Final Exam--Equine & Food Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Though all 4 heart sounds are considered normal to hear in the horse, which gallop sound is more common?

A

S4 (atrial contraction)

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2
Q

Contrast pathologic and physiologic(innocent) murmurs

A

Pathologic–backward flow through a valve that should be CLOSED

Physiologic–vibration of forward flow through a valve that should be open

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3
Q

How should physiologic murmurs auscultate?

A

short and quiet (no greater than grade 3/6)

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4
Q

The most common NON-PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia in horses?

A

second degree AV block–type 1

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5
Q

Describe the rhythm of second degree AV block (type 1)

A

regularly irregular (3 beats, pause, 3 beats, pause)

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6
Q

second degree AV block can be induced by?

A

sedatives (alpha-2 agonists)

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7
Q

What lead to we run horse ECGs on and why?

A

Lead 1–extensive purkinje network

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8
Q

Two most common reasons for a systolic murmur with PMI on left side (adult horses). Where does each localize?

A

Mitral regurgitation (MI)–APEX

Physiologic flow murmur–BASE

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9
Q

If you hear a murmur on the left but it’s loudest on the RIGHT, what is it most likely due to?

A

Relative pulmonic stenosis from VSD

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10
Q

Two most common reasons for systolic murmurs with PMI on the RIGHT

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

tricuspid regurgitation

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11
Q

Two common reasons for DIASTOLIC murmurs on the LEFT side in adult horses. Where do they localize?

A

Aortic regurgitation (base)

diastolic flow murmur (apex)

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12
Q

When it comes to VSD, you want the lesion to be _____ & have ______ _____

A

small; high velocity (both are GOOD prognostic factors)

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13
Q

4 defects associated with tetralogy of fallot

A

large VSD
over-riding(reaching) aorta
true stenosis of pulmonary valve
RV hypertrophy

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14
Q

PMI with tetralogy of fallot is on which side and why?

A

LEFT side (due to right to left shunting of blood…caused by the stenosed pulmonic valve)

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15
Q

The most common etiology of aortic insufficiency?

A

Degenerative change (horses > 10yr)

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16
Q

A waterhammer (bounding) pulse is indicative of?

A

significant volume overload (due to aortic regurg)

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17
Q

Which valvular disease is most common in athletic/trained horses?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

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18
Q

Most common PATHOLOGIC arrhythmia of horses?

A

atrial fibrillation

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19
Q

Describe the rhythm that you hear with atrial fibrillation

A

irregularly, irregular (pulses are also irregular)

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20
Q

3 factors that can affect refractory periods in the horse?

A

1) high vagal tone
2) myocardial pathology
3) electrolytes disturbances (low K)

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21
Q

Most common complaint of owner’s in horses with Afib?

A

exercise intolerance

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22
Q

A class 1a antiarrythmic used for conversion of Afib?

A

Quinidine sulfate

vagolytic

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23
Q

When should conversion for afib not be attempted?

A

When it is due to underlying cardiac disease/heart failure

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24
Q

Concerning ventricular tachycardia (VPCs)

1) HR when Tx should be considered
2) HR that indicates an emergency

A

1) >60bpm

2) >120bpm

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25
How does Magnesium function in treatment of VPCs?
works as a Ca antagonist to slow conduction
26
Most common cause of 3rd degree AV block in horses?
scarring/fibrosis of AV node
27
What 3 electrolytes can impact myocyte contractility?
Ca, K, Mg
28
3 main causes of myocardial disease
Inflammation (myocarditis) Degeneration/necrosis Electrolyte abnormalities
29
How do ionophores cause myocyte degeneration?
bypass Na/Ca exchanger and bring Na into the cell, causing less Ca to be transported out Ca stimulates more Ca leads from SER, causing Ca to build up in the cell and become toxic
30
Most common causes of CHF in horses?
Acute & chronic valvular disease
31
Why is alveolar edema uncommon in horses with CHF?
their lungs can handle a large amount of venous pressure before fluid enters the alveoli
32
Right-heart failure in horses is most commonly associated with?
Chronic left-sided disease/failure that lead to pulmonary hypertension
33
3 drugs that can be used for management of CHF in horses?
Digoxin Pimobendan Furosemide
34
Location of action for: 1) digoxin 2) Furosemide
1) Blocks Na/K ATPase | 2) inhibits Na/K/2Cl symporter in thick ascending LoH
35
the 3 categories of vascular disease in horses
Thrombosis Rupture Vasculitis
36
This disease of horses often occurs secondary to infection (most commonly with Step. equi)
Equine Purpura hemorrhagica
37
How does EPH cause vasculitis?
deposition of immune complexes in vessel (venule) walls *Type III hypersensitivity*
38
Give 3 causes for: 1) increased heart sounds 2) decreased heart sounds
Increased: 1) hypomagnesemia 2) cranioventral bronchopneumonia 3) thin animal Decreased: 1) displacement of heart by a mass 2) change in pericardial or pleural space 3) hypocalcemia
39
Most common pathologic arrhythmia in cattle?
atrial fibrillation
40
In cattle, Afib commonly occurs secondary to?
an underlying GI disease (i.e. LDA, RDA)
41
Most common cause of pathologic murmurs in adult cattle?
valvular disease--Tricuspid insufficiency
42
Where to puncture for pericardiocentesis?
Left side, 5th ICS
43
When the heart is located outside the pleural cavity, it's called? Where is it most commonly located instead?
Ectopia cordis cervical region
44
The most common atrial septal defect?
patent foramen ovale
45
Most common valvular defect in swine?
Dysplasia of tricuspid valve
46
What CBC/Chem findings would support a diagnosis of hardware disease?
neutrophilic leukocytosis or leukopenia with a left shift high fibrin, high globulins
47
Most common cause of acquired murmurs in cattle?
endocarditis (most common cause of valvular disease)
48
Most common bacteria associated with endocarditis in each spp. and preferred valve site 1) cattle 2) swine
1) T. pyogenes; tricuspid valve (listen on R side) | 2) S. suis; mitral valve (listen @ L apex)
49
The most common form of cardiomyopathy in livestock?
dilated cardiomyopathy
50
Which disease is associated with cattle kept at high altitudes?
Brisket disease (high altitude disease, mountain sickness)
51
List species from most to least susceptible to ionophore toxicity (list sheep, horses, and cattle)
horses (most) sheep cattle (least)
52
Ionophore muscle preference in: 1) horses 2) cattle 3) sheep & swine
1) prefers cardiac 2) cardiac and skeletal equally affected 3) mainly impacts skeletal muscle
53
Two factors that increase sensitivity to gossypol
1) being monogastric (i.e. swine) | 2) stress (lowers tolerance)
54
Which part of Senna spp. are considered most hazardous? And which spp. most often develops clinical signs?
seeds (put all parts are toxic) Cattle
55
Grayanotoxin is associated with?
Rhododendron spp. (azaleas)
56
primary signs of Grayantoxin ingestion in goats?
Vomiting!!! | bradycardia
57
Primary agent associated with bacterial myocarditis in cattle?
Histophilus somni *myocarditis develops after a respiratory event (BRDC)*
58
2 pathogens associated with myocarditis in swine?
``` Strep. suis Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (chronic form) ```
59
Which type of cattle are predisposed to caudal vena cava thrombosis?
feedlot/adult cattle that are on high grain diets
60
A tickborne, rickettsial foreign animal disease associated with vasculitis in cattle
heartwater
61
Predilection sites for lymphosarcoma
HAULS Heart (RA), abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, spinal cord
62
4 mechanisms of heat dissipation
radiation conduction convection evaporation** **only one that does NOT require temperature gradient
63
The gene involved with porcine stress syndrome
halothane gene
64
Describe the pathogenesis of porcine stress syndrome
(aka malignant hyperthermia) A trigger (stressor) causes a rise in intracellular Ca, leading to muscle contraction