Final Exam Note Cards Flashcards
Which of the following is not a function of blood:
a. produces plasma hormones
b. helps stabilize pH of extracellular fluids
c. helps regulate body temperature
d. participates in initiation of blood clotting
e. transports variety of nutrients
a. produces plasma hormones
A normal hematocrit is _____ of the total blood volume
37-52%
Which of the following proteins is the most abundant in plasma?
a. albumin
b. prothrombin
c. transferrin
d. hemoglobin
e. fibrinogen
albumin
the main function of erythrocytes is to__
transport oxygen
most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to ___
choose from:
alpha chains, heme groups, plasma membrane, beta chains, delta chains
heme groups in hemoglobin
A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type _____ and can receive RBCs from someone of type ____
AB; O
A person with type AB blood has ____ RBC antigen
A and B
The universal donor of RBCs is blood type
O, Rh-negative
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has ____ antigen(s) and can produce anti-_____ antibodies
B and D; A
The number of _____ typically increases in response to bacterial infections
neutrophils
which cells aid in the body’s defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin
basophils
a patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than ____ WBCs
10,000
when a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by
plasmin
select the correct statement about heart valves:
a. the mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
b. the atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction
c. the tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle
d. aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart
b. the atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction
The plateau in action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of _____
slow Ca2+ channels
What is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle
choices include sequences of:
isovolumetric contraction,
isovolumetric relaxation,
ventricular ejection,
ventricular filling
ventricular filling –> isovolumetric contraction —> ventricular ejection —> isovolumetric relaxation
What route of blood flow is correct?
Choices include sequences of:
aerteriole, capillary, venule, heart
conducting artery,
distributing artery,
heart, large vein,
medium vein
heart —> conducting artery —> distributing artery –> arteriole —> arteriole —> capillary —-> venule —-> medium vein —>large vein —> heart
permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ___
capillaries
the receiving chambers of the heart include the _____
right and left atria
the fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it _____
pumps blood against a greater resistance
which of the following receive blood during ventricular systole
Choices include:
aorta only, pulmonary arteries only, both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.
a. the heart chambers are lined by endomysium
b. connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential
c. fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart
d. myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts
d. myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts
Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the ____
Choices include the types of connections of adjacent cells.
gap junctions
The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the ____
cardiac output
congestive heart failure of the right ventricle _____
Choices include what it can result from it.
can cause systemic edema
isovolumetric contraction occurs during the _____ of the electrocardiogram
R- Wave
Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body
veins
This has the most important effect on blood velocity (flow)
Choices include physical properties of the blood and vessels.
vessel radius
where is the vasomotor center located
medulla oblongata
what is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary
blood hydrostatic pressure
what is taken up by the capillaries at their venous end
waste products
the direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial ____
anastomosis
after the precapillary sphincter (closed), blood enters
thoroughfare channel
leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of _____
pluripotent stem cells
what are the most abundant agranulocytes
lymphocytes
what is the most abundant extracellular cation
Na
In the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the:
Choices include permeability of different segments.
thick segment is impermeable to water but permeable to NA and Cl ions
follicles are located in
ovarian cortex
a patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to diabetic ketoacidosis. His kidneys are damaged due to diabetes mellitus. What his body can do to normalize the blood pH.
hyperventilation
which hormone is most important for the development of secondary sex characteristics in females
estrogen
in which phase the functional layer of the endometrium is rebuilt
proliferative
this stage is associated with enrichment of blood supply and grandular secretion of nutrients which prepare the endometrium to receive the embryo
secretory
if fertilization occurs, the _____ is maintained because the embryo secretes ____
corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
during which phase of ovarian hormones are at lowest levels
menstrual
which phase is more constant time wise
secretory
which one is the fully mature follicle
vesicular
inability to expel milk from breasts is due to;
low levels of oxytocin
during the follicular phase, granulosa cells produce and secrete_____. This results in stimulation and secretion of ______
estrogen; LH
which hormone is important for breast milk synthesis
prolactin
fertilization usually takes place in
ampulla of uterine tube
this structure contains theca folliculi, granulosa cells, zona pellucida, and a secondary oocyte
Choices include phases of the ovarian follicle.
secondary follicle
where exactly is the embryo’s attachment site
endometrium
the ovulated egg is found in this stage of meiosis
metaphase II
after ovulation, the follicle becomes ____ and secretes ___
corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone
which hormone triggers ovulation
LH
Regarding the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle, which of the following is correct:
a. follicle secretes progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation
b. increased levels of estrogen contribute to follicle development
c. increasing estrogen levels stimulate LH surge and release
d. LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte
c. increasing estrogen levels stimulate LH surge and release
three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. one comes from an unequal division of the ovum. Where do the other two arise from?
the first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies
True or False
the testis is divided into seminiferous tubules. These contain lobules. Lobules produce sperm and the ejaculatory duct that allows sperm to be ejected
False
which statement is false?
a. mitosis results in diploid cells. meiosis results in haploid cells.
b. mitosis produces genetically identical cells. meiosis produces genetically unique cells.
c. mitosis produces 4 cells. meiosis produces 2 cells.
d. mitosis occurs throughout the entire lifetime. meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty.
c. mitosis produces 4 cells. meiosis produces 2 cells.
which statement is NOT correct?
a. testosterone stimulates protein synthesis
b. testosterone stimulates the HPG axis
c. testosterone contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
d. testosterone stimulates the male pattern of development
b. testosterone stimulates the HPG axis
what is the correct order of structures that sperm moves through from its development to ejaculation?
Choices include sequences of:
ductus deferns, epididymis,
ejaculatory duct,
rete testis, urethra,
seminiferous tubule
seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
the product of this gland serves as a lubricant and neutralizes any traces of acidity in urethra
bulbo-urethral
the product of this gland fluoresces with UV light
seminal
true or false: ejaculation is under the parasympathetic system control
false
the hormone ______ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to produce and release _____
LH; testosterone
with regard to the blood-testis-barrier, which of the following is true?
a. helps maintain testis temp at 37 degrees C
b. prevents heat loss from testes
c. helps maintain testis temperature at 35 degrees C
d. prevents blood from getting to the testes
e. blocks plasma antibodies to get into germ cells
e. blocks plasma antibodies to get into germ cells
which part of the mature sperm cells contain hydrolytic enzymes that help sperm to penetrate the egg
head
when do the testes start producing testosterone
in the first trimester of fetal development
metabolic alkalosis can be caused by
vomiting and loss of acidic stomach contents
for which imbalance is the release of adh appropriate
fluid and electrolyte imbalance
in this blood sample it was found: elevated arterial PCO2 level and a low blood PH. Determine the acid-base imbalance
respiratory acidosis
in this blood sample it was found: elevated blood pH and elevated bicarbonate ion level. determine the acid base imbalance.
metabolic alkalosis
hypoventilation can cause
respiratory acidosis
which system is responsible for the most common route of water loss from body
urinary
which hormone promotes the reabsorption of water from the kidneys back into the ecf by osmosis
ADH
accumulation of interstitial fluid is called
edema
which hormones are responsible for increasing sodium ion retention
angiotensin II and aldosterone
what is the effect of hypokalemia on resting membrane potential
it causes hyperpolarization of the membrane potential
why are chlorine ions important
they are involved in the production of stomach acid
through which two systems is CO2 eliminated from the body
respiratory and urinary systems
determine the product formed when H ions from a strong acid are accepted by the bicarbonate ion
carbonic acid
the trigone of the urinary bladder is created by
the openings to the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice
all statements are true for urine EXCEPT:
a. yellow color
b. pH 3.0
c. mild odor
d. translucency
B. pH 3.0
What’s the purpose of countercurrent mechanism in the nephron loop
creates a steep concentration gradient for continued water reabsorption
regarding ADH, which one is true:
a. promotes water loss and increases urine output
b. causes the kidneys to produce very dilute urine
c. it is secreted in response to low potassium ions in the blood
d. increases the permeability of the late distal tubule and cortical collecting ducts to water
d. increases the permeability of the late distal tubule and cortical collecting ducts to water
what is the mechanism for reabsorbing glucose from the filtrate into the cells of the PCT
secondary active transport
the functional unit of the kidney is
nephron
renal pyramids are located in
renal medulla
urine drains from a major calyx into
renal pelvis
a glomerulus is
a set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle
where does blood in the arcuate artery travel next on its journey toward the glomerulus
cortical radiate artery
which hormone suppresses uterine contractions
progesterone
place these vessels in the correct order as blood flows into and through the kidney:
- afferent arteriole
- arcuate artery
- efferent arteriole
- glomerulus
- interlobar artery
- cortical radiate artery
- renal artery
- segmental artery
7, 8 , 5, 2 , 6, 1, 4 , 3
- renal artery
- segmental artery
- interlobar artery
- arcuate artery
- cortical radiate artery
- afferent arteriole
- glomerulus
- efferent arteriole
macula densa and granular cells are found in
juxtaglomerular apparatus
what should NOT be found in filtrate
plasma proteins
during pregnancy which hormone secreted by both blastocyst and placenta is used to be tested by home pregnancy test kits
hCg
the main force that promotes filtration in a nephron is
Choices include various pressures.
GHP - Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure
Embryo is considered
Choices include time frames in days and weeks.
from day 16 through week 8
the total amount of kilocalories the body must consume to fuel all ongoing activities which increases dramatically during physical exertion, is called the ____. It is a baseline or standard of comparison that minimizes effects of activity, feeding, and hormone levels while being relaxed, awake, fasting, comfortable at room tempature
basal metabolic rate (BMR)
which lipoprotein transports mostly cholesterol but also other lipids to body cells
low density lipoprotein or LDL
the process of making glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as fats, glycerol, proteins and amino acids is known as
gluconeogenesis
fat oxidation products can acidify the blood, a condition known as
acidosis or ketoacidosis
which event of cellular respiration is the biggest payoff step in which 26-28 ATP are produced
electron transport chain
the major fuel for making ATP in most cells of the body is a type of carbohydrate known as
glucose
_____ refers to all chemical reactions necessary to maintain life
metabolism
the energy value of foods is measured in units called ____
kilocalories or calories
which of the following is not a major class of nutrients:
water
carbohydrates
nucleic acids
vitamins
minerals
nucleic acids
first step in using amino acids as fuel is to _____ them
deaminate
fatty acids are catabolized through which process
beta oxidation
most of the fat in the body is stored in what form
triglycerides
the inner membrane of a mitochondrion contains the protein ____, which harnesses the energy created by H+ flow to produce ATP by a process called _____.
ATP synthase; the chemiosmotic mechanism
glycolysis and aerobic respiration collectively produce up to ______ ATP per glucose, whereas anaerobic fermentation produces _____.
32; 2
what process produces most of the NADH that contributes to ATP synthesis in the cell
the citric acid cycle
_____ are short term regulators of appetite , whereas ______ is a long term regulator
Choices include combinations of:
CKK, Insulin,
Leptin, peptide YY
peptide YY (PYY) and cholecystokinin (CCK); insulin
_____ yield about 4 kcal/g when completely oxidized, whereas ____ yield about 9 kcal/g.
proteins and carbohydrates; fats
which of the following is the healthiest ration of triglycerides:
a. high HDL; low LDL
b. high LDL; low HDL
c. high LDL; low chylomicron
d. high SFA; low HDL
e. high chylomicron; low LDL
high HDL; low LDL
food that you have swallowed comes in contact with the
Choices include layers of the digestive tract.
mucosa
the two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the _____
submucosa and myenteric
which sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into small intestine
pyloric
what do chief cells of the stomach produce
protein digesting enzymes
intrinsic factor, produced by cells in stomach, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin ____ in the small intestine
B12
what are the fingerlike projections of the small intestine that increase the absorptive surface area
villi
bile is formed by the ____ and stored in the _____
liver; gallbladder
which of the following gives the small intestine a fuzzy appearance known as the brush border
microvilli
the portion of the tooth embedded in the jawbone is the _____
root
a drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin (cck) would affect
pancreatic secretions
in response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid that contains
bicarbonate
decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of
fat
which is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract
muscularis externa, mucosa, serosa, submucosa
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
chief cells secrete
pepsinogen
in the digestive system, HCl is released by _____, whereas HCO3- (bicarbonate) secreted primarily from the ____
parietal cells of the stomach; pancreas
nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the
small intestine
amylases, the enzymes u sed to digest carbohydrates, are secreted by
salivary glands into mouth and the pancreas into the intestine
functions of the large intestine include
absorption of water and production of feces
during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,
a. the stomach responds to distention
b. secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells
c. there are increased action potentials along the vagus nerve to stomach
d. the intestine reflexively inhibits gastric emptying
e. production of gastric juice is inhibited
there are increased action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach
the upper respiratory tract includes all EXCEPT which of the following?
a. nasal cavity
b. lungs
c. larynx
d. mouth
b. lungs
the sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
alveoli
place the following structures of the respiratory tree in the order in which air passes through them.
- secondary bronchi
- bronchioles
- primary bronchi
- alveoli
- terminal bronchioles
3, 1, 2, 5, 4
- primary bronchi
- secondary bronchi
- bronchioles
- terminal bronchioles
- alveoli
type I alveolar cells
allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes
dalton’s law states that
in a mixture of gases like air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in mixture
boyle’s law states that gas volume is
inversely proportional to pressure
a typical value for intrapleural pressure is approximately _____ cm H2O
-5
if a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any more, the amount of air that he expelled in his
vital capacity
the most important chemical regulator of respiration is
carbon dioxide
the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately ______ mm Hg
100
the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the cells of peripheral tissues is approximately ____ mm Hg
46
Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
bound to hemoglobin
most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
part of the bicarbonate system
hypocapnia will lead to which of the following conditions
hypoventilation due to alkalosis
which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers
VRG
normally, the systemic arterial blood has a PO2 of ______ mm Hg, a PCO2 of ______ mm Hg and a pH of _____
95; 40; 7.4
PO2 of 95 mmHg
PCO2 of 40 mmHg
pH of 7.4
in the air we breathe, which gas is found in the highest concentration
nitrogen
which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air
Choices include increasing:
alveolar surface area,
membrane thickness,
respiratory rate,
Choices include decreasing:
membrane thickness,
nitrogen solubility
an increase in membrane thickness
in a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influences on resistance to pulmonary airflow
bronchiole diameter
which of the following cartilages is largest
Choices include:
arytenoid, corniculate,
cricoid, epiglottic,
thyroid
thyroid cartliage
which is NOT matched correctly:
a. innate immunity - nonspecific responses
b. adaptive immunity - responses directed toward specific invaders
c. active immunity - an immune response started and developed by the cells
d. active adaptive immunity - immunity passed through the placenta or milk to offspring
d. active adaptive immunity - immunity passed through the placenta or milk to offspring
the largest lymphoid organ is the _____
spleen
______ are clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine
peyer’s patches
which are NOT antigen presenting cells (APCs):
a. lymphocytes
b. dendritic cells
c. macrophages
d. neutrophils
neutrophils
which is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity:
a. cell-mediated immunity
b. nonspecific immunity
c. humoral immunity
d. acquired immunity
nonspecific immunity
a substance that induces fever is known as a
pyrogen
the cells responsible for the production of circulating antibodies are
plasma cells
the cells responsible for cell mediated immunity are the
t lymphocytes
which acts as first line of defense against pathogens
skin
an inflammatory response is trigged when
mast cells release granules containing histamine
lymphocytes that attack body cells infected with viruses are
cytotoxic t cells
cells that help to influence other immune cells, coordinating both cellular and humoral immunity, are
helper T cells
________ is the immunoglobulin class that make up approx. 80% of antibodies in adult blood
IgG
Immunoglobulins in early responses to pathogens are
IgM
the specificity of an antibody against an antigenic epitope is determined by the
variable region
when an antigen fragment is bound to a MHC class I molecule to form a MHC I antigen complex, it can stimulate a
cytotoxic t cell
a patient has increased neutrophils and macrophages with normal levels of basophils, eosinophils and lymphocytes. Which is the most likely cause of these test results?
a chronic bacterial infection
HIV-1 causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects and kills
helper T cells
(BLUE)
Name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) superior mesenteric artery
c) inferior mesenteric vein
d) splenic artery
e) splenic vein
f) superior mesenteric vein
c) inferior mesenteric vein
Using the figure shown, match the following with a letter - Blood type O
D
(RED)
Name the vessel marked eith a question mark
a) popliteal vein
b) popliteal artery
c) anterior tibial artery
d) external iliac vein
e) femoral vein
f) femoral artery
b) popliteal artery
Using the figure match the following with a letter: poingt that represents the “dupp” sound made
E
Using the figure shown match the following with a letter: Pectinate muscles
B
The capillary type shown in the photo is:
a) continuous
b) fenestrated
c) sinusoid
d) discontinuous
b) fenestrated
Using the figure match up the following with a letter: Atrioventricular (AV) node
B
(RED)
Name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) Renal artery
c) superior mesenteric vein
d) superior mesenteric artery
e) gonadal artery
f) renal vein
a) inferior mesenteric artery
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) axillary artery
b) axillary vein
c) subscapular vein
d) brachial artery
e) brachial vein
f) subscapular artery
d) brachial artery
(BLUE)
name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) femoral vein
b) external iliac artery
c) great saphenous vein
d) femoral artery
e) external iliac vein
f) great saphenous artery
c) great saphenous vein
What is the specific name of the cell labelled E in the photo?
a) monocyte
b) neutrophil
c) basophil
d) red blood cell
e) Eosinophil
f) Lymphocyte
f) lymphocyte
Using the figure match the following with a letter: Right AV Valve
C
What is the specific name of the cell labelled B in the photo?
a) basophil
b) red blood cell
c) neutrophil
d) leukocyte
e) eosinophil
f) monocyte
e) eosinophil
using th efigure match the following with a letter: Left Ventricle
K
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) popliteal vein
b) external iliac artery
c) internal iliac artery
d) popliteal artery
e) superior gluteal artery
f) internal iliac vein
b) external iliac artery
Using the picture math the following with a letter: atrioventricular (AV) bundle
C
Using the figure, match the following with a letter: universal donor
D
using the figure match the following with a letter: Tendinous chords (chordae tendinae)
D
What is the specific name of the cell labelled G?
a) platelet
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) monocyte
e) leukocyte
f ) basophil
b) neutrophil
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) vertebral artery
b) external corotid vein
c) internal carotid artery
d) external carotid artery
e) common carotid artery
f) vertebral vein
c) internal carotid artery
using the figure match the following with a letter: papillary muscle
L
Using the picture match the following with a letter: blood type A
B
what is the specific name of the cell labelled I in the photo?
a) basophil
b) neutrophil
c) eosinophil
d) leukocyte
e) red blood cell
f) monocyte
a) basophil
Using the figure match the following with a letter: purkinje fibers
E
Using the figure match the following with a letter: Atrial depolarization
A
using the figure match the following with a letter: aortic valve
I
(BLUE)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) brachiocephalic vein
b) external jugular vein
c) internal jugular artery
d) subclavian vein
e) subclavian artery
f) brachiocephalic artery
a) brachiocephalic vein
(BLUE)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) femoral vein
b) great saphernous artery
c) great saphernous vein
d) femoral artery
e) popliteal artery
f) external iliac artery
a) femoral vein
(RED)
Name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) celiac trunk
c) middle suprarenal artery
d) inferior phrenic artery
e) gonadal artery
f) superior mesenteric artery
b) celiac trunk
using the figure match the following with a letter: pulmonary trunk
F
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) subscapular vein
b) suprascapular artery
c) posterior circumflex humeral artery
d) axillary vein
e) axillary artery
f) ulnar vein
e) axillary artery
(RED) name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) subclavian vein
b) external carotid vein
c) axillary artery
d) common carotid artery
e) subclavian artery
f) brachiocephalic trunk
e) subclavian artery
The circulatory route shown in the photo is:
a) portal system
b) complex pathway
c) simplest pathway
d) arteriovenous anastomosis
d) arteriovenous anastomosis
what is the specific name of the cell labelled F in the photo?
a) neutrophil
b) leukocyte
c) red blood cell
d) eosinophil
e) basophil
f) monocyte
a) neutrophil
(BLUE)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) basilic artery
b) Ulnar vein
c) basilic vein
d) radial vein
e) radial artery
f) ulnar artery
c) basilic vein
using the figure match the following with a letter: ventricular polarization
E
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) basilic artery
b) ulnar vein
c) ulnar artery
d) radial vein
e) radial artery
f) basilic vein
c) ulnar artery
using the figure match the following with a letter: pulmonary valve
G
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark in the photo
a) inferior mesenteric artery
b) superior mesenteric artery
c) superior mesenteric vein
d) splenic artery
e) inferior phrenic artery
f) hepatic portal artery
b) superior mesenteric artery
(RED)
name the vessel marked with a question mark
a) subclavian vein
b) common carotid vein
c) internal carotid vein
d) superior vena cava
e) common carotid artery
f) subclavian artery
e) common carotid artery
use the figure to match the following with a letter: Peritubular capillaries
C
Using the photo below, identify the structure labelled 4
a) renal pelvis
b) renal column
c) major calyx
d) ureter
e) minor calyx
e) minor calyx
Use the figure to match the following with a letter: Early spermatids
E
in the figure below which curve represents progesterone (A,B or C)
C
use the figure to match the following with a letter: primary spermatocyte
C
using the figure, match the following with a letter: Bulbo-urethral gland
D
using the figure, match the following with a letter: ejaculatory duct
E
using the figure, match the following with a letter: seminal gland
F
use the figure to match the following with a letter: proximal tubule
B
use the figure to match the following with a letter: seminiferous tubule
D
use the figure to match the following with a letter: Vasa Recta
G
Use the figure to match the following with a letter: Vas (ductus deferens)
E
