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Biology 228 > Final Exam: Lymphatic/Immunity, Respiratory, Digestive, Urinary, and Reproductive > Flashcards

Final Exam: Lymphatic/Immunity, Respiratory, Digestive, Urinary, and Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two semi-independent parts of the lymphatic system?

A

Lymphoid tissues and lymphatic vessels

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2
Q

What is the function of the lymphoid tissues?

A

House macropha

ges and lymphocytes.

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3
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic vessels?

A

Transport fluids that have escaped from the vascular system.

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4
Q

Why does fluid escape the vascular system?

A

Capillaries are porous, blood moving into the capillaries can be under pressure, and the pressure drives fluids and proteins through pores.

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5
Q

Why does fluid move back into the vascular system?

A

non-diffusible proteins remain in the capillaries, a few large proteins are in the surrounding capillaries, this sets an osmotic gradient.

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6
Q

What is the blood pressure at the end of arteriole capillaries?

A

35 mmHg

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7
Q

What is the blood pressure at the end of venus capillaries?

A

15 mmHg

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8
Q

What is the osmotic blood pressure throughout the capillary bed?

A

26 mmHg

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9
Q

True or False? Lymphatic vessels are a two way system?

A

False, they are a one way system. Lymph flows to the heart.

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10
Q

Lymphatic vessels include?

A

Trunks and ducts, lymphatic collecting vessels, and microscopic, permeable, and blind-ended capillaries.

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11
Q

True or False? Lymphatic vessels get larger as they approach the heart?

A

True

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12
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are interwoven with what?

A

Capillary beds.

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13
Q

What fluid do lymphatic capillaries pick up that are leaked from blood vessels?

A

Lymph

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14
Q

What can lymph capillaries absorb during inflammation?

A

Cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells

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15
Q

What are lacteals?

A

lymph capillaries that are present in intestinal mucosa

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16
Q

What is the function of lacteals?

A

Absorb digested fat and deliver chyle to the blood

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17
Q

What are lymphatic collecting vessels formed by?

A

Formed by a union of capillaries

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18
Q

True or False? Lymphatic collecting vessels have three tunics and two-way valves?

A

False, they have one way valves, like veins, to prevent back flow.

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19
Q

True or False? Lymph nodes are interspersed along the pathway of lymphatic collecting vessels.

A

True

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20
Q

How many large ducts is there?

A

There is two, the thoracic and right lymphatic

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21
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct do?

A

Drains the right upper arm and the right side of the head and thorax.

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22
Q

What does the thoracic duct do?

A

Arises from the cisterna chyli and drains the rest of the body.

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23
Q

True or False? Lymphatic trunks are formed by unions of capillaries.

A

False, union of capillaries form lymphatic collecting vessels. Unions of collecting vessels for lymphatic trunks.

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24
Q

What are lymphatic ducts formed by?

A

Union of lymphatic trunks

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25
Q

Does the lymphatic system have a pumping organ?

A

No

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26
Q

What adaptations keep lymph flowing towards the heart?

A

Skeletal muscle ump, respiratory pump, one-way valves, pulsation of arteries, and smooth muscle contraction in the lymphatic trunks and ducts.

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27
Q

What causes lymphangitis?

A

Bacterial infection in lymphatic vessels that spreads to the lymph nodes and bloodstream.

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28
Q

What is lymphedema?

A

Swelling due to accumulation of lymph.

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29
Q

What is elephantiasis

A

“Elephant condition” which is caused by filarial worms, vectored by mosquitoes, blocking lymphatic vessels.

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30
Q

What is the main lymphatic cell involved in immune response?

A

Lymphocytes

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31
Q

What are the two main varieties of lymphocytes?

A

B and T cells

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32
Q

True or False? T and B cells protect the body against antigens?

A

True. They fight off anything that is foreign to the body, such as bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and mismatched RBCs.

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33
Q

What is the function of T cells?

A

They acitvate everything to manage an immune response. They attack and destroy foreign cells.

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34
Q

What is the function of B cells?

A

They produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies to attack the antigens.

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35
Q

What is the function of lymphatic tissue?

A

It houses lymphocytes and provides an ideal location for surveillance by lymphocytes and macrophages.

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36
Q

What are lymph nodes known as?

A

The lymphoid organs of the body.

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37
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Filtration: macrophages destroying microorganisms and debris. Immune system activation: monitoring for antigens and mount an attack against them.

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38
Q

What are the structures of lymph nodes?

A

Bean shaped, surrounded by fibrous capsule, trabeculae, cortex, and medulla.

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39
Q

What does the trabeculae of a lymph node do?

A

Divides the internal area into compartments.

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40
Q

True or false? A lymph node has two distinct regions?

A

True. The cortex, and medulla

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41
Q

How does lymph travel through a lymph node?

A

Enters the afferent vessels, enters large subcapsular sinuses and exits a small sinuses, exits the node at the hilus via efferent vessel.

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42
Q

True or False? There is fewer afferent vessels than efferent vessels.

A

False. There is many afferent vessels to enter a lymph node but only one efferent vessel to exit the lymph node.

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43
Q

What can cause swollen lymph nodes?

A

Bacteria that is captured and trapped, which causes lymph nodes to swell and become tender.

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44
Q

What’s the most obvious sign to the bubonic plague?

A

The buboes, or swollen lymph nodes.

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45
Q

What organs are included in the lymphatic system?

A

The spleen, thymus gland, and tonsils.

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46
Q

True or False? All lymphatic system organs are composed of reticular connective tissue

A

True.

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47
Q

What organ in the lymphatic system is the ONLY to filter lymph?

A

Lymph nodes

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48
Q

What is the largest lymphatic system organ?

A

Spleen

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49
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

On the left side of the abdominal cavity, under the diaphragm.

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50
Q

What is the spleen served by?

A

The splenic artery and vein

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51
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

Site of lymphocyte proliferation, immune surveillance and response, and cleanses the blood.

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52
Q

What are the two distinct areas of the spleen?

A

The white and red pulp

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53
Q

What is the function of the red pulp?

A

Extracts aged and defective RBCs and platelets.

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54
Q

What is the function of the white pulp?

A

Provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and surveillance.

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55
Q

The thymus functions strictly in what maturation?

A

T lymphocytes

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56
Q

The stroma of the thymus contains what?

A

Star shaped epithelial cells

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57
Q

WHat do thymocytes secrete?

A

Hormones that stimulate lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?

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58
Q

Tonsil masses are?

A

not fully encapsulated

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59
Q

Peyer’s patches are located in the wall of what organ?

A

The small intestine.

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60
Q

What cells do peyer’s patches contain?

A

M cells, which grab pathogens and pull them through the gut wall.

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61
Q

What is the appendix an offshoot of?

A

Large intestine

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62
Q

What is the function of the appendix?

A

Destroys bacteria, and generates memory lymphocytes.

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63
Q

What is immunity?

A

The capability to fight off diseases.

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64
Q

Is innate specific or nonspecific defense system?

A

Nonspecific

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65
Q

Is adaptive specific or nonspecific defense system?

A

Specific

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66
Q

What are the two lines of defense for the innate defense system?

A

Being a barrier for external membranes, and antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes, and other cells.

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67
Q

What does the adaptive defense system attack?

A

Foreign substances.

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68
Q

What is the relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance?

A

Any condition that narrows or obstructs the airways increases resistance, so that more pressure is required to maintain the same airflow.

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69
Q

What bones are paranasal sinuses located in?

A

Maxillary, frontal, and sphenoid.

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70
Q

Alveoli are composed of?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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71
Q

What is the surface of the lungs?

A

Visceral pleura

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72
Q

What is the most inferior layer of larynx cartilage?

A

Cricoid cartilage

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73
Q

Which of the following has the smallest lumen? Aveoli ducts, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, main bronchi.

A

Alveoli duct

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74
Q

What is the naris?

A

The nostril, or opening into nasal cavity.

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75
Q

What order does the air flow from naris to alveoli?

A

Naris, conchae, meatus, pharynx, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, epiglotttis, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, trachea, L&R bronchi, lobar bronchi, segriental bronchi, regular bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar duct, alveolar sac, and alveoli

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76
Q

What is the space between the parietal and visceral pleurae?

A

Pleural cavity

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77
Q

What is an air-filled space in skull bone that opens into nasal cavity?

A

Paranasal sinus

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78
Q

What is a microscopic air sac for gas exchange

A

Alveolus

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79
Q

What are vocal folds that include the openings between them?

A

Glottis

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80
Q

What are folds of mucous membranes containing elastic fibers responsible for sound?

A

Vocal folds, or true vocal cords.

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81
Q

True or False? Nasal conchae decreases the surface are of nasal mucous membranes.

A

False, it increases the surface area.

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82
Q

What is a passageway for food and liquids?

A

Pharynx

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83
Q

What partially covers the larynx during swallowing to prevent food or liquid from going down the wrong pipe?

A

Epiglottis

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84
Q

What is the function of mucous secreted by goblet cells?

A

They trap particles of dust and microorganisms.

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85
Q

Describe the function of cilia in the respiratory tubes.

A

Cilia creates a coefficient of mucous towards the pharynx.

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86
Q

How is breathing affected if the smooth muscle of the bronchiole tree relaxes?

A

When the bronchiole tree relaxes it causes the air passages to dilate, which allows a greater volume of air movement.

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87
Q

How is breathing affected if the smooth muscle of the bronchiole tree contracts?

A

When the bronchiole tree contracts it causes a high resistance to air flow during inspiration, or less air flow.

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88
Q

What is an instrument to measure air volumes during .

A

Spirometer

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89
Q

Define volume capacity

A

Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath.

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90
Q

What is tidal volume estimated to be?

A

500 mL

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91
Q

Define Tidal vomlume.

A

Volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort.

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92
Q

Define Inspiratory Reserve Volume

A

Additional volume of air that can be inhaled with maximum effort after a normal inspiration.

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93
Q

Define Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

Additional volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal exhalation.

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94
Q

Define Residual volume

A

Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation.

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95
Q

True or False? The lungs can be completely emtpy after exhalation.

A

False. The lungs can NEVER be completely empty.

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96
Q

What digestive organ contains villi?

A

Small intestine

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97
Q

What is the main function of the oral cavity?

A

Mechanical digestion

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98
Q

In what organ is bile produced?

A

Liver

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99
Q

What organ stores bile?

A

Gallbladder

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100
Q

What muscular valve is located at the end of the stomach?

A

Pyloric sphincter

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101
Q

Why can the stomach stretch to hold a large meal?

A

The gastric folds

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102
Q

What lobe of the liver is the largest?

A

The right lobe

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103
Q

What are the four lobes of the liver?

A

Left, Right, Quadrate, and Caudate

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104
Q

True or False? The ascending colon, cecum, and appendix is on the left side.

A

False, it is on he right. The descending colon is on the left side.

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105
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

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106
Q

What are the major organs of the digestive system?

A

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

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107
Q

What is the main function of the stomach?

A

To chemically and mechanically digest food and to turn food into chyme so the body can digest it.

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108
Q

What is the main function of the pharynx and esophagus?

A

To secrete mucous and serve as passageways for food and liquids to reach the stomach.

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109
Q

What is the main functions of the small intestine?

A

Bile mixes with the chyme and pancreatic juices. Chemical digestion and majority of the nutrient absorption is done before reaching the large intestine.

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110
Q

What is the main function of the large intestine?

A

Mucous is secreted, and water and electrolytes are absorbed. Feces composed of water, undigested substances, mucous, and bacteria are formed and stored until elimination.

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111
Q

What increases the surface area of the small intestine?

A

Microvilli, villi, and circular folds.

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112
Q

What does the pancreas secrete?

A

An alkaline mixture of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions.

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113
Q

What valve is located between the small and large intestines, and what is its function?

A

Ileocecal sphincter, it controls movement of material between the small and large intestine.

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114
Q

What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?

A

It prevents regurgitation of food from the duodenum back into the stomach.

115
Q

What is the portion of tooth showing above the gums?

A

Crown

116
Q

Where is the cardio of the stomach located?

A

Inferior to the esophageal sphincter.

117
Q

What structures are located in the upper respiratory tracts?

A

Nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx

118
Q

What structures are located in the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

119
Q

What is the difference between the respiratory and conducting zones?

A

The conducting zone is structures leading to gas exchange: nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, and bronchi. As respiratory zone is where the gas exchange occurs: alveolar ducts and alveoli.

120
Q

What is the function of the nose regarding breathing?

A

Increases mucosal surface,enhances air turbulence, and heats air.

121
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

Prevents food from going down the larynx and into the lungs.

122
Q

What is the function of the larynx?

A

Serves as air passageway.

123
Q

What is the structure of the trachea?

A

A windpipe that contains 3 layers: mucosa, submucosa, and adventitia.

124
Q

Describe the mucosa layer of the trachea.

A

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium that contains goblet cells.

125
Q

Describe the submucosa layer of the trachea.

A

connective tissue with seromucous glands

126
Q

Describe the adventitia layer of the trachea.

A

outermost layer made of connective tissue that encases c-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage.

127
Q

What is the function of the trachea?

A

Primary function is serving as an air passageway to and from the lungs. Secondary functions are mucous to trap foregin substances, and coughing to expel foreign matter and mucous.

128
Q

What tissue changes occur when moving from conducting zone to respiratory zone?

A

Epithelium becomes thiner, more ciliated, and changes from pseudostratified ciliatedcolumnar to simple ciliated columnar.

129
Q

What is the structure of the respiratory membrane?

A

Alveolar epithelium, fused basement membranes, and capillary endothelium.

130
Q

What is the pleura?

A

A layer between the external layer of the lungs (visceral) and the internal layer of the thoracic cage (parietal).

131
Q

What is the function of the pleura?

A

Reduces friction by secreting a serous fluid that acts as a lubricant.

132
Q

How does plural cavity prevent the lungs from collapsing?

A

There is a lower intraplural pressure than the intrapulmonary pressure which causes the lungs to pull outward or to expand.

133
Q

How does the diaphragm affect intrapulmonary pressure?

A

When the diaphragm contracts it increases the pressure of the thoracic cavity causing air to enter the lungs and vs.

134
Q

How does air resistance affect pulmonary ventilation?

A

Resistance causes a decrease in the amount f air flowing to and from the lungs.

135
Q

What is partial pressure?

A

The measure of pressure exerted by each gas within a mixture of gases.

136
Q

During filtration, substances move from the ___to the ___.

A

blood, renal tubule

137
Q

During reabsorption, substances move from the ___ to the ___.

A

renal tubule, blood

138
Q

If reabsorption did not occur what would happen to the urine and blood volume?

A

The urine output would rapidly increase and blood volume would decrease.

139
Q

What is the purpose of antibodies?

A

To destroy foreign cells

140
Q

What do NK cells use to destroy foreign cells?

A

Ganzyme and perforin

141
Q

Is a fever a cardinal sign of inflammation?

A

No

142
Q

True or False? Increasing heat in tissues is to destroy bacteria and viruses.

A

False

143
Q

How might levels of interferon change in reaction to a new infection of bacteria?

A

Interferons wont react, they are more for viral infection, so those of bacteria wont really matter

144
Q

Compliment destroys bacteria through the membrane attack complex through?

A

Osmotic lysis

145
Q

The adaptive immune system?

A

Is not temporary

146
Q

MHC II receptors are found on?

A

Antigen presenting cells

147
Q

All healthy cells should display?

A

Self-antigens on their MHC I proteins

148
Q

The concept of self/non-self is critical because it enables the immune system to?

A

Target foreign material, keeps the immune system from attacking itself and allows the immune system to collectively ward off attacks

149
Q

What is not necessary for Humoral immune response?

A

Complement ( because plasma cells don’t use complement, B-cells use antibodies)

150
Q

Before B-lymphocytes can begin to proliferate and produce antibodies they must?

A

Be exposed to their matching antigen

151
Q

Antibodies function using neutralization, opsinization and agglutination, along with precipitation, but not?

A

Lysis

152
Q

T-Lymphocytes are not part of?

A

Passive immunity – (they are part of adaptive immunity)

153
Q

If you are missing an immunocompetent lymphocyte then?

A

You will not have any kind of primary (immune) response

154
Q

If you are missing an immunocompetent lymphocyte then?

A

You will not have any kind of primary (immune) response

155
Q

Vaccines provide immunity from disease by

A

exposing the immune system to antigens before the body is actually infected

156
Q

Helper T cells are co-stimulated between?

A

B7 and CD28 and between MHC II and CD4

157
Q

Location where we find naïve immunocompetent lymphocytes encountering their matching antigens?

A

Lymphatic system

158
Q

Cells that release histamine (and heparin)?

A

Basophils and mast cells

159
Q

CD8 lymphocytes release?

A

Granzyme and perforin (just like NK cells)

160
Q

Myosin Gravis is not an immunodeficiency it is an?

A

Autoimmune disorder

161
Q

Alzheimer’s is?

A

it is a degenerative neurological disease

162
Q

Multiple sclerosis?

A

Attacks the myelin sheath of the central nervous system

163
Q

Acute hypersensitivities are activated by?

A

Histamine and heparin

164
Q

Allergies develop because you have?

A

A primary response that is inappropriate to something that is not actually a pathogen

165
Q

Anaphylactic shock will cause?

A

A Sudden drop in Blood pressure caused by histamine release and vasodilation

166
Q

The site for gas exchange in the lungs is?

A

Alveoli

167
Q

How many lobes in the lungs do you have total?

A

5: 3 for the right and 2 for the left.

168
Q

The respiratory regions of the lungs?

A

Are not all on tissue, (some of it is respiratory and some is conductive)

169
Q

Mucocillary escalator does what in the lungs?

A

Moves captured material to the back of the throat and out of the lungs

170
Q

What is the purpose of Surfactant in the lungs?

A

Prevents hydrogen bonds from forming within the alveoli

171
Q

Pulmonary pressure will fluctuate but eventually?

A

Average (equal) with atmospheric pressure

172
Q

As volume increases in the pulmonary cavity?

A

Pressure decreases

173
Q

Airway resistance can be described as?

A

Friction in the airways

174
Q

If you add up tidal volume, inspiratory reserve capacity, and expiratory capacity, you will get?

A

Vital capacity

175
Q

By maintaining a negative interpleural pressure, it allows the?

A

Visceral pleura to remain adhered to the parietal pleura so the lungs can remain open and creates elastic pressure

176
Q

Asthma does not effect?

A

Lung volumes (your lungs can still fill up all the way, it will just take longer)

177
Q

Oxygen is able to diffuse in one direction across the membrane as carbon dioxide diffuses in the opposite direction because?

A

They are each following their own partial pressure gradients across the same membrane

178
Q

Internal respiration differs from External respiration because?

A

Internal is in the tissues, external is in the lungs

179
Q

Primary method for oxygen transport is?

A

On iron atoms of hemoglobin

180
Q

Primary method for CO2 transport is?

A

As bicarbonate ion

181
Q

Oxygen unloading increases with a?

A

Decrease in tissue pH, an increase in temp, or an increase in H+, or an increase in CO2 concentrations

182
Q

All the parameters that would cause oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin have a common thread and that is, they are all common indicators of?

A

increased metabolic activities

183
Q

Emphysema causes?

A

Problems with exhaling, reduction of surface area available for gas exchange and that’s because of collapse of the alveoli

184
Q

Tuberculosis and lung cancer are both forms of?

A

Restrictive pulmonary disease, that cause some tissues in the lungs to become unable to perform gas exchange

185
Q

90% of COPD patients all have one thing in common?

A

Smoking

186
Q

An obstructive airway disease such as Emphysema will effect?

A

The partial pressure of CO2 by increasing it in the blood

187
Q

The effect of establishing a larger difference in partial pressure than normal between two areas, would be due to?

A

An increase in flow between the two areas

188
Q

CO2 in the blood is going to?

A

Affect pH by decrease it (CO2 up = pH down)

189
Q

What would happen if we had a decrease in H+ ions in the blood?

A

Respiration would decrease in rate and depth

190
Q

Partial pressure drops form 140 to 80 mmHg what will this change with breathing?

A

80 mm Hg of oxygen is not enough difference in partial pressure to get the second oxygen atoms of hemoglobin to disassociate and therefore it would not cause any changes in rate or depth of breathing.

191
Q

What best defines hematocrit?

A

The percentage of RBC’s in blood

192
Q

Hematocrit can also be used to describe what characteristics of blood?

A

viscosity

193
Q

Sudden rise in leukocyte numbers usually indicates?

A

infection

194
Q

Why would an abnormally high hematocrit ever be a bad thing?

A

it would make the blood too hard (thick) to pump causing the heart to weaken over time or fail

195
Q

What is the relationship between RBC’s and WBC’s?

A

since they both come from bone marrow, a decrease of both might indicate bone marrow cancer

196
Q

What type of formed element is used in blood clotting?

A

platelet (thrombocyte)

197
Q

What characteristic can be used to identify leukocytes?

A

shape of the nucleus and presence of granules

198
Q

An elevation in eosinophils may indicate which of the following issues?

A

a parasitic infection

199
Q

What would indicate an elevated leukocyte count?

A

4% basophils (normal is

200
Q

What is used in clotting?

A

fibrin

201
Q

What has the thickest myocardia and can generate the strongest contraction?

A

left ventricular myocardia

202
Q

Where does blood from the right ventricle go?

A

pulmonary trunk

203
Q

What is the primary function of the valves of the heart?

A

To prevent blood from moving backwards

204
Q

Stenosis, or narrowing of the mitral valve will cause________sided heart failure and __________ edema?

A

left, pulmonary

205
Q

Why would a patent (open) foramen ovale cause problems after birth?

A

it will eventually cause right sided heart failure

206
Q

Which of the following areas has a natural depolarization rate of 50 beats per minute?

A

Atrioventricular node

207
Q

When reading an EKG, the P wave indicates which of the following?

A

Atrial depolarization

208
Q

What is the term for when some of the electrical signals from the atria do no reach the ventricles?

A

heart block

209
Q

Which of the following parameters can affect heart rate?

A

Age, body temp, gender, emotional state

210
Q

Which ion is the very first to move across the membrane in cardiac muscle contraction?

A

Sodium

211
Q

Which ion allows cardiac muscle contraction to be sustained for such a relatively long time compared to skeletal muscle cells?

A

Calcium

212
Q

Looking at the answer from the previous question, where does the bulk of this ion come from during cardiac contraction?

A

Extracellular fluids

213
Q 
Place the following in correct order.
A-	Cross bridging
B-	Myosin binding site is open
C-	Tropomyosin is moved
D-	Myosin changes shape
E-	Calcium binds to troponin
A

E, C, B,A, D

214
Q

Why is the prolonged contraction of cardiac muscle critical to its function?

A

it allows the blood time to move to the next area in sequence

215
Q

What function does the extended absolute refractory period serve in cardiac muscle?

A

it allows the chamber to refill with blood so it can be pumped

216
Q

What is the definition of cardiac output?

A

The amount of blood leaving the heart every minute

217
Q

As stroke volume decreases, what needs to happen in order to maintain cardiac output?

A

Increase heart rate

218
Q

Which of the following best describes heart failure?

A

Decreased inotrope

219
Q

A direct result of cardiac output increasing is going to create?

A

An increase in blood pressure

220
Q

Cardiac output is measured in?

A

Milliliters

221
Q

Sam is an athlete who was in an accident that caused severed her brachial artery. And is bleeding profusely. What kind of changes can we expect to see?

A

immediate decrease in blood pressure, followed by an increase in cardiac output as the heart tries to compensate.

222
Q

Sam’s heart will attempt to decrease BP and increase cardiac output by?

A

Increasing stroke volume and heart rate

223
Q

Blood vessels will attempt to assist in increasing Sam’s SV and HR by?

A

decreasing vessel diameter to increase blood pressure

224
Q

As she continues to bleed, sams blood vessels should constrict. Oxygen sent to major organs then becomes restricted due to lack of?

A

flow

225
Q

As blood delivery becomes restricted, major organ tissues can no longer properly be________ and start to die, causing shock. 36. Which stage of shock would this be?

A

perfused, and progressive shock.

226
Q

What type of shock is progressive shock?

A

Hypovolemic because she is losing blood

227
Q

Capillaries have how many tunics?

A

1

228
Q

What type of capillaries are found in the bone marrow, spleen and the liver?

A

sinusoidal capillaries

229
Q

The kind of capillary that makes up the Blood brain barrier?

A

Continuous capillaries

230
Q

The difference between our two blood pressure measurements is called?

A

pulse pressure

231
Q

What type of blood vessels do not have a pulse?

A

Capillaries

232
Q

What is normal diastolic BP?

A

80

233
Q

The pressure generated during diastole is coming from?

A

the elastic recoil of the vessels back down to their normal size

234
Q

What would decrease Blood Pressure?

A

Decrease in inotrope

235
Q

Normal net filtration from pressure on the arterial side of the capillary beds is?

A

10 mmHg

236
Q

Fluid from tissue beds is moved into venous return due to?

A

the oncotic pressure of albumin

237
Q

What are the three functions of the kidneys?

A

Remove toxins and metabolic waste, regulate Blood volume, chemical composition, and pH, and remove wastes from the body.

238
Q

What hormones do the kidneys produce?

A

renin to regulate BP and kidney function, and erythropoietin to regulate RBC production

239
Q

What is in the renal hilum of the kidneys?

A

Renal vein, real artery, and renal pelvis.

240
Q

How does blood enter and exit the kidney?

A

In through the renal artery and out through the renal vein

241
Q

What is the path of blood flow through renal blood vessels?

A

Aorta, renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries and vasa recta, cortical radiate vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein renal vein, and infereior vena cava

242
Q

What is the structural unit of kidneys?

A

nephrons

243
Q

What are the two main parts of nephrons?

A

glomerulus and renal tubule

244
Q

What is the glomerulus?

A

a tuft of capillaries

245
Q

What does the renal corpuscle contain?

A

The glomerular capsule and the glomerulus

246
Q

What are the two layers of the kidneys?

A

cortex and medulla

247
Q

What is insulin?

A

Hypoglycemic hormone

248
Q

What does insulin do?

A

lowers blood sugar

249
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The creation of sugar.

250
Q

What are the cone shaped structures in the kidneys?

A

Renal pyramids

251
Q

What separates the renal pyramids?

A

Te renal columns

252
Q

Where are nephrons located?

A

In the cortex and top of medulla

253
Q

What connects to the apex of the renal pyramids?

A

Minor calyx

254
Q

What is the path of urine through the kidney?

A

Corex, renal pyramid, minor caylx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, and urinary bladder

255
Q

What is the outer layer of the kidney?

A

Fibrous capsule

256
Q

True or false? The renal artery delivers approximately 1/4 of cardiac output to the kidneys.

A

True

257
Q

What is a doctor for kidneys?

A

nephrologist

258
Q

What is the function of a nephron?

A

Filters the blood and creates the urine

259
Q

What is everything above and below the arcuate artery?

A

Above is cortex and below is medulla

260
Q

What is the path of through a nephron?

A

arcuate artery, cortical artery, afferent arteriole, leaving the efferent arteriole.

261
Q

Where does the wastes drain from the glomerular capsule?

A

to the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle : descending limb to ascending limb, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, and ureter

262
Q

Why is the glomerulus fenestrated or windowed?

A

Allows filtrate to pass from plasma to the glomerular capsule

263
Q

What is filtration?

A

Separating by size (think of coffee and coffee filter.)

264
Q

What are the two layers of the glomerular capsule?

A

Parietal and visceral

265
Q

What type of tissue is the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule mode of?

A

simple squamous epithelium

266
Q

What type of tissue is the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule made of?

A

branching epithelial podocytes

267
Q

What type of tissue is the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) made of?

A

Cuboidal cells with microvilli and large mitochondria

268
Q

What is the function of the PCT?

A

Reabsorption and secretion

269
Q

Where is the PCT located?

A

Cortex of kidney

270
Q

What does the loop of henle contain?

A

The descending and ascending limb

271
Q

True or false? the descending limb, of the loop of henle, contains cuboidal and columnar cells.

A

False, the ascending limb contains the cuboidal and columnar cells. The descending contains simple squamous epithelium.

272
Q

What is the function of the Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)?

A

Secretion

273
Q

What is the DCT made of?

A

cuboidal cells with very little microvilli

274
Q

Where is the DCT located

A

Cortex of kidney

275
Q

What do the collecting ducts receive?

A

Filtrate from the fluid of nephrons.

276
Q

What are the collecting ducts made of?

A

intercalated cells: cuboidal with microvilli, principal cells: cuboidal cells without microvilli

277
Q

What is the function of the intercalated cells?

A

Maintain the acid-base balance of the body

278
Q

What is the function of the prinicpal cells?

A

Maintain the water and salt balance of the body

279
Q

What type of nephron has a loop of henle that deeply invades the medulla?

A

juxtamedullary nephrons

280
Q

Why are the juxtamedullary nephrons important?

A

They help in the production of concentrated urine

281
Q

What wraps around the loop of henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

The vasa recta

282
Q

What is the function of the glomerulus?

A

Filtration

283
Q

True or False? The afferent arterioles of the glomerulus have a smaller diameter than the efferent.

A

False, the afferent have a larger diameter which causes the blood pressure to be higher in nephrons

Biology 228 (2 decks)

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