iron is a:

	a. siderophore
	b. cartmannin
	c. superantigen
	d. ferritin-like apolipoprotein
	e. teichoic acid
	f. catalase
A

h

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11
Q

How do some bacteria escape being killed within the phagolysosome?

	a. they block fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome
	b. they escape into the cytoplasm
	c. some bacteria express superoxide dismutase and/or catalase
	d. they produce cytokine receptor decoys
	e. all of the above
	f. a, b and c only above
A

h

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12
Q

Viruses replicate within cells. How do antibodies help in defense against viruses?

	a. they participate in ADCC
	b. they penetrate into infected host cells and bind to viral proteins
	c. they stimulate expression of Type I interferons
	d. antibodies facilitate mast cell degranulation
	e. none of the above
A

h

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13
Q

Adjuvants promote the immune response against an antigen by:

	a. creating a hapten-carrier complex
	b. prolonging the retention of the antigen in the body
	c. activating acute phase protein production
	d. attenuating the virulence of a live pathogen used for vaccination
	e. all of the above
	f. none of the above
A

h

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14
Q

What is one basis for the effectiveness of IL-2 mediated cytokine therapy for tumors?

	a. activation of antibody VDJ gene rearrangement
	b. acceleration of T cell receptor gene rearrangement
	c. enhancing NK cell function
	d. increasing TLR-9 gene expression and signal transduction
	e. direct inhibition of tumor angiogenesis
A

h

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason for vaccine failure against a pathogen?

	a. the animal encountered a very virulent strain of the pathogen
	b. the vaccine did not stimulate IgA antibodies
	c. the recipient animal was too ill to respond to the vaccine
	d. the vaccination was not performed early enough to permit adaptive immunity to occur
	e. vaccination was against the wrong strain of the organism
A

h

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16
Q

A genetic mutation in which toll-like receptor was associated with susceptibility (or lack of immunity) against Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis?

	a. TLR-2
	b. TLR-3
	c. TLR-4
	d. TLR-9
	e. all of the above
A

h

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17
Q

Which disease is characterized by antibodies against islet cells? __________________________________

A

h

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18
Q

. The inflammatory part of endotoxin is the __________________________________________________________.

A

h

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19
Q

Which pattern receptor(s) specifically recognizes virus derived double-stranded RNA?

A

h

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20
Q

. Name one type of vaccine that is safer than a killed/inactivated vaccine:

A

h

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21
Q

Incomplete Freund’s adjuvant consists of what components?

A

h

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22
Q

Name one way skin contributes to innate immunity:

A

h

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23
Q

Briefly describe the role of eosinophils in defense against parasitic infections. 3 points

A

h

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24
Q

What are three ways that NK cells contribute to immunity against viruses? 3 points

A

h

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25
Q

What are three properties or components of tears and saliva make them antimicrobial? 3 points

A

h

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26
Q

Name two proteins or factors used by CTL cells to kill a tumor cell or virus-infected cell. What other immune cell expresses these proteins? 3 points

A

h

27
Q

List 3 characteristics of an ideal veterinary vaccine. 3 points

A

h

28
Q

Lymphatic fluid enters then exits a secondary lymph organ by which routes?

a. afferent lymphatics then efferent lymphatics
b. capillaries then efferent lymphatics
c. efferent lymphatics then afferent lymphatics
d. post-capillary venules then afferent lymphatics
A

h

29
Q

A naïve T cell primarily recirculates through which type of tissue as it seeks out antigen it can recognize?

a. thymus 
b. primary lymph organs
c. sites of inflammation
d. secondary lymphoid organs
A

h

30
Q

If a naïve T cell encounters antigen presented by a dendritic cell in the Peyer’s patch, becomes an effector T cell, and then eventually enters the blood, according to the lecture on lymphocyte trafficking, which lymphoid compartment would the T cell most likely migrate into?

a. GALT 
b. BALT
c. SALT
d. ZALT
e. NALT
A

h

31
Q

At what location do lymphocytes in a secondary lymphoid organ tend to escape the blood vessels to enter the tissue?

a. capillaries 
b. arteries
c. post-capillary venules
d. lymphatics
A

h

32
Q

Which vessel returns lymphocytes back to the heart?

a. capillaries 
b. arteries
c. thoracic duct
d. venules
A

h

33
Q

Which lymphocytes would be most likely to enter a site of infection in the skin?

a. naïve lymphocytes 
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. effector lymphocytes
A

h

34
Q

Which process would most likely result in a type II hypersensitivity?

a. anaphylactic shock
b. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. anti-venom 
d. blood transfusion reaction
A

h

35
Q

What cell in tissue is best suited for releasing histamine upon antigen binding to cell surface IgE?

a. mast cell
b. neutrophil 
c. basophil 
d. platelet
e. macrophage
A

h

36
Q

Skin contact with metals such as nickel resulting in T cell sensitization can result in an immune reaction best described as?

a. autoinflammatory disease
b. lupus
c. atopic dermatitis
d. allergic contact dermatitis
A

h

37
Q

Which skin test would be most appropriate for a patient with a Type IV hypersensitivity?

a. delayed-type hypersensitivity test
b. contact reaction
c. arthus reaction
d. wheal and flare test
A

h

38
Q

Which immune disorder is most appropriate for immediate clinical manifestations?

a. type III hypersensitivity
b. type III autoimmunity
c. type II hypersensitivity
d. type I hypersensitivity
A

h

39
Q

Type I diabetes is an example of which type of immune disorder?

a. type IV autoimmunity 
b. type III autoimmunity
c. type I hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity
A

h

40
Q

What term best describes an individual that produces excessive levels of IgE antibody?

a. rheumatoid factor
b. atopic
c. arthus reaction
d. apoptotic
A

h

41
Q

What immune component is more characteristic of a type IV hypersensitivity than a type III hypersensitivity?

a. mast cell
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. T cell
A

h

42
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of which type of immune disorder?

a. type III hypersensitivity
b. type III autoimmunity
c. type II autoimmunity
d. type II hypersensitivity
A

h

43
Q

Graves disease and Myasthenia gravis are examples of what type of immune disorder?

a. type III hypersensitivity
b. type III autoimmunity
c. type II autoimmunity
d. type II hypersensitivity
A

h

44
Q

The transfer of immunity from mother to fetus or newborn is best described as?

a. active immunity
b. tolerance
c. immunization
d. passive immunity
A

h

45
Q

What process is most characteristic of type III hypersensitivity?

a. rheumatoid factor
b. antibody recognition of a cell-associated antigen
c. immune complex formation
d. wheal and flare
A

h

46
Q

Which cellular gene would not produce a tumor-specific antigen?

a. oncogene
b. proto-oncogene 
c. mutated non-oncogene 
d. expressed silent gene
A

h

47
Q

A fetus in what animal receives only about 5-10% of maternal antibodies?

a. cat
b. human
c. cow 
d. horse
A

h

48
Q

Crohn’s disease is an example of what type of immune disorder?

a. autoimmunity
b. hypersensitivity
c. autoinflammatory 
d. tumor induction
A

h

49
Q

. What is the common feature of the antigen recognized by autoreactive antibodies during Graves disease and Myasthenia gravis?

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

50
Q

. What one or two word term best describes the similarity between self-antigen and foreign antigen resulting in cross-reactive antibodies?

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

51
Q

. These antigens are normally not seen by the immune system and tissue damage/inflammation may cause their release, resulting in autoimmunity.

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

52
Q

Name two routes a lymphocyte could enter a secondary lymphoid organ.

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

53
Q

. If a pregnant cow happened to make antibodies reactive with her fetus’s red blood cells, why would this not result in hemolytic disease in the fetus?

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

54
Q

An antibody against a tumor-specific antigen with an attached toxin administered to a patient to enhance tumor cell killing is best referred to as what type of therapy.

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

55
Q

What term best describes the foreign antigen responsible for type I (immediate) hypersensitivity?

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

h

56
Q

A patient develops anti-red blood cell antibodies after a blood transfusion. Which type of reaction is most appropriate?

i) a. hypersensitivity
b. autoimmunity
c. autoinflammatory
ii) Which classification is most appropriate?
a. type I
b. type III
c. type IV
d. type II

A

h

57
Q

After intravenous injection of a drug a patient demonstrates no adverse reactions. A week later, the same drug is administered in the same manner and organ failure followed by death occurs within a matter of minutes.

i) What term best describes the clinical manifestation that occurred?
a. transfusion reaction
b. wheal and flare reaction
c. arthus reaction
d. anaphylaxis
ii) What term best describes the immunological process that occurred during the patient’s first exposure to the drug?
a. neutralization
b. sensitization
c. vaccination
d. opsonization

A

h

58
Q

Upon repeated exposure to insecticides in a flea collar, the patient develops a rash around her neck typically a day after a new flea collar is used.

i) Which type of immune disorder most likely occurred?
a. type III hypersensitivity
b. type IV hypersensitivity
c. type III autoimmunity
d. type I hypersensitivity
ii) What immune component would most likely be involved?
a. IgG
b. B cells
c. IgE
d. T cells
e. macrophages

A

h

59
Q

. A brain tumor was surgically removed from a 10-year-old dog named Batman. Afterwards, a gene encoding INFγ was injected around the perimeter of the tumor area, and then a solution containing tumor cells from the removed tissue is injected into the dog.

i) What term best describes this type of immunotherapy?
a. active therapy
b. surgical therapy
c. passive therapy
d. physical therapy
ii) For this therapy, which term is most appropriate?
a. augmentation
b. vaccination

A

h

60
Q

A patient demonstrates a skin rash and joint pains after intravenous administration of a drug. A skin test using the same drug reveals swelling and redness a couple hours after the injection.

i) Which immune disorder is most appropriate?
a. type II autoimmunity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV autoimmunity
ii) What is this best description of the skin test performed?
a. contact hypersensitivity
b. delayed-type hypersensitivity
c. Arthus reaction
d. wheal and flare

A

h

61
Q

. What leukocyte is most responsible for the immediate vascular effects occurring during a type I hypersensitivity reaction in the skin?

i) a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. connective tissue mast cell
d. mucosal mast cell
ii) What component from the adaptive immune system would this cell most likely engage through a receptor?
a. IgG
b. complement
c. immune complex
d. IgE

A

h

62
Q

. During granulomatous hypersensitivity, what leukocytes tend to make up the center of the granuloma?

i) a. macrophage
b. neutrophils
c. B cells
d. NK T cells
ii) What type of hypersensitivity is most appropriate?
a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

A

h

63
Q

A patient develops a tumor that is characterized by its expression of oncofetal antigens and lack of MHC class I molecules. What term best describe an oncofetal antigen? What lymphocyte might best detect these tumor cells?

A

h