FINAL EXAM- NEUROPHYS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following about synaptic neurotransmission is false?

A. a metabotropic receptor is not attached to an ion channel
B. an ionotropic receptor is attached to an ion channel
C. the neurotransmitter determines whether the postsynaptic effect will be excitatory or inhibitory
D. graded potentials result from the summation of postsynaptic effects derived from single terminals activated at high frequency and multiple terminals activated simultaneously
E.a postsynaptic depolarisation that does not reach the action potential threshold will be drained by the leak channels to restore the resting potential

A

C. the neurotransmitter determines whether the postsynaptic effect will be excitatory or inhibitory

{!the sign of the postsynaptic effect is determined by the ion selectivity of the ligand-gated channel!}

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2
Q

Which of the following does not form part of the peripheral nervous system?

A. autonomic nerves
B. cranial nerves
C. spinal cord
D. efferent nerves
E. afferent nerves
A

C. spinal cord

  • part of the CNS
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3
Q

Which of the following about neuronal circuits is false?

A. the principles of synaptic transmission are different for spinal circuits producing reflexes and cerebral cortex circuits producing voluntary functions

B. neuronal circuits include only neurons connected through synapses

C. a diverging circuit will share information will several targets

D. a converging circuit will combine information from several sources

E. a reverberating circuit will hold information in memory

A

A. the principles of synaptic transmission are different for spinal circuits producing reflexes and cerebral cortex circuits producing voluntary functions

{!the principles are the same but the connectivity differs!}

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4
Q

A presynaptic terminal releases neurotransmitter that binds to a postsynaptic receptor which then opens a channel selective for sodium ions. Which of the following would be expected to occur as a result?

A. an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron

B. hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic neuron

C. depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron

D. leak channels would close

E. cleavage of the neurotransmitter within the postsynaptic sodium channel

A

C. depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron

  • {!sodium ions move from its high extracellular concentration through the open channel and into the postsynaptic cell where the addition of these positively charged sodium ions leads to a more positive membrane voltage called a depolarization!}
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5
Q

Which of the following about chemical synaptic transmission is false?

A. neurotransmitter release onto a postsynaptic cell always produces a depolarization

B. a single presynaptic terminal stimulated twice in rapid succession could produce temporal summation

C. two presynaptic terminals stimulated simultaneously could produce spatial summation

D. leak channels oppose depolarization of the membrane potential

E. leak channels oppose hyperpolarization of the membrane potential

A

A. neurotransmitter release onto a postsynaptic cell always produces a depolarization

  • {!no, it can produce a depolarization (opening of sodium channels), a hyperpolarization (opening of potassium channels) or nothing (opening of chloride channels when the cell is resting at -70 mV)!}
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6
Q

The resources for learning the neurophysiology objectives of this course include a reference textbook and the materials provided by the professor, namely, PowerPoint slides with images and notes to be delivered in class and formative or practice exam questions. The sommative or final exam questions will be based on what resources?

A. final exam questions will be based only on the reference textbook

B. final exam questions will be based on all the resources mentioned for the course

C. final exam questions will be based on all the resources mentioned for the course and the extra content mentioned in class to answer student questions or to provide greater understanding

D. final exam questions will be based on the notes under each image of the PowerPoint slides

E.final exam questions will be based on all the information in the images and notes of the PowerPoint slides

A

D. final exam questions will be based on the notes under each image of the PowerPoint slides

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7
Q

Which of the following statements about the electrical properties of neurons is false?

A.no ion currents flow through the membrane in a neuron at rest

B. the Na/K-ATPase pump must remove accumulating sodium and replenish potassium to maintain concentration gradients of these ions

C. the equilibrium potential of sodium is defined as the membrane potential where there is no net movement of sodium in or out of the cell

D. the sodium ion gradient is from the extracellular to the intracellular space

E. the potassium ion gradient is from the intracellular to the extracellular space

A

A.no ion currents flow through the membrane in a neuron at rest

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8
Q

Which of the following is the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

A. glutamate
B. acetylcholine
C. norepinephrine
D. serotonin
E. GABA
A

B. acetylcholine

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9
Q

Which of the following about synaptic transmission is false?

A. membrane depolarisation directly triggers synaptic vesicle release of neurotransmitters

B. neurotransmitter effects are terminated by enzyme cleavage in the synaptic cleft and endocytosis by the axon terminal

C. action potential causes opening of voltage-dependant calcium channels in the axon terminal

D. neurotransmitters diffuse freely in the extracellular space of the synaptic cleft

E. neurotransmitters bind to receptors of ligand-gated channels which cause channel opening and postsynaptic-potential generation

A

A. membrane depolarisation directly triggers synaptic vesicle release of neurotransmitters

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10
Q

Which of the following about synaptic neurotransmission is false?

A. the neurotransmitter determines whether the postsynaptic effect will be excitatory or inhibitory

B. graded potentials result from the summation of postsynaptic effects derived from single terminals activated at high frequency and multiple terminals activated simultaneously

C. a postsynaptic depolarisation that does not reach the action potential threshold will be drained by the leak channels to restore the resting potential

D. a metabotropic receptor is not attached to an ion channel

E. an ionotropic receptor is attached to an ion channel

A

A. the neurotransmitter determines whether the postsynaptic effect will be excitatory or inhibitory

  • {!the sign of the postsynaptic effect is determined by the ion selectivity of the ligand-gated channel!}
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11
Q

Thin hairy skin has many different types of sensory receptors such as mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors and nociceptors. Which of the following statements is false concerning the consequences of a third-degree burn which completely damaged these sensory receptors in a 1 cm radius of skin?

A. undamaged mechanorecptors surrounding the burned skin would respond normally to touch

B. damaged mechanoreceptors in the center of the burned skin would not respond to touch

C. damaged thermoreceptors in the center of the burned skin would not respond to temperature changes

D. damaged nociceptors in the center of the burned skin would send impulses to the CNS for pain perception

E. undamaged nociceptors surrounding the burned skin would not send impulses to the CNS for pain perception

A

D. damaged nociceptors in the center of the burned skin would send impulses to the CNS for pain perception

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of sensory receptors?

A. it is possible to apply a stimulus that is too weak for the sensory receptor to produce an action potential

B. the strength of the stimulus can be determined by the frequency of action potentials

C. sensory receptors transduce the energy of the stimulus (e.g. mechanical force) into electrical energy (e.g. membrane depolarisation)

D. a receptor potential is always produced before an action potential

E. depolarization of a receptor always produces an action potential

A

E. depolarization of a receptor always produces an action potential

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13
Q

The Pacinian corpuscles are:

A. visceroceptors
B. exteroceptors
C. proprioceptors
D. nociceptors
E. thermoceptors
A

A. visceroceptors

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14
Q

Which of the following is true about sensory receptor adaptation?

A. pain receptors adapt quickly to signal tissue damage

B. sensory receptor adaptation is an increase in receptor sensitivity with repeated stimuli

C. sensory receptor adaptation is a drop in the action potential frequency despite a constant stimulus

D. sensory receptor adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity with repeated stimuli

E. a phasic receptor displays adaptation whereas a tonic receptor shows no adaptation

A

C. sensory receptor adaptation is a drop in the action potential frequency despite a constant stimulus

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15
Q

Which of the following is false concerning Pacinian receptors?

A. they show little adaptation

B. their maximal action potential frequency is proportional to the strength of the stimulus

C. they are exteroceptors

D. they are mechanoreceptors

E. they are simple receptors

A

A. they show little adaptation

  • {!they show large adaptation!}
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16
Q

Which of the following about sensory receptors is false?

A. sensory receptors are classified according to the anatomical location (e.g. exteroceptor)

B. sensory receptors are classified according to the stimulus (e.g. mechanoreceptor)

C. sensory receptors are classified according to the complexity of the structure (e.g. simple receptor)

D. only the receptors of the special senses are classified as having a complex structure

E. a Pacinian corpuscle is classified as either an exteroceptor, a mechanoreceptor or a simple receptor but not all three classifications

A

E. a Pacinian corpuscle is classified as either an exteroceptor, a mechanoreceptor or a simple receptor but not all three classifications

  • {!every receptor has 3 classifications!}
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17
Q

Which of the following statements about taste is true?

A. umami (savory) is not considered one of the fundamental flavors

B. single taste chemoreceptors are called papilla

C. a single taste chemoreceptor can detect sweet, sour or any of the other flavors and send this information to the CNS

D. loss of a single taste chemoreceptor is permanent

E. papillae are found on the tongue, internal cheeks, soft palate, pharynx and epiglottis

A

E. papillae are found on the tongue, internal cheeks, soft palate, pharynx and epiglottis

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18
Q

Which of the following is not a fundamental flavor?

A. spicy
B. salty
C. sweet
D. sour
E. bitter
A

A. spicy

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19
Q

What happens with damage to the olfactory cells?

A. only a 20% loss in perception of flavors

B. the supporting cells take over the role of the olfactory cells

C. the sense of smell is lost forever

D. stem cells of the epidermis give rise to new olfactory cells

E. basal cells give rise to new olfactory cells

A

E. basal cells give rise to new olfactory cells

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20
Q

Which of the following is true about the transduction of odors?

A. only the gas elements of the periodic table give rise to odors

B. odors can be perceived even before reaching the sensory epithelium

C. the supporting cells of the sensory epithelium prevent strong odors from being detected

D. metabotropic receptors on the olfactory cilia of one cell detects all types of odors

E. olfactory cells project to the Mitral cells of the olfactory bulb

A

E. olfactory cells project to the Mitral cells of the olfactory bulb

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21
Q

How is low frequency sound or high amplitude sound detected?

A. high amplitude sound is detected only by hair cells near the helicotrema

B. high amplitude sound is detected only by hair cells near the tympanic cavity

C. low frequency sound is detected by hair cells of the cochlear duct near the helicotrema

D. low frequency sound is detected by supporting cells of the cochlea near the tympanic cavity

E. low frequency sound and high amplitude sound are detected by sensory receptors of the tympanic membrane

A

C. low frequency sound is detected by hair cells of the cochlear duct near the helicotrema

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22
Q

Which statement is true?

A. The node of Ranvier is an area of low concentration of the voltage gated channels.

B. The stapes strikes the oval window to induce waves propagating through the scala vestibule, around the Helicotrema and in the scala tympani to end on the round window.

C. The utricule and saccule are the membranous labyrinth in the Ampula.

D. To correct a farsighted (hypermetropic) eye, concave lenses are required.

E. Papillae are gustatory receptors.

A

B. The stapes strikes the oval window to induce waves propagating through the scala vestibule, around the Helicotrema and in the scala tympani to end on the round window.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements about static balance is true?

A. movement of the head will cause flow of perilymph and stimulation of sensory hair cells to detect the new static posture of the head

B. bending of the kinocilium toward the stereocilia of the sensory cell causes increased rates of action potentials

C. sensory cells in different parts of the epithelium have different orientations

D. sensory projections reach the vestibular nuclei for reflex responses but they do not reach the cerebral cortex for perception

E. static balance is provided by the basilar membrane

A

C. sensory cells in different parts of the epithelium have different orientations

24
Q

Which statement among the following about balance is true?

A. The weight of the endolymph on the macula is responsible for static balance

B. The ciliated cells of the crista ampularis in the semicircular ducts detect acceleration and deceleration of the head

C. The function of the semicircular ducts is to perceive the position of the head

D. Information is transmitted by the way of the vestibulospinal pathway for perception of vestibular senses

E. The vestibule is the membranous tissue containing the macula

A

B. The ciliated cells of the crista ampularis in the semicircular ducts detect acceleration and deceleration of the head

25
Q

Which of the following statements on focusing light is true?

A. a point source is a single ray of light reflected from an object

B. all light from a point source that enters the eye must overlap on the retina

C. insufficient focusing of light causes the image to be inverted on the retina

D. the ciliary body is formed of smooth muscle that contracts to stretch the lens

E. most of the refraction of light is done by the lens

A

B. all light from a point source that enters the eye must overlap on the retina

26
Q

Which of the following is false concerning eye movements?

A. pairs of eye muscles can produce upward and downward movements and medial and lateral movements of the eyes

B. saccadic eye movements are rapid voluntary eye movements

C. smooth eye movements allow moving the eyes slowly to view all the details of a mural

D. convergence reflects crossing of the eyes to see objects that are close to your face

E. eye muscles can produce some clockwise and counter-clockwise rotation of the eyes

A

C. smooth eye movements allow moving the eyes slowly to view all the details of a mural

27
Q

Which statement is true about the pigmented layer of the retina?

A. it lies behind the neural layer of the retina at the fovea but extends further along the periphery than the neural layer

B. the pigmented layer help to see in the dark

C. light entering the eye is first filtered by the pigmented layer before reaching the rods and cones

D. the blind spot is due to the pigmented layer

E. blue eyes have less need for a pigmented layer

A

A. it lies behind the neural layer of the retina at the fovea but extends further along the periphery than the neural layer

28
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of nociception?

A. nociceptors are activated by prostaglandins

B. nociceptors are activated by serotonin

C. injury disabling nociceptors causes the perception of severe pain

D. nociceptors can release substance P to increase local blood flow

E. nociceptors are activated by leukotrines

A

C. injury disabling nociceptors causes the perception of severe pain

29
Q

Which of the following receptors detects changes in muscle length?

A. muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Ruffini corpuscle
D. Merkel disks
E. Pacinian corpuscle
A

A. muscle spindle

30
Q

Which of the following statements about center-surround visual cortex responses is false?

A. the center-surround response represents stimulus contrast

B. center-surround visual cortex responses exist as 2 types: on-center and off-center

C. response changes increase as more of the central region is stimulated

D. stimulus to the center and surround of the receptive field produce an excitatory response

E. stimulus to the center has an opposite response to stimulus of the surround

A

D. stimulus to the center and surround of the receptive field produce an excitatory response

31
Q

Which of the following statements about simple cells of the visual cortex is false?

A. individual photoreceptors along the edge of a visual stimulus use separate parallel afferent pathways to activate separate center-surround visual cells that converge onto a simple cell

B. for any area of the visual field, there are separate simple cells specialized to detect vertical, horizontal and diagonal orientations of an object

C. separate simple cells converge onto a complex cell

D. a single simple cell can distinguish any orientation of an object

E. a simple cell receives convergent synaptic inputs from cells with center-surround responses or receptive fields

A

D. a single simple cell can distinguish any orientation of an object

  • {!no, a single simple cell is specialized to detect only 1 orientation of an object!}
32
Q

Which is the simplest perception?

A. feature abstraction
B. pattern recognition
C. perceptual detection
D. magnitude estimation
E. spatial discrimination
A

C. perceptual detection

33
Q

Which of the following statements about visual perception of object orientation is true?

A. simple cells receive inputs from several complex cells

B. different orientations of an object stimulate the activity of different simple cells each specialized to perceive a single orientation

C. the responses of simple cells are the basis for visual contrast perception

D. a center-surround response to light is the dispersion of activity from center to surround as the spread of waves when a pebble is dropped in water

E. light striking the retina activate complex cells which represent the intensity and color of light

A

B. different orientations of an object stimulate the activity of different simple cells each specialized to perceive a single orientation

34
Q

Where does perception first appear?

A. ascending sensory pathways
B. spinal cord
C. thalamus
D. cerebral cortex
E. sensory receptors
A

D. cerebral cortex

35
Q

Spatial discrimination between the sizes of different objects depends on what features?

A. spatial discrimination depends on convergence of receptors onto a common sensory afferent

B. spatial discrimination depends on axon conduction speed

C. spatial discrimination depends on area bound by separate receptors stimulated by an object

D. spatial discrimination depends on area bound by an object used as stimulus

E. spatial discrimination depends on visual receptors since it is not a feature of other sensory modalities

A

C. spatial discrimination depends on area bound by separate receptors stimulated by an object

36
Q

Which of the following statements is not a function of the cerebellum?

A. control of the sensitivity of muscle spindles

B. control of movement amplitude

C. coordination of movement

D. setting the basic rhythm for locomotion

E. assisting with fast rhythmic movements

A

D. setting the basic rhythm for locomotion

37
Q

What is the role of association motor cortex?

A. control of movement onset

B. perception of ongoing movement

C. coordination of ongoing movement

D. planning of movement

E. producing fine muscle force

A

D. planning of movement

38
Q

What is the role of the reticulospinal tracts?

A. maintain balance

B. adjust the head for visual stimuli

C. fine voluntary motor control

D. control limbs to assist hand movements

E. control posture

A

E. control posture

39
Q

Involuntary movements are a sign of damage to which region of the nervous system?

A

basal ganglia

40
Q

The symptoms of a patient with Parkinson’s Disease are caused by a loss of dopamine release from neurons of the:

A

Substancia nigra

41
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary descending tract of the motor system?

A. rubrospinal tract
B. corticospinal tract
C. tectospinal tract
D. vestibulospinal tract
E. reticulospinal tract
A

B. corticospinal tract

42
Q

Which of the following statements is not a feature of the stretch reflex?

A. the stretch reflex diminishes after chronic spinal cord injury

B. the stretch reflex may lead to muscle spasms

C. stretching of the agonist causes excitation of the agonist and inhibition of the antagonist

D. the sensory receptors are called muscle spindles

E. the stretch reflex corrects perturbations moving the limb away from a desired posture

A

A. the stretch reflex diminishes after chronic spinal cord injury

43
Q

Which of the following statements about reflexes is false?

A. reflex responses are produced by skeletal, cardiac or smooth muscle or else glands

B. reflexes cannot be learned

C. there are autonomic and somatic reflexes

D. by definition, a reflex includes a sensory, integrative and effector neuron but there are monosynaptic reflexes where the sensory neuron synapses directly onto the effector neuron

E. a reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus

A

B. reflexes cannot be learned

44
Q

Which of the following statements about the withdrawal reflex is false?

A. the withdrawal reflex will quickly remove a foot placed on a nail but extend the other leg to stay upright

B. the withdrawal reflex cannot be modified voluntarily

C. nociceptors form the sensory component of the withdrawal reflex

D. motoneurons form the effector component of the withdrawal reflex

E. the withdrawal reflex will quickly remove a hand placed on a burning hot stove

A

B. the withdrawal reflex cannot be modified voluntarily

45
Q

Which of the following cells does not have nicotinic receptors?

A. postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division

B. postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division

C. cells of the adrenal medulla

D. skeletal muscle cells

E. cardiac muscle cells

A

E. cardiac muscle cells

46
Q

Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is false?

A. the hypothalamus uses only efferent neuron pathways for the involuntary visceral functions

B. the hypothalamus takes corrective actions to oppose changes of the normal state in order to maintain homeostasis

C. the hypothalamus is the control center for all involuntary visceral functions

D. the hypothalamus receives feedback from some internal organs via blood flow

E> the hypothalamus receives feedback from some internal organs via sensory neuron pathways

A

A. the hypothalamus uses only efferent neuron pathways for the involuntary visceral functions

47
Q

Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is false?

A. the cell bodies of parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are in cranial nerves 3, 7, 9 and 10 and in S2-S4

B. the sympathetic division is highly mobilized in extreme situations (eg. exercise, excitement, embarrassment), while the parasympathetic division is involved in routine situations (eg. digestion, defecation, and diuresis)

C.the autonomic system can independently select targets that must be controlled

D. all effector organs of the autonomic nervous system receive from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

E. the cell bodies of sympathetic preganglionic neurons are in T1-L2

A

D. all effector organs of the autonomic nervous system receive from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

48
Q

Which of the following statements is not a feature of sleep?

A. paradoxical sleep involves high cortical activity (corresponding to wakefulness) associated with dreaming so muscles are paralysed to prevent movements

B. sleep-walking occurs during paradoxical sleep

C. wakefulness is produced by ascending activity from the reticular activating system

D. there are 2 types or phases of sleep: slow wave sleep and paradoxical sleep

E. slow wave sleep is associated with a gradual profound drop in cortical activity along 4 stages

A

B. sleep-walking occurs during paradoxical sleep

49
Q

What statement is not a feature of volitional control?

A. genetically predetermined or instinctive reactions cannot account for all possible life experiences so the frontal cortex offers the ability to replace these instinctive reactions with more appropriate ones

B. negative emotions must occur first before one can perceive an event

C. the neural networks forming our mind can focus on only 1 subject at a time but can rapidly switch between subjects

D. our neural network, created from genetic code during development, offers at birth the predetermined ability to react positively or negatively to any subject

E. the limbic system can recruit the autonomic nervous system in its response to a negative subject

A

B. negative emotions must occur first before one can perceive an event

  • {!false, you perceive the negative event then emotions are triggered!}
50
Q

Which of the following circuits could allow for short-term memory?

A

a reverberating circuit

51
Q

Sleep is a circadian rhythm of 24 hours synchronized by the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus using inputs from the retina to align the sleep-wake cycle with the night-day cycle. There are two types of sleep: (1) Slow wave sleep where sleep becomes progressively deeper along four stages and (2) Paradoxical sleep where the cortical activity is almost as in the awake state. The depth of slow wave sleep and the duration of paradoxical sleep increases during the night. Which part of the previous statement is false?

A. there are two types of sleep: (1) slow wave sleep and (2) paradoxical sleep

B. the depth of slow wave sleep increases during the night

C. the duration of paradoxical sleep increases during the night

D. sleep is synchronized by the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

E. the suprachiasmatic nucleus receives inputs from the retina

A

B. the depth of slow wave sleep increases during the night

52
Q

Which of the following is a feature of memory?

A. long-term memories are lost after lesions of the medial temporal lobes

B. long-term memory is stored in the hippocampus

C. long-term memory is due to anatomical changes at synapses

D. remembering how to ride a bicycle is an example of declarative memory

E. the cerebellum consolidates declarative memory

A

C. long-term memory is due to anatomical changes at synapses

53
Q

Which statement about memory is false?

A. A patient with a bilateral lesion of the hippocampal area no longer has short-term nor long-term memory.

B. The hippocampus in the temporal lobe is necessary to consolidate short-term memory into long-term memory

C. Declarative memory is consolidated into long-term memory by the temporal lobe

D. Non-declarative memory is consolidated into long-term memory by motor systems like the cerebellum

E. The information held in long-term memory is due to anatomical changes in the connections between neurons.

A

A. A patient with a bilateral lesion of the hippocampal area no longer has short-term nor long-term memory

54
Q

Which statement about voluntary actions is false?

A. activity reaches further from the association motor cortex towards the anterior of the frontal cortex (prefrontal cortex) as the task becomes more complex

B. all actions are voluntary

C. visual perception of a ball coming towards you can lead to voluntarily catching the ball

D. perception of sensory information can lead to activity in the association motor cortex for planning a movement

E. the association motor cortex is in the frontal lobe just anterior to the primary motor cortex

A

B. all actions are voluntary

  • {!reflex actions are not voluntary!}
55
Q

What is a sign of a lesion to Broca’s area?

A

loss of speech planning leaving non-fluent speech

- {!Broca’s aphasia!}