Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cardiology > Final Exam--Equine & Food Animal > Flashcards

Final Exam--Equine & Food Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Though all 4 heart sounds are considered normal to hear in the horse, which gallop sound is more common?

A

S4 (atrial contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Contrast pathologic and physiologic(innocent) murmurs

A

Pathologic–backward flow through a valve that should be CLOSED

Physiologic–vibration of forward flow through a valve that should be open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should physiologic murmurs auscultate?

A

short and quiet (no greater than grade 3/6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most common NON-PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia in horses?

A

second degree AV block–type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the rhythm of second degree AV block (type 1)

A

regularly irregular (3 beats, pause, 3 beats, pause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

second degree AV block can be induced by?

A

sedatives (alpha-2 agonists)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What lead to we run horse ECGs on and why?

A

Lead 1–extensive purkinje network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Two most common reasons for a systolic murmur with PMI on left side (adult horses). Where does each localize?

A

Mitral regurgitation (MI)–APEX

Physiologic flow murmur–BASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If you hear a murmur on the left but it’s loudest on the RIGHT, what is it most likely due to?

A

Relative pulmonic stenosis from VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two most common reasons for systolic murmurs with PMI on the RIGHT

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Two common reasons for DIASTOLIC murmurs on the LEFT side in adult horses. Where do they localize?

A

Aortic regurgitation (base)

diastolic flow murmur (apex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When it comes to VSD, you want the lesion to be _____ & have ______ _____

A

small; high velocity (both are GOOD prognostic factors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 defects associated with tetralogy of fallot

A

large VSD
over-riding(reaching) aorta
true stenosis of pulmonary valve
RV hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PMI with tetralogy of fallot is on which side and why?

A

LEFT side (due to right to left shunting of blood…caused by the stenosed pulmonic valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common etiology of aortic insufficiency?

A

Degenerative change (horses > 10yr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A waterhammer (bounding) pulse is indicative of?

A

significant volume overload (due to aortic regurg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which valvular disease is most common in athletic/trained horses?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia of horses?

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the rhythm that you hear with atrial fibrillation

A

irregularly, irregular (pulses are also irregular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 factors that can affect refractory periods in the horse?

A

1) high vagal tone
2) myocardial pathology
3) electrolytes disturbances (low K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common complaint of owner’s in horses with Afib?

A

exercise intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A class 1a antiarrythmic used for conversion of Afib?

A

Quinidine sulfate

vagolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When should conversion for afib not be attempted?

A

When it is due to underlying cardiac disease/heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Concerning ventricular tachycardia (VPCs)

1) HR when Tx should be considered
2) HR that indicates an emergency

A

1) >60bpm

2) >120bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does Magnesium function in treatment of VPCs?

A

works as a Ca antagonist to slow conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cause of 3rd degree AV block in horses?

A

scarring/fibrosis of AV node

27
Q

What 3 electrolytes can impact myocyte contractility?

A

Ca, K, Mg

28
Q

3 main causes of myocardial disease

A

Inflammation (myocarditis)
Degeneration/necrosis
Electrolyte abnormalities

29
Q

How do ionophores cause myocyte degeneration?

A

bypass Na/Ca exchanger and bring Na into the cell, causing less Ca to be transported out

Ca stimulates more Ca leads from SER, causing Ca to build up in the cell and become toxic

30
Q

Most common causes of CHF in horses?

A

Acute & chronic valvular disease

31
Q

Why is alveolar edema uncommon in horses with CHF?

A

their lungs can handle a large amount of venous pressure before fluid enters the alveoli

32
Q

Right-heart failure in horses is most commonly associated with?

A

Chronic left-sided disease/failure that lead to pulmonary hypertension

33
Q

3 drugs that can be used for management of CHF in horses?

A

Digoxin
Pimobendan
Furosemide

34
Q

Location of action for:

1) digoxin
2) Furosemide

A

1) Blocks Na/K ATPase

2) inhibits Na/K/2Cl symporter in thick ascending LoH

35
Q

the 3 categories of vascular disease in horses

A

Thrombosis
Rupture
Vasculitis

36
Q

This disease of horses often occurs secondary to infection (most commonly with Step. equi)

A

Equine Purpura hemorrhagica

37
Q

How does EPH cause vasculitis?

A

deposition of immune complexes in vessel (venule) walls

Type III hypersensitivity

38
Q

Give 3 causes for:

1) increased heart sounds
2) decreased heart sounds

A

Increased:

1) hypomagnesemia
2) cranioventral bronchopneumonia
3) thin animal

Decreased:

1) displacement of heart by a mass
2) change in pericardial or pleural space
3) hypocalcemia

39
Q

Most common pathologic arrhythmia in cattle?

A

atrial fibrillation

40
Q

In cattle, Afib commonly occurs secondary to?

A

an underlying GI disease (i.e. LDA, RDA)

41
Q

Most common cause of pathologic murmurs in adult cattle?

A

valvular disease–Tricuspid insufficiency

42
Q

Where to puncture for pericardiocentesis?

A

Left side, 5th ICS

43
Q

When the heart is located outside the pleural cavity, it’s called?

Where is it most commonly located instead?

A

Ectopia cordis

cervical region

44
Q

The most common atrial septal defect?

A

patent foramen ovale

45
Q

Most common valvular defect in swine?

A

Dysplasia of tricuspid valve

46
Q

What CBC/Chem findings would support a diagnosis of hardware disease?

A

neutrophilic leukocytosis or leukopenia with a left shift

high fibrin, high globulins

47
Q

Most common cause of acquired murmurs in cattle?

A

endocarditis (most common cause of valvular disease)

48
Q

Most common bacteria associated with endocarditis in each spp. and preferred valve site

1) cattle
2) swine

A

1) T. pyogenes; tricuspid valve (listen on R side)

2) S. suis; mitral valve (listen @ L apex)

49
Q

The most common form of cardiomyopathy in livestock?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

50
Q

Which disease is associated with cattle kept at high altitudes?

A

Brisket disease (high altitude disease, mountain sickness)

51
Q

List species from most to least susceptible to ionophore toxicity (list sheep, horses, and cattle)

A

horses (most)
sheep
cattle (least)

52
Q

Ionophore muscle preference in:

1) horses
2) cattle
3) sheep & swine

A

1) prefers cardiac
2) cardiac and skeletal equally affected
3) mainly impacts skeletal muscle

53
Q

Two factors that increase sensitivity to gossypol

A

1) being monogastric (i.e. swine)

2) stress (lowers tolerance)

54
Q

Which part of Senna spp. are considered most hazardous? And which spp. most often develops clinical signs?

A

seeds (put all parts are toxic)

Cattle

55
Q

Grayanotoxin is associated with?

A

Rhododendron spp. (azaleas)

56
Q

primary signs of Grayantoxin ingestion in goats?

A

Vomiting!!!

bradycardia

57
Q

Primary agent associated with bacterial myocarditis in cattle?

A

Histophilus somni

myocarditis develops after a respiratory event (BRDC)

58
Q

2 pathogens associated with myocarditis in swine?

A 
Strep. suis
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (chronic form)
59
Q

Which type of cattle are predisposed to caudal vena cava thrombosis?

A

feedlot/adult cattle that are on high grain diets

60
Q

A tickborne, rickettsial foreign animal disease associated with vasculitis in cattle

A

heartwater

61
Q

Predilection sites for lymphosarcoma

A

HAULS

Heart (RA), abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, spinal cord

62
Q

4 mechanisms of heat dissipation

A

radiation
conduction
convection
evaporation**

**only one that does NOT require temperature gradient

63
Q

The gene involved with porcine stress syndrome

A

halothane gene

64
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of porcine stress syndrome

A

(aka malignant hyperthermia)

A trigger (stressor) causes a rise in intracellular Ca, leading to muscle contraction

Cardiology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions