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RUSVM Animal Nutrition > Final Exam - Dr. Roberson's Material > Flashcards

Final Exam - Dr. Roberson's Material Flashcards

The material in this deck covers the majority of topics covered throughout Beef Cattle, Dairy Cattle, Cattle Nutrition, Small Ruminant Nutrition, and Camelid Nutrition. Information is not guaranteed and should not be used as sole study material.

1
Q

How much colostrum needs to be consumed by the dairy calf to avoid failure of passive transfer?

A

4 quarts

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2
Q

What is the average weaning age of US dairy heifer calves?

A

8.4 weeks

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3
Q

The best time to wean dairy calves from milk is?

A

When calves are eating 2 lbs calf starter

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4
Q

2-3 month old heifers require ____% of nutrients from grain

A

75

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5
Q

The ratio of grain to forage for heifers 3-6 mo is:

A

50:50

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6
Q

Which picture is from a grain-fed calf?

A

B (the middle one)

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7
Q

The orphaned beef calf needs ____ quarts of colostrum to achieve successful passive transfer

A

2 quarts beef colostrum

-or-

4 quarts of dairy colostrum

This is because dairy breeds produce lower concentrations of immunoglobulins in their colostrum than beef breeds

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8
Q

What is the average weaning age for beef cattle?

A

150-180 days

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9
Q

The low critical temperature at which we need to add energy to the bovine diet is:

A

32 degrees F

increase 1% for each degree the wind chill is below the 32 degree lower critical temperature (so need to consider the wind chill…not just the ambient temp)

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10
Q

What is the lower critical temperature for cows with a wet hair coat?

A

59 degrees F

The requirements change twice as much to 2% for each degree below 59 degrees F.

The fact that it is not feasible to feed a wet, very cold cow enough to maintain her current body condition, underscores the need for cows to be in “good” body condition at the start of winter

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11
Q

What is the ideal BCS for beef cattle?

A

~5-6

(varies between sources)

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12
Q

Heifers should be ___% of mature weight at breeding and ___% of mature weight at calving

A

Heifers should be 65% of mature weight at breeding and 85% of mature weight at calving

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13
Q

What is a big problem associated with feeding dry distiller’s grains to beef cattle?

A

Sulfur Toxicity (Polioencephalomalacia)

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14
Q

Baby llamas need to eat about ___% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

A

Baby llamas need to eat about 2% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

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15
Q

Adult llamas need to eat about __% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

A

Adult llamas need to eat about 1% of body weight to meet nutrient requirements

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16
Q

Regarding Vitamin D requirements: ________ may occur in neonatal camelids kept indoors

A

Rickets

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17
Q

When should additional supplements be considered for llamas?

A

Additional supplements should be considered for growing, pregnant, or lactating stock

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18
Q

A baby llama is called a:

A

cria

and that’s just adorable

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19
Q

A cria will suckle about every _____ hours for about ____ minutes

A

~every 2-3 hours for about 5 minutes

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20
Q

If you must feed colostrum to crias, how much should you give?

A

10-12% of body weight per day

Divide into multiple feedings (every 4 hours or so)

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21
Q

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

Fresh water is needed to help prevent _________ in males

A

urincary calculi

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22
Q

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

It is important to feed sheep mineral to sheep in order to help prevent ____________

A

Copper toxicity

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23
Q

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

classic “white muscle disease” which presents as extreme stiffness and tightness of muscle and muscle pain, is a result of ______________

A

Selenium deficiency

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24
Q

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

If your goat (yes, you suddenly have a goat) is showing symmetrical hair loss, rough hair coats, weight loss, and generalized unthriftiness; red skin, itchiness, thick crusts on legs, face and ears, scaly skin over the rest of the body…

What would you suspect to be the problem?

A

Zinc deficiency

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25
Q

What is the ideal BCS for a goat?

A

2.5-3.5

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26
Q

Enjoy this goat tree and laugh.. because it is finals week

A

lol

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27
Q

Sheep & Goat Nutrition:

How much will a goat/sheep eat per day?

A

3-5% dry matter but some may eat up to 10-11%

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28
Q

What is the ideal BCS for a close-up dry cow (ie. Just before calving)?

A

3.0

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29
Q

Feed and forage cost total ______% of the milk check.

A

Feed and forage cost total 45-60% of the milk check.

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30
Q

What is the ideal BCS of a dairy cow at fresh (parturition/calving)?

A

3.0-3.25

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31
Q

When does peak milk production occur?

A

40-70 days

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32
Q

Numerous anestrus, thin cows with no ovarian structures indicate:

A

Problem with early lactation energy levels and or DMI problems

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33
Q

The quantity of moisture-free feed consumed by a cow in a 24-hr period is the ___________

A

Dry Matter Intake (DMI)

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34
Q

If a feed is 20% DM, how much is water?

A

80%

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35
Q

The cow’s maximum voluntary feed intake (DM capacity) is _________% of body weight

A

The cow’s maximum voluntary feed intake (DM capacity) is 2.25-3.5% of body weight

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36
Q

In open access feed bunks, there should be a minimum of ___ft per animal.

A

In open access feed bunks, there should be a minimum of 2 ft per animal.

*If the pen is overstocked with cattle, there will likely be a larger disparity on BCS. The bigger cows push out the smaller cows *

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37
Q

1400 lb cow: How much can she eat a day?

A

32-49 lbs dry matter

(2.25-3.5% of body weight)

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38
Q

How often should cows eat?

A

Several times a day

*We don’t want that binge eating: aka slug feeding…this is especially important when the diet is high in energy. *

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39
Q

The lower range of an acceptable rumen pH is:

A

5.5

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40
Q

The most efficient and economical time to adjust BCS in a dairy cow is during:

A

late-lactation

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41
Q

The ___________ is a measure of the % of cows lying properly in stalls.

A

Cow-comfort quotient

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42
Q

The cow comfort quotient should be greater than or equal to ____

A

80%

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43
Q

If low milk fat is reported (2.7), what is suspected?

A

Too little fiber (roughage)

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44
Q

What does TMR stand for?

A

Total mixed ration

All the cows requirements (grain, hay, mineral etc) are mixed in a “mixer wagon” and fed as a single selection.

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45
Q

Too much corn may lead to _______ in dairy cows

A

acidosis

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46
Q

Is a forage with a high NDF considered to be high quality or low quality?

A

low quality

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47
Q

Rule of thumb for dry matter intake:

The ideal ration should be between ___% and ___% dry matter

A

The ideal ration should be between 50% and 75% dry matter

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48
Q

Why is it important to feed roughage?

A
  • Provides a fiber mat in the rumen
  • Keeps smaller particles in rumen longer allowing for more efficient digestion
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49
Q

Longer fiber length encourages:

A
  • eructation (burping)
  • cud chewing
  • salivation
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50
Q

Dairy cow nutrition:

It is essential to maintain a rumen pH above ____

A
  1. 5
    * (Rumen microbes need a pH between 5.8-6.8 or so) *
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51
Q

Rumen microbes digest ~___% of intake in dairy cows

A

Rumen microbes digest ~65% of intake in dairy cows

52
Q

What does SARA stand for?

A

Subacute Ruminal Acidosis

53
Q

SARA can lead to several disease problems including ____________

A

liver abscess, poor BCS, laminitis

54
Q

Subtle signs of SARA include:

A
  • reduction in DMI
  • Mild diarrhea
  • moderately distended doughy rumen
  • subsolar hemorrhages
55
Q

If SARA is suspected, a rumen tap is performed on 12 cows. If 25% of the 12 cows are below 5.5 pH, the group is classified as ______________

A

If SARA is suspected, a rumen tap is performed on 12 cows. If 25% of the 12 cows are below 5.5 pH, the group is classified as experiencing ruminal acidosis

56
Q

Pictured below is ruminitis associated with ____________

A

slug feeding

57
Q

Pictured below are liver abcesses associated with _____________

A

SARA

(whatever man, she’s a bitch anyway)

58
Q

Distiller’s grains are a good source of __________

A

protein & energy

59
Q

You calculate the “cow-comfort quotient” in a herd to be 80%. Do you need to take any actions?

A

No, but would be good to recheck at next visit because this is the minimal desired level.

60
Q

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Upper Tier: ___% TMR

A

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Upper Tier: 6-10% TMR

61
Q

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Middle Tier: ___% TMR

A

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Middle Tier: 30-50% TMR

62
Q

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Lower Tier: ___% TMR

A

Shaker Box - Particle Separator Recommendations

Lower Tier: 40-60% TMR

63
Q

What is a transition ration?

A

A ration that slowly adjusts a cow to a higher CHO diet

64
Q

What is the purpose of a transition diet (3 weeks prepartum)?

A

Adapt rumen and rumen microbes to new diet

65
Q

Numerous postpartum cows have developed milk fever.

**Which ration should be evaluated? **

A

dry cow ration

66
Q

Research has found that high ______ diets result in less milk fever

A

Research has found that high sulfur diets (more acidic) result in less milk fever

67
Q

__________ diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity.

A

Acidogenic diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity.

68
Q

Acidogenic diets promote bone __________ because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity.

A

Acidogenic diets promote bone Ca resorption because bone acts as an important buffer for excessive systemic acidity.

69
Q

Anionic salts should decrease milk fever by ___%.

A

Anionic salts should decrease milk fever by 50%.

70
Q

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

They are best fed in ______.

A

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

They are best fed in TMR.

71
Q

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

________ & ________ are the worst feeding methods for giving anionic salts

A

Anionic salts are highly unpalpable.

grain & mineral are the worst feeding methods for giving anionic salts

72
Q

Approach to Anionic Salt Supplementation

Monitor dietary intake. If intake decreases, ________ anionic salt.

(increase or decrease)

A

Monitor dietary intake. If intake decreases, decrease anionic salt.

73
Q

You run a TMR through a Penn State shaker box. Which of the following statements represents an abnormal %?

a) 50% in the top
b) 50% in the middle
c) 50% in the bottom

A

You run a TMR through a Penn State shaker box. Which of the following statements represents an abnormal %?

a) 50% in the top

b) 50% in the middle
c) 50% in the bottom

74
Q

If urine pH is too high, ______ anionic salt is needed.

(more or less)

A

If urine pH is too high, more anionic salt is needed.

75
Q

If urine pH is too low, ______ anionic salt can be fed.

(more or less)

A

If urine pH is too low, less anionic salt can be fed.

76
Q

Anionic salts are used to control ________.

A

Anionic salts are used to control milk fever.

77
Q

The transition diet is primarily used during what period?

A

late dry

78
Q

What does NEFA stand for?

A

Nonesterified Fatty Acids

79
Q

elevated NEFA suggests ________________.

A

elevated NEFA suggests negative energy balance.

80
Q

____________ is the major source of protein for the cow.

A

Microbial protein

81
Q

How does heat stress affect cattle nutrition?

A

If the temperature is above 77 degrees, DMI (Dry Matter Intake) declines

If the temperature is above 86 degrees, DMI (Dry Matter Intake) declines even more!

*Ration feeding time may need to be adjusted during periods of heat stress or milk production will decline or cool the cows. *

82
Q

When large amounts of fiber are fed, the predominate fatty acid is:

A

Acetate (60-70%)

83
Q

Sugars and starches increase the amount of which fatty acid?

A

Propionate

84
Q

Which supplies more energy: fat or CHO?

A

Fats (about 2.25x more)

85
Q

Caution is required when feeding fats. Why?

A

Feeding > 3-5% DM (another source says > 7-8 %) may be toxic to rumen bugs

Remember: “A healthy rumen = a healthy cow”

86
Q

What vitamins need to be added to the cow’s diet?

A

A, D, & E

87
Q

Most grains are __% DM.

A

Most grains are 90% DM.

88
Q

Feeding grain in the milking parlor is an example of ______ feeding.

A

Feeding grain in the milking parlor is an example of slug feeding.

89
Q

~ How much protein is in SBM (soybean meal)?

A

44%

This is the most common protein supplement

90
Q

Why can only a limited amount of soybean meal be fed?

A

It contains ~18% fat.

The rumen can’t handle plant fat very well because the rumen’s a sensitive mother f*****

91
Q

Urea should not be fed with raw soybeans because soybeans contain urease and this combo could lead to __________.

A

Urea should not be fed with raw soybeans because soybeans contain urease and this combo could lead to urea toxiciosis.

92
Q

From Roberson’s Slides:

Wherever _________ intake goes, milk production is soon to follow.

A

Wherever dry matter intake goes, milk production is soon to follow.

93
Q

True or False:

Dry matter intake can be directly measured by daily milk production.

A

False.

94
Q

For every pound of additional peak milk, the cow gives ~___ lb of milk more in the first 10 mo of lactation.

A

For every pound of additional peak milk, the cow gives ~200 lbs of milk more in the first 10 mo of lactation.

95
Q

Cows can develop Grass Tetany due to ____________

A

Cows can develop Grass Tetany due to low magnesium

96
Q

Nitrate poisoning in beef cattle is typically caused by ________

A

Nitrate poisoning in beef cattle is typically caused by draught

97
Q

Name a few methods that control urinary calculi

A
  • a lowering of urinary phosphorus levels
  • rations high in dietary phosphorus should be avoided
  • Acidification of the urine may be achieved by the feeding of acid forming salts
  • an increase in urine volume
  • feed plenty of fresh water
98
Q

Growing heifers should be fed which sort of hay?

A

high quality hay (alfalfa)

99
Q

Describe creep feeding

A

Creep feeding is the practice of providing nursing calves with the opportunity to eat feed to which the cows do not have access.

100
Q

How would you manage a hypoglycemic newborn calf?

A

give dextrose

101
Q

True or false: anionic salts can be toxic if force-fed.

A

True

102
Q

How much colostrum does a dairy calf need?

A

1 gallon within 12 hours of birth

Gut is permeable to antibodies at birth and closes down by 24 hours

103
Q

What is colostrum
?

A

immunoglobulin (antibodies) rich first milk

first milking provides the highest quality colostrum

104
Q

If you find a Failure of Passive Transfer (FPT) calf that is 3 days old, what is the BEST thing you can do to correct the FPT?

A

Perform a plasma transfusion

105
Q

Feeding cattle in this manner increases the risk of _____ in the calves.

A

Diarrhea

106
Q

In beef cattle, low magnesium leads to __________

A

In beef cattle, low magnesium leads to grass tetany

107
Q

In beef cattle, copper deficiency leads to __________

A

In beef cattle, copper deficiency leads to faded hair coat

108
Q

In beef cattle, Selenium deficiency leads to __________

A

In beef cattle, Selenium deficiency leads to white muscle disease

109
Q

Enlarged thyroid glands in goats and sheep are likely due to ____________

A

Iodine deficiency

110
Q

What the hell is a stocker calf?

A

A weaned calf that is not ready for the feedlot

111
Q

Heifers should be __% of their mature weight at breeding

A

65

112
Q

What is a prominent symptom of urinary calculi?

A

hump handle tail

113
Q

Hay should be ___% dry matter

A

80%

114
Q

Frozen water and snow can predispose goats to ____________

A

Frozen water and snow can predispose goats to urinary calculi

115
Q

Pregnancy Toxemia (Ketosis) can be developed when ________ needs are not met

A

Pregnancy Toxemia (Ketosis) can be developed when energy needs are not met

116
Q

How is zinc typically supplied?

A

trace mineral salts

117
Q

Who is at the highest rist of becoming ketotic?

A

fat does and ewes with multiple feti (fetuses?)

118
Q

Camelids are obligate _______ breathers

A

nasal

119
Q

___ compartment in the camelid is the largest and is equivalent to the rumen in the ruminant

A

C1 compartment in the camelid is the largest and is equivalent to the rumen in the ruminant

120
Q

___ compartment in the camelid is the ‘true stomach’

A

C3 compartment in the camelid is the ‘true stomach’

121
Q

Camelids only require ___% (of BW) protein for maintenance

A

Camelids only require 10% (of BW) protein for maintenance

122
Q

What does cobalt deficiency in camelids lead to?

A

death!!!!!

123
Q

What does ADG stand for?

A

Average Daily Gain

(how many pounds gained per day)

124
Q

What is the ideal pH of the rumen of a dairy cow?

A

6.2

125
Q

Which of the following would result in the greatest saliva production?

green chop

cottonseed

timothy

A

Timothy hay, because it is dry, will lead to more cud-chewing (and therefore more saliva)

126
Q

Less than ___ total protein is complete failure of passive transfer

A

Less than 4.5 total protein is complete failure of passive transfer

127
Q

You would measure _______ level to determine failure of passive transfer

A

You would measure protein level to determine failure of passive transfer

RUSVM Animal Nutrition (5 decks)

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