Final Exam: Lymphatic/Immunity, Respiratory, Digestive, Urinary, and Reproductive Flashcards
1
Q
What are the two semi-independent parts of the lymphatic system?
A
Lymphoid tissues and lymphatic vessels
2
Q
What is the function of the lymphoid tissues?
A
House macropha
ges and lymphocytes.
3
Q
What is the function of the lymphatic vessels?
A
Transport fluids that have escaped from the vascular system.
4
Q
Why does fluid escape the vascular system?
A
Capillaries are porous, blood moving into the capillaries can be under pressure, and the pressure drives fluids and proteins through pores.
5
Q
Why does fluid move back into the vascular system?
A
non-diffusible proteins remain in the capillaries, a few large proteins are in the surrounding capillaries, this sets an osmotic gradient.
6
Q
What is the blood pressure at the end of arteriole capillaries?
A
35 mmHg
7
Q
What is the blood pressure at the end of venus capillaries?
A
15 mmHg
8
Q
What is the osmotic blood pressure throughout the capillary bed?
A
26 mmHg
9
Q
True or False? Lymphatic vessels are a two way system?
A
False, they are a one way system. Lymph flows to the heart.
10
Q
Lymphatic vessels include?
A
Trunks and ducts, lymphatic collecting vessels, and microscopic, permeable, and blind-ended capillaries.
11
Q
True or False? Lymphatic vessels get larger as they approach the heart?
A
True
12
Q
Lymphatic capillaries are interwoven with what?
A
Capillary beds.
13
Q
What fluid do lymphatic capillaries pick up that are leaked from blood vessels?
A
Lymph
14
Q
What can lymph capillaries absorb during inflammation?
A
Cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells
15
Q
What are lacteals?
A
lymph capillaries that are present in intestinal mucosa
16
Q
What is the function of lacteals?
A
Absorb digested fat and deliver chyle to the blood
17
Q
What are lymphatic collecting vessels formed by?
A
Formed by a union of capillaries
18
Q
True or False? Lymphatic collecting vessels have three tunics and two-way valves?
A
False, they have one way valves, like veins, to prevent back flow.
19
Q
True or False? Lymph nodes are interspersed along the pathway of lymphatic collecting vessels.
A
True
20
Q
How many large ducts is there?
A
There is two, the thoracic and right lymphatic
21
Q
What does the right lymphatic duct do?
A
Drains the right upper arm and the right side of the head and thorax.
22
Q
What does the thoracic duct do?
A
Arises from the cisterna chyli and drains the rest of the body.
23
Q
True or False? Lymphatic trunks are formed by unions of capillaries.
A
False, union of capillaries form lymphatic collecting vessels. Unions of collecting vessels for lymphatic trunks.
24
Q
What are lymphatic ducts formed by?
A
Union of lymphatic trunks
25
Does the lymphatic system have a pumping organ?
No
26
What adaptations keep lymph flowing towards the heart?
Skeletal muscle ump, respiratory pump, one-way valves, pulsation of arteries, and smooth muscle contraction in the lymphatic trunks and ducts.
27
What causes lymphangitis?
Bacterial infection in lymphatic vessels that spreads to the lymph nodes and bloodstream.
28
What is lymphedema?
Swelling due to accumulation of lymph.
29
What is elephantiasis
"Elephant condition" which is caused by filarial worms, vectored by mosquitoes, blocking lymphatic vessels.
30
What is the main lymphatic cell involved in immune response?
Lymphocytes
31
What are the two main varieties of lymphocytes?
B and T cells
32
True or False? T and B cells protect the body against antigens?
True. They fight off anything that is foreign to the body, such as bacteria, viruses, cancer cells, and mismatched RBCs.
33
What is the function of T cells?
They acitvate everything to manage an immune response. They attack and destroy foreign cells.
34
What is the function of B cells?
They produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies to attack the antigens.
35
What is the function of lymphatic tissue?
It houses lymphocytes and provides an ideal location for surveillance by lymphocytes and macrophages.
36
What are lymph nodes known as?
The lymphoid organs of the body.
37
What is the function of lymph nodes?
Filtration: macrophages destroying microorganisms and debris. Immune system activation: monitoring for antigens and mount an attack against them.
38
What are the structures of lymph nodes?
Bean shaped, surrounded by fibrous capsule, trabeculae, cortex, and medulla.
39
What does the trabeculae of a lymph node do?
Divides the internal area into compartments.
40
True or false? A lymph node has two distinct regions?
True. The cortex, and medulla
41
How does lymph travel through a lymph node?
Enters the afferent vessels, enters large subcapsular sinuses and exits a small sinuses, exits the node at the hilus via efferent vessel.
42
True or False? There is fewer afferent vessels than efferent vessels.
False. There is many afferent vessels to enter a lymph node but only one efferent vessel to exit the lymph node.
43
What can cause swollen lymph nodes?
Bacteria that is captured and trapped, which causes lymph nodes to swell and become tender.
44
What's the most obvious sign to the bubonic plague?
The buboes, or swollen lymph nodes.
45
What organs are included in the lymphatic system?
The spleen, thymus gland, and tonsils.
46
True or False? All lymphatic system organs are composed of reticular connective tissue
True.
47
What organ in the lymphatic system is the ONLY to filter lymph?
Lymph nodes
48
What is the largest lymphatic system organ?
Spleen
49
Where is the spleen located?
On the left side of the abdominal cavity, under the diaphragm.
50
What is the spleen served by?
The splenic artery and vein
51
What are the functions of the spleen?
Site of lymphocyte proliferation, immune surveillance and response, and cleanses the blood.
52
What are the two distinct areas of the spleen?
The white and red pulp
53
What is the function of the red pulp?
Extracts aged and defective RBCs and platelets.
54
What is the function of the white pulp?
Provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and surveillance.
55
The thymus functions strictly in what maturation?
T lymphocytes
56
The stroma of the thymus contains what?
Star shaped epithelial cells
57
WHat do thymocytes secrete?
Hormones that stimulate lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?
58
Tonsil masses are?
not fully encapsulated
59
Peyer's patches are located in the wall of what organ?
The small intestine.
60
What cells do peyer's patches contain?
M cells, which grab pathogens and pull them through the gut wall.
61
What is the appendix an offshoot of?
Large intestine
62
What is the function of the appendix?
Destroys bacteria, and generates memory lymphocytes.
63
What is immunity?
The capability to fight off diseases.
64
Is innate specific or nonspecific defense system?
Nonspecific
65
Is adaptive specific or nonspecific defense system?
Specific
66
What are the two lines of defense for the innate defense system?
Being a barrier for external membranes, and antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes, and other cells.
67
What does the adaptive defense system attack?
Foreign substances.
68
What is the relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance?
Any condition that narrows or obstructs the airways increases resistance, so that more pressure is required to maintain the same airflow.
69
What bones are paranasal sinuses located in?
Maxillary, frontal, and sphenoid.
70
Alveoli are composed of?
Simple squamous epithelium
71
What is the surface of the lungs?
Visceral pleura
72
What is the most inferior layer of larynx cartilage?
Cricoid cartilage
73
Which of the following has the smallest lumen? Aveoli ducts, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, main bronchi.
Alveoli duct
74
What is the naris?
The nostril, or opening into nasal cavity.
75
What order does the air flow from naris to alveoli?
Naris, conchae, meatus, pharynx, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, epiglotttis, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, trachea, L&R bronchi, lobar bronchi, segriental bronchi, regular bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar duct, alveolar sac, and alveoli
76
What is the space between the parietal and visceral pleurae?
Pleural cavity
77
What is an air-filled space in skull bone that opens into nasal cavity?
Paranasal sinus
78
What is a microscopic air sac for gas exchange
Alveolus
79
What are vocal folds that include the openings between them?
Glottis
80
What are folds of mucous membranes containing elastic fibers responsible for sound?
Vocal folds, or true vocal cords.
81
True or False? Nasal conchae decreases the surface are of nasal mucous membranes.
False, it increases the surface area.
82
What is a passageway for food and liquids?
Pharynx
83
What partially covers the larynx during swallowing to prevent food or liquid from going down the wrong pipe?
Epiglottis
84
What is the function of mucous secreted by goblet cells?
They trap particles of dust and microorganisms.
85
Describe the function of cilia in the respiratory tubes.
Cilia creates a coefficient of mucous towards the pharynx.
86
How is breathing affected if the smooth muscle of the bronchiole tree relaxes?
When the bronchiole tree relaxes it causes the air passages to dilate, which allows a greater volume of air movement.
87
How is breathing affected if the smooth muscle of the bronchiole tree contracts?
When the bronchiole tree contracts it causes a high resistance to air flow during inspiration, or less air flow.
88
What is an instrument to measure air volumes during .
Spirometer
89
Define volume capacity
Maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after taking the deepest breath.
90
What is tidal volume estimated to be?
500 mL
91
Define Tidal vomlume.
Volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort.
92
Define Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Additional volume of air that can be inhaled with maximum effort after a normal inspiration.
93
Define Expiratory Reserve Volume
Additional volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal exhalation.
94
Define Residual volume
Volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation.
95
True or False? The lungs can be completely emtpy after exhalation.
False. The lungs can NEVER be completely empty.
96
What digestive organ contains villi?
Small intestine
97
What is the main function of the oral cavity?
Mechanical digestion
98
In what organ is bile produced?
Liver
99
What organ stores bile?
Gallbladder
100
What muscular valve is located at the end of the stomach?
Pyloric sphincter
101
Why can the stomach stretch to hold a large meal?
The gastric folds
102
What lobe of the liver is the largest?
The right lobe
103
What are the four lobes of the liver?
Left, Right, Quadrate, and Caudate
104
True or False? The ascending colon, cecum, and appendix is on the left side.
False, it is on he right. The descending colon is on the left side.
105
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
106
What are the major organs of the digestive system?
Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.
107
What is the main function of the stomach?
To chemically and mechanically digest food and to turn food into chyme so the body can digest it.
108
What is the main function of the pharynx and esophagus?
To secrete mucous and serve as passageways for food and liquids to reach the stomach.
109
What is the main functions of the small intestine?
Bile mixes with the chyme and pancreatic juices. Chemical digestion and majority of the nutrient absorption is done before reaching the large intestine.
110
What is the main function of the large intestine?
Mucous is secreted, and water and electrolytes are absorbed. Feces composed of water, undigested substances, mucous, and bacteria are formed and stored until elimination.
111
What increases the surface area of the small intestine?
Microvilli, villi, and circular folds.
112
What does the pancreas secrete?
An alkaline mixture of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions.
113
What valve is located between the small and large intestines, and what is its function?
Ileocecal sphincter, it controls movement of material between the small and large intestine.
114
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
It prevents regurgitation of food from the duodenum back into the stomach.
115
What is the portion of tooth showing above the gums?
Crown
116
Where is the cardio of the stomach located?
Inferior to the esophageal sphincter.
117
What structures are located in the upper respiratory tracts?
Nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx
118
What structures are located in the lower respiratory tract?
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli
119
What is the difference between the respiratory and conducting zones?
The conducting zone is structures leading to gas exchange: nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, and bronchi. As respiratory zone is where the gas exchange occurs: alveolar ducts and alveoli.
120
What is the function of the nose regarding breathing?
Increases mucosal surface,enhances air turbulence, and heats air.
121
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Prevents food from going down the larynx and into the lungs.
122
What is the function of the larynx?
Serves as air passageway.
123
What is the structure of the trachea?
A windpipe that contains 3 layers: mucosa, submucosa, and adventitia.
124
Describe the mucosa layer of the trachea.
ciliated pseudostratified epithelium that contains goblet cells.
125
Describe the submucosa layer of the trachea.
connective tissue with seromucous glands
126
Describe the adventitia layer of the trachea.
outermost layer made of connective tissue that encases c-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage.
127
What is the function of the trachea?
Primary function is serving as an air passageway to and from the lungs. Secondary functions are mucous to trap foregin substances, and coughing to expel foreign matter and mucous.
128
What tissue changes occur when moving from conducting zone to respiratory zone?
Epithelium becomes thiner, more ciliated, and changes from pseudostratified ciliatedcolumnar to simple ciliated columnar.
129
What is the structure of the respiratory membrane?
Alveolar epithelium, fused basement membranes, and capillary endothelium.
130
What is the pleura?
A layer between the external layer of the lungs (visceral) and the internal layer of the thoracic cage (parietal).
131
What is the function of the pleura?
Reduces friction by secreting a serous fluid that acts as a lubricant.
132
How does plural cavity prevent the lungs from collapsing?
There is a lower intraplural pressure than the intrapulmonary pressure which causes the lungs to pull outward or to expand.
133
How does the diaphragm affect intrapulmonary pressure?
When the diaphragm contracts it increases the pressure of the thoracic cavity causing air to enter the lungs and vs.
134
How does air resistance affect pulmonary ventilation?
Resistance causes a decrease in the amount f air flowing to and from the lungs.
135
What is partial pressure?
The measure of pressure exerted by each gas within a mixture of gases.
136
During filtration, substances move from the ___to the ___.
blood, renal tubule
137
During reabsorption, substances move from the ___ to the ___.
renal tubule, blood
138
If reabsorption did not occur what would happen to the urine and blood volume?
The urine output would rapidly increase and blood volume would decrease.
139
What is the purpose of antibodies?
To destroy foreign cells
140
What do NK cells use to destroy foreign cells?
Ganzyme and perforin
141
Is a fever a cardinal sign of inflammation?
No
142
True or False? Increasing heat in tissues is to destroy bacteria and viruses.
False
143
How might levels of interferon change in reaction to a new infection of bacteria?
Interferons wont react, they are more for viral infection, so those of bacteria wont really matter
144
Compliment destroys bacteria through the membrane attack complex through?
Osmotic lysis
145
The adaptive immune system?
Is not temporary
146
MHC II receptors are found on?
Antigen presenting cells
147
All healthy cells should display?
Self-antigens on their MHC I proteins
148
The concept of self/non-self is critical because it enables the immune system to?
Target foreign material, keeps the immune system from attacking itself and allows the immune system to collectively ward off attacks
149
What is not necessary for Humoral immune response?
Complement ( because plasma cells don’t use complement, B-cells use antibodies)
150
Before B-lymphocytes can begin to proliferate and produce antibodies they must?
Be exposed to their matching antigen
151
Antibodies function using neutralization, opsinization and agglutination, along with precipitation, but not?
Lysis
152
T-Lymphocytes are not part of?
Passive immunity – (they are part of adaptive immunity)
153
If you are missing an immunocompetent lymphocyte then?
You will not have any kind of primary (immune) response
154
If you are missing an immunocompetent lymphocyte then?
You will not have any kind of primary (immune) response
155
Vaccines provide immunity from disease by
exposing the immune system to antigens before the body is actually infected
156
Helper T cells are co-stimulated between?
B7 and CD28 and between MHC II and CD4
157
Location where we find naïve immunocompetent lymphocytes encountering their matching antigens?
Lymphatic system
158
Cells that release histamine (and heparin)?
Basophils and mast cells
159
CD8 lymphocytes release?
Granzyme and perforin (just like NK cells)
160
Myosin Gravis is not an immunodeficiency it is an?
Autoimmune disorder
161
Alzheimer’s is?
it is a degenerative neurological disease
162
Multiple sclerosis?
Attacks the myelin sheath of the central nervous system
163
Acute hypersensitivities are activated by?
Histamine and heparin
164
Allergies develop because you have?
A primary response that is inappropriate to something that is not actually a pathogen
165
Anaphylactic shock will cause?
A Sudden drop in Blood pressure caused by histamine release and vasodilation
166
The site for gas exchange in the lungs is?
Alveoli
167
How many lobes in the lungs do you have total?
5: 3 for the right and 2 for the left.
168
The respiratory regions of the lungs?
Are not all on tissue, (some of it is respiratory and some is conductive)
169
Mucocillary escalator does what in the lungs?
Moves captured material to the back of the throat and out of the lungs
170
What is the purpose of Surfactant in the lungs?
Prevents hydrogen bonds from forming within the alveoli
171
Pulmonary pressure will fluctuate but eventually?
Average (equal) with atmospheric pressure
172
As volume increases in the pulmonary cavity?
Pressure decreases
173
Airway resistance can be described as?
Friction in the airways
174
If you add up tidal volume, inspiratory reserve capacity, and expiratory capacity, you will get?
Vital capacity
175
By maintaining a negative interpleural pressure, it allows the?
Visceral pleura to remain adhered to the parietal pleura so the lungs can remain open and creates elastic pressure
176
Asthma does not effect?
Lung volumes (your lungs can still fill up all the way, it will just take longer)
177
Oxygen is able to diffuse in one direction across the membrane as carbon dioxide diffuses in the opposite direction because?
They are each following their own partial pressure gradients across the same membrane
178
Internal respiration differs from External respiration because?
Internal is in the tissues, external is in the lungs
179
Primary method for oxygen transport is?
On iron atoms of hemoglobin
180
Primary method for CO2 transport is?
As bicarbonate ion
181
Oxygen unloading increases with a?
Decrease in tissue pH, an increase in temp, or an increase in H+, or an increase in CO2 concentrations
182
All the parameters that would cause oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin have a common thread and that is, they are all common indicators of?
increased metabolic activities
183
Emphysema causes?
Problems with exhaling, reduction of surface area available for gas exchange and that’s because of collapse of the alveoli
184
Tuberculosis and lung cancer are both forms of?
Restrictive pulmonary disease, that cause some tissues in the lungs to become unable to perform gas exchange
185
90% of COPD patients all have one thing in common?
Smoking
186
An obstructive airway disease such as Emphysema will effect?
The partial pressure of CO2 by increasing it in the blood
187
The effect of establishing a larger difference in partial pressure than normal between two areas, would be due to?
An increase in flow between the two areas
188
CO2 in the blood is going to?
Affect pH by decrease it (CO2 up = pH down)
189
What would happen if we had a decrease in H+ ions in the blood?
Respiration would decrease in rate and depth
190
Partial pressure drops form 140 to 80 mmHg what will this change with breathing?
80 mm Hg of oxygen is not enough difference in partial pressure to get the second oxygen atoms of hemoglobin to disassociate and therefore it would not cause any changes in rate or depth of breathing.
191
What best defines hematocrit?
The percentage of RBC’s in blood
192
Hematocrit can also be used to describe what characteristics of blood?
viscosity
193
Sudden rise in leukocyte numbers usually indicates?
infection
194
Why would an abnormally high hematocrit ever be a bad thing?
it would make the blood too hard (thick) to pump causing the heart to weaken over time or fail
195
What is the relationship between RBC’s and WBC’s?
since they both come from bone marrow, a decrease of both might indicate bone marrow cancer
196
What type of formed element is used in blood clotting?
platelet (thrombocyte)
197
What characteristic can be used to identify leukocytes?
shape of the nucleus and presence of granules
198
An elevation in eosinophils may indicate which of the following issues?
a parasitic infection
199
What would indicate an elevated leukocyte count?
4% basophils (normal is
200
What is used in clotting?
fibrin
201
What has the thickest myocardia and can generate the strongest contraction?
left ventricular myocardia
202
Where does blood from the right ventricle go?
pulmonary trunk
203
What is the primary function of the valves of the heart?
To prevent blood from moving backwards
204
Stenosis, or narrowing of the mitral valve will cause________sided heart failure and __________ edema?
left, pulmonary
205
Why would a patent (open) foramen ovale cause problems after birth?
it will eventually cause right sided heart failure
206
Which of the following areas has a natural depolarization rate of 50 beats per minute?
Atrioventricular node
207
When reading an EKG, the P wave indicates which of the following?
Atrial depolarization
208
What is the term for when some of the electrical signals from the atria do no reach the ventricles?
heart block
209
Which of the following parameters can affect heart rate?
Age, body temp, gender, emotional state
210
Which ion is the very first to move across the membrane in cardiac muscle contraction?
Sodium
211
Which ion allows cardiac muscle contraction to be sustained for such a relatively long time compared to skeletal muscle cells?
Calcium
212
Looking at the answer from the previous question, where does the bulk of this ion come from during cardiac contraction?
Extracellular fluids
213
```
Place the following in correct order.
A- Cross bridging
B- Myosin binding site is open
C- Tropomyosin is moved
D- Myosin changes shape
E- Calcium binds to troponin
```
E, C, B,A, D
214
Why is the prolonged contraction of cardiac muscle critical to its function?
it allows the blood time to move to the next area in sequence
215
What function does the extended absolute refractory period serve in cardiac muscle?
it allows the chamber to refill with blood so it can be pumped
216
What is the definition of cardiac output?
The amount of blood leaving the heart every minute
217
As stroke volume decreases, what needs to happen in order to maintain cardiac output?
Increase heart rate
218
Which of the following best describes heart failure?
Decreased inotrope
219
A direct result of cardiac output increasing is going to create?
An increase in blood pressure
220
Cardiac output is measured in?
Milliliters
221
Sam is an athlete who was in an accident that caused severed her brachial artery. And is bleeding profusely. What kind of changes can we expect to see?
immediate decrease in blood pressure, followed by an increase in cardiac output as the heart tries to compensate.
222
Sam's heart will attempt to decrease BP and increase cardiac output by?
Increasing stroke volume and heart rate
223
Blood vessels will attempt to assist in increasing Sam's SV and HR by?
decreasing vessel diameter to increase blood pressure
224
As she continues to bleed, sams blood vessels should constrict. Oxygen sent to major organs then becomes restricted due to lack of?
flow
225
As blood delivery becomes restricted, major organ tissues can no longer properly be________ and start to die, causing shock. 36. Which stage of shock would this be?
perfused, and progressive shock.
226
What type of shock is progressive shock?
Hypovolemic because she is losing blood
227
Capillaries have how many tunics?
1
228
What type of capillaries are found in the bone marrow, spleen and the liver?
sinusoidal capillaries
229
The kind of capillary that makes up the Blood brain barrier?
Continuous capillaries
230
The difference between our two blood pressure measurements is called?
pulse pressure
231
What type of blood vessels do not have a pulse?
Capillaries
232
What is normal diastolic BP?
80
233
The pressure generated during diastole is coming from?
the elastic recoil of the vessels back down to their normal size
234
What would decrease Blood Pressure?
Decrease in inotrope
235
Normal net filtration from pressure on the arterial side of the capillary beds is?
10 mmHg
236
Fluid from tissue beds is moved into venous return due to?
the oncotic pressure of albumin
237
What are the three functions of the kidneys?
Remove toxins and metabolic waste, regulate Blood volume, chemical composition, and pH, and remove wastes from the body.
238
What hormones do the kidneys produce?
renin to regulate BP and kidney function, and erythropoietin to regulate RBC production
239
What is in the renal hilum of the kidneys?
Renal vein, real artery, and renal pelvis.
240
How does blood enter and exit the kidney?
In through the renal artery and out through the renal vein
241
What is the path of blood flow through renal blood vessels?
Aorta, renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritibular capillaries and vasa recta, cortical radiate vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein renal vein, and infereior vena cava
242
What is the structural unit of kidneys?
nephrons
243
What are the two main parts of nephrons?
glomerulus and renal tubule
244
What is the glomerulus?
a tuft of capillaries
245
What does the renal corpuscle contain?
The glomerular capsule and the glomerulus
246
What are the two layers of the kidneys?
cortex and medulla
247
What is insulin?
Hypoglycemic hormone
248
What does insulin do?
lowers blood sugar
249
What is gluconeogenesis?
The creation of sugar.
250
What are the cone shaped structures in the kidneys?
Renal pyramids
251
What separates the renal pyramids?
Te renal columns
252
Where are nephrons located?
In the cortex and top of medulla
253
What connects to the apex of the renal pyramids?
Minor calyx
254
What is the path of urine through the kidney?
Corex, renal pyramid, minor caylx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, and urinary bladder
255
What is the outer layer of the kidney?
Fibrous capsule
256
True or false? The renal artery delivers approximately 1/4 of cardiac output to the kidneys.
True
257
What is a doctor for kidneys?
nephrologist
258
What is the function of a nephron?
Filters the blood and creates the urine
259
What is everything above and below the arcuate artery?
Above is cortex and below is medulla
260
What is the path of through a nephron?
arcuate artery, cortical artery, afferent arteriole, leaving the efferent arteriole.
261
Where does the wastes drain from the glomerular capsule?
to the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle : descending limb to ascending limb, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, and ureter
262
Why is the glomerulus fenestrated or windowed?
Allows filtrate to pass from plasma to the glomerular capsule
263
What is filtration?
Separating by size (think of coffee and coffee filter.)
264
What are the two layers of the glomerular capsule?
Parietal and visceral
265
What type of tissue is the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule mode of?
simple squamous epithelium
266
What type of tissue is the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule made of?
branching epithelial podocytes
267
What type of tissue is the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) made of?
Cuboidal cells with microvilli and large mitochondria
268
What is the function of the PCT?
Reabsorption and secretion
269
Where is the PCT located?
Cortex of kidney
270
What does the loop of henle contain?
The descending and ascending limb
271
True or false? the descending limb, of the loop of henle, contains cuboidal and columnar cells.
False, the ascending limb contains the cuboidal and columnar cells. The descending contains simple squamous epithelium.
272
What is the function of the Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)?
Secretion
273
What is the DCT made of?
cuboidal cells with very little microvilli
274
Where is the DCT located
Cortex of kidney
275
What do the collecting ducts receive?
Filtrate from the fluid of nephrons.
276
What are the collecting ducts made of?
intercalated cells: cuboidal with microvilli, principal cells: cuboidal cells without microvilli
277
What is the function of the intercalated cells?
Maintain the acid-base balance of the body
278
What is the function of the prinicpal cells?
Maintain the water and salt balance of the body
279
What type of nephron has a loop of henle that deeply invades the medulla?
juxtamedullary nephrons
280
Why are the juxtamedullary nephrons important?
They help in the production of concentrated urine
281
What wraps around the loop of henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?
The vasa recta
282
What is the function of the glomerulus?
Filtration
283
True or False? The afferent arterioles of the glomerulus have a smaller diameter than the efferent.
False, the afferent have a larger diameter which causes the blood pressure to be higher in nephrons
