Final Exam - Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

most executive functions have been associated with which part of the brain?

A

prefrontal cortex

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2
Q

are the boundaries of the prefrontal cortex within the frontal well or poorly defined?

A

poorly defined

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3
Q

miller and cohen suggest that the PFC serves to enforce rules that are ___ to a given situation
-ex. it’s ok to wipe food off your child’s mouth, but not your uber driver’s mouth

A

appropriate

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4
Q

the PFC also manages ____ to the rules
-ex. it’s ok (heroic even) to grab a stranger’s arm and yank them (if they’re about to step in front of a bus)

A

exceptions

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5
Q

relative positions of regions within the PFC:

___ = toward midline

A

medial

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6
Q

relative positions of regions within the PFC:

___ = away from midline

A

lateral

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7
Q

relative positions of regions within the PFC:

___ = toward back (or top of head)

A

dorsal

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8
Q

relative positions of regions within the PFC:

___ = toward belly (or jaw of head)

A

ventral

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9
Q

connectivity tracing studies reveal distinct ___ and ___ PFC networks, along with overlapping regions of shared connectivity

A

lateral and medial

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10
Q

___ PFC networks support: “general purpose peerceptual-motor preparatory, goal monitoring”

A

lateral PFC networks

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11
Q

___ PFC networks support: “emotion/memory integration, physical awareness”

A

medial PFC networks

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12
Q

true or false: both PFC networks depend on “motor control, conflict monitoring”

A

true

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13
Q

brain lesion data links ___ PFC damage with a lack of action, initiative, and planning

A

lateral

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14
Q

patients respond OK to questions, show normal-ish IQ, but fail to prepare for the future, stick to a task, or maintain attention for longer than a few moments. if left alone, they sit down and don’t initiate any action at all

A

dysexecutive syndrome

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15
Q

___ PFC damage is linked with excessive, impulsive action, without self awareness

A

medial PFC damage

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16
Q

people with damage to the medial aspects of the PFC typically show ___ syndrome

A

disinhibition syndrome

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17
Q

deficits in controlling aspects of behavior
-they have problems integrating emotional information into decision making processes
-they are unaware of their inappropriate behavior, and appear manic, impulsive, and disorganized

A

disinhibition syndrome

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18
Q

____ medial PFC lesions can lead to bizarre behavior that is overly influenced by contextual cues
-these “environmental dependency” patients primarily react to whatever is around them, without any appreciation of social rulees

A

anterior medial PFC

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19
Q

ex. of anterior medial PFC lesions

A

walking into a room in which there is a picture leaning against the wall, along with a hammer and some nails - the person will immediately start hanging up the photo

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20
Q

a common method of evoking rule conflict in the lab

A

stroop task

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21
Q

true or false: relating and resolving conflicting rules is associated with a well functioning dorsomedial PFC

A

true

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22
Q

the ___ PFC is strongly linked to working memory, which involves the maintenance and manipulation of relevant information, along with the exclusion of irrelevant information

A

dorsolateral PFC (DLPFC)

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23
Q

do we see little or lots of evidence for DLPFC activity in working memory tasks in fMRI studies?

A

lots of

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24
Q

an alternative model by Cowan suggests that working memory is just the subset of ___ long term memory items (and conceptually associated items) that have been used in the last few minutes

A

genetic

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25
Q

alternative model proposed by Cowan: this smaller subset of all items in working memory are capable of being manipulated by the “central executive” - or ___

A

consciousness

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26
Q

the ___ also contributes to working memory

A

basal ganglia

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27
Q

a series of paired objects are presented, and your task is to decide if one of them matches the last set

A

dynamic working memory task

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28
Q

is the basal ganglia enhanced or hindered by difficult working memory trials?

A

enhanced

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29
Q

is rule learning handled solely in the prefrontal cortex?

A

no ; the basal ganglia makes a real contribution

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30
Q

is there evidence for distinct PFC-basal-ganglia-thalamic networks that support “executive” functions within motor, cognitive, and emotional domains?

A

yes

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31
Q

motor loop (3 components)

A
  1. primary motor
  2. premotor
  3. supplementary motor cortex
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32
Q

prefrontal loop

A

dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

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33
Q

affective loop (2 components)

A

anterior cingulate and orbitofrontal cortex

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34
Q

language is most strongly associated with which two areas of the brain?

A

left IFG (broca’s area) and L posterior auditory association cortex (wernicke’s area)

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35
Q

broca’s area

A

left IFG

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36
Q

wernicke’s area

A

L posterior auditory association cortex

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37
Q

relationship between broca’s area and wernicke’s area

A

densely interconnected, but independently support different aspects of language processing

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38
Q

damage to broca’s area

A

production deficits

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39
Q

damage to wernicke’s area

A

comprehension deficits

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40
Q

aprosodia (“robotic speech”) results from ___ hemisphere damage

A

right hemisphere

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41
Q

efficient language processing is strongly dependent on ___ we generate about upcoming words within a sentence
-this greatly speeds our ability to process language

A

expectations

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42
Q

if we present folks with a series of words, we can see an ERP that appears after a word that doesn’t meet these expectations, an ____
-this is distinct from the P300 ERP

A

N400

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42
Q

only ___ based violations trigger the N400

A

meaning-based

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42
Q

____ deviance (ex. a different font, or spoken by a different person) evoke a P300-like ERP

A

non-semantic

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43
Q

the bigger the deviation, the larger the ___

A

N400

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43
Q

any given language is made up of just ___ to ___ phones (or speech sounds)

A

30-100

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44
Q

there are only around ___ phones in all languages

A

200

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45
Q

infants lose the ability to distinguish phones outside their native language by ~___ years of age

A

~2

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46
Q

what is perceived when someone hears a phone

A

phoneme

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47
Q

language is not just auditory. we use both the sound and the sight of someone speaking to decipher language. when the sight doesn’t match the sound, we often perceive a third phoneme, not actually present in either modality

A

the mcgurk effect

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47
Q

when did language emerge in human evolution?

one popular model suggests that our refined speech ability may be due in part to a genetic mutation (____) that happened after humans split from other primates, ~7 million years ago
-we share this gene with all mammals, but ours contain two copies, and this distinction may partially underly our language abilities

A

FOXP2

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48
Q

in humans without a second FOXP2 copy, is language ability seriously (and specifically) enhanced or compromised?

A

compromised

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49
Q

darwin’s model of evolved traits is based on ___ - the slow, continuous refinement of traits, with each tweak providing a fitness benefit

A

gradualism

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50
Q

in contrast, darwin considered human language to have emerged ___, as a result of coincidental genetic mutations in vocal and brain anatomy

A

suddenly

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51
Q

ghazanfar and others review data suggesting that language could have evolved more gradually (maybe other primates’ language is better than we think)
-specifically, he presents evidence for three features:

A
  1. its audiovisual nature (it involves facial cues)
  2. its rhythmicity (speech timing, meter)
  3. its turntaking pattern (conversation coordination)
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52
Q

the audiovisual nature of speech:

both humans and macaques respond faster to ___ audio-visual “speech” stimuli than audio or video alone

A

combined

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53
Q

the rhythmicity of speech:

macaque and human vocalizations have a very similar (and rapid) ___, around 5 per second (HZ)

A

tempo

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54
Q

a typical speech interaction among people consists of vocal exchanges, gaps of silence, and minimal interruptions
-correspondence in back-and-forth timing between human speech and marmoset vocal ‘conversations’

A

turn taking pattern of speech

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55
Q

lots of research shows that just two dimensions describe most of people’s conscious response to emotional things

A

pleasure and arousal

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56
Q

LPP

A

late positive potential

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57
Q

one of the most reliable effects in human emotion neuroscience is the strong enhancement of a long-lasting ERP called the ___ during emotional scene perception

A

LPP

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58
Q

the LPP is strongly correlated (~0.95) with the ___ ratings of a scene (not pleasantness)

A

arousal ratings

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59
Q

EPN

A

early posterior negativity

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60
Q

the EPN effect is strongest for emotional scenes, but can be evoked by emotional hand gestures, faces, and even emotional ___ (a little)

A

words

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61
Q

separate from emotion, the EPN is enhanced by ‘simple’ scenes
-the more complicated the scene, the ___ the EPN

A

weaker

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62
Q

the EPN is often larger for ___ compared to unpleasant scenes, but not the reverse

A

larger for pleasant

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63
Q

the ___ still showed a ‘pleasure’ bias, where the LPP did not

A

EPN

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64
Q

victory scenes modulated the EPN well, but nothing like erotica
-we can’t conclude that the EPN shows a pleasure bias
-this suggests a ___-specific enhancement of the EPN

A

sex-specific

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65
Q

was thee EEPN larger or smaller for nudists than erotica?

A

larger

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66
Q

EPN modulation: a body part bias?

it appears that the scenes showing the most recognizable, upright bodies tend to drive the ___ EPNs

A

strongest

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67
Q

the EPN effect replicated

-the largest EPN was evoked by ___ scenes, followed by ___
-this order ___ for the LPP ; largest for erotica, followed by nudists, then mutilations/anim threat

A

nudist ; erotica ; flips

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68
Q

___ reflects emotion, complexity, and the presence of upright bodies
-our visual systems may be tuned to quickly identify obvious signs of people around us
-may actually include multiple overlapping processees

A

EPN

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69
Q

___ reflects the intensity of our conscious emotional response to whatever is around us
-it does not reflect complexity, body parts, etc. (only that it’s emotional)

A

LPP

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70
Q

what brain mechanisms drive these ERP arousal effects?
-work in rats and primates suggests that this enhancement may be driven by feedback from the ___

A

amygdala

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71
Q

the density of structural connectivity between amygdala and ventral visual cortex reveals heavy ___ connections from amygdala to visual cortex (feedforward path)

A

feedback

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72
Q

we argue that the ventral visual pathway is a ___ and ___ interactive occipitotemporal network linking early visual areas and the anterior IT cortex (aIT) along multiple routes through which visual information is processed

A

recurrent and highly interactive

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73
Q

the amygdala ___ back to almost every area in the occipitotemporal network…
-the precise nature of the modulatory signals arising from the amygdala remains unknown, but such diffusely distributed signals are likely to direct attentional resources to the processing of visual stimuli signaling potential danger or other emotionally intense events

A

projects back

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74
Q

in monkeys and humans, the amygdala shows a burst of emotion-linked activity ~___ms after the presentation of visual emotional cue
-the timing of this amygdala reactivity strongly suggests that it registers emotion before or after visual cortical processing is complete?

A

~150 ms ; after

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75
Q

using standard fMRI, we found that activity in amygdala and late-stage visual fusiform gyrus (IT) are ___ correlated (0.95)

A

strongly

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76
Q

the time point at which brain activity is reliably enhanced for emotional scenes is ___ seconds

A

3.9 seconds

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77
Q

emotional scenes enhanced activity in late-stage ventral visual cortex and amygdala ~___ second earlier than mid-stage visual cortex

A

~1 second

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78
Q

FP network discriminates emotional scenes before or after amygdala and FG?

A

after

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79
Q

Granger analyses showed that the amygdala, OFC, and FG are all influencing each other ___ in ___ directions

A

equally ; both

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80
Q

the entire visual system (outside V1) is enhanced by ___ stimuli

A

emotional

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81
Q

rapid fMRI data suggests that amygdala and FG ___ this emotional discrimination

A

initiate

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82
Q

other emotion-sensitive regions (like FP network, OFC) may be “___” of the emotional quality of stimuli from amygdala and FG

A

“informed”

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83
Q

fMRI work on emotional perception supports a “___ feedback” model of emotional perception

A

“reentrant feedback”

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84
Q

initial discrimination (first feedback wave) = ___ shift

A

EPN

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85
Q

second discrimination is more consistent with ___

A

LPP

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86
Q

a major goal of cognitive neuroscience is to define the relationships between ___

A

brain structure, brain function, and “consciousness”

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87
Q

brain structure pertains to:

A

distinct units (how they’re connected)

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88
Q

brain function pertains to:

A

how the units of the brain operate in real time

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89
Q

consciousness refers to:

A

an emergent property of brain function

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90
Q

what does EEG stand for?

A

electroencephalography

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91
Q

electroencephalography (EEG) provides excellent ____ resolution, but poor ____ resolution

A

temporal ; spatial (when but not exactly where)

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92
Q

millisecond time resolution is characteristic of which noninvasive method?

A

electroencephalography (EEG)

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93
Q

what does fMRI stand for?

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

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94
Q

fMRI provides excellent ___ resolution, but poor ___ resolution

A

spatial ; temporal (where, but not exactly when)

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95
Q

cognitive neuroscience was born from the combination of three related fields of research on the brain and behavior:

A

cognitive psychology, neurology, and neurophysiology/neuroimaging

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96
Q

how the brain works in healthy folks

A

cognitive psychology

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97
Q

cognitive psychology data was explicitly ___ based

A

behavior (avoids brain)

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98
Q

how brain damage affects behavior in clinical patients

A

neurology

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99
Q

neurology data was ___ based

A

deficit (brain-behavior linked)

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100
Q

how healthy brains work in animal models, later including humans with the development of noninvasive brain recording methods

A

neurophysiology/neuroimaging

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101
Q

true or false: despite lots of investigation, there is little agreement about what consciousness is, and how it might be studied

A

true

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102
Q

over the last ~2 million years, the human cortex has nearly ____ in size

A

tripled

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103
Q

cortex = ___

A

cerebral cortex

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104
Q

the cortex consists of mostly ____ tissue

A

homogeneous

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105
Q

the cortex is greatly ____ in primates and is critical to (but not sufficient for) “____” cognition

A

expanded ; “higher-order”

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106
Q

“subcortex” refers to

A

everything else in the brain

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107
Q

cerebellum, thalamus, basal ganglia, amygdala, hippocampus, midbrain, brainstem, etc

A

subcortex

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108
Q

the subcortex is ___ in size and internal structure

A

variable

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109
Q

the subcortex is similar in ____ and ____ with other mammals

A

structure and function

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110
Q

is the subcortex also essential to higher order cognition?

A

yes

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111
Q

what are the three main components of the cortical surface?

A

gyrus, sulcus, and fissure

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112
Q

rounded protrusion of surface cortex (“mountain”)

A

gyrus

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113
Q

depression in surface cortex (“valley”)

A

sulcus

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114
Q

a particularly deep sulcus

A

fissure

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115
Q

___/___ of cortical surface is hidden in sulci and fissures (sulci within sulci)

A

2/3

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116
Q

cortical folding refers to cortical “___”

A

cortical “packaging”

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117
Q

cortical folding allows _____, and (maybe) speeds cortical processing time by keeping all brain regions relatively close together

A

lots of tissue in a small space

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118
Q

4 cortical lobes:

A
  1. frontal lobe
  2. parietal lobe
  3. temporal lobe
  4. occipital lobe
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119
Q

the boundary region between cortical and subcortical structures located between the frontal lobe and temporal lobe

A

insula

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120
Q

the ____ cortex is where the first stage of cortical processing occurs

A

the “primary sensory” cortex

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121
Q

V1 =

A

primary visual cortex

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122
Q

V2 =

A

primary auditory corteex

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123
Q

S1 =

A

sensory

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124
Q

M1 =

A

motor

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125
Q

this view states that the thalamus relays sensory and motor signals up to the cortical processing areas, and downstream to the brainstem (except smell)

A

classic view

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126
Q

recent work has identified that the structure of the thalamus is mostly (~80%) connections from one region of the cortex to another region of the cortex

A

modern view

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127
Q

the thalamus is heavily involved in ___ connections

A

cortico-cortical

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128
Q

rather than primarily carrying sensory input to cortex, and motor signals out to the body (“first order” connections”), the thalamus is instead heavily involved in cortico-cortical connections, which are referred to as ____

A

“higher order” connections

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129
Q

firing modes appear to enhance (____) or inhibit (____) the ‘quality of a connection between brain regions

A

burst ; tonic

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130
Q

the firing mode is changed by relatively long periods of ___ or ___ input from brain stem and cortex

A

excitatory ; inhibitory

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131
Q

two divisions of the nervous system

A

peripheral and central

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132
Q

the autonomic nervous system is part of the ___ nervous system

A

peripheral

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133
Q

two components of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

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134
Q

the ____ nervous system controls self-regulated action of internal organs and glands

A

autonomic

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135
Q

the ____ nervous system controls AROUSING for non-digestive organ systems

A

sympathetic

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136
Q

the ____ nervous system controls CALMING for non-digestive organ systems

A

parasympathetic

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137
Q

the ___ is mostly concerned with housekeeping of the body, but can show strong effects of mental state, such as anticipation or threat reactivity

A

autonomic nervous system

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138
Q

the ___ branch tends to prepare the body for intense action ; ‘fight or flight’

A

sympathetic branch

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139
Q

the ____ branch tends to maintain homeostasis and repair ; ‘rest and digest’

A

parasympathetic branch

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140
Q

our brains make up ____% of our body weight, but consume ____% of our metabolic resources

A

2% ; 20%

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141
Q

functional imaging is dependent on ___ to track brain activity

A

blood flow

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142
Q

____ were historically considered “support” cells for neurons

A

glial cells

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143
Q

we think that there is approximately ___ glial cell for each neuron in the brain

A

one

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144
Q

excitatory and inhibitory from other neurons

A

neuronal input

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145
Q

neuronal summation occurs at the ____

A

axon hillock

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146
Q

how does neuronal output travel

A

down the axon to synapse with next neuron

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147
Q

the ____ neuron releases neurotransmitter (NT) into the synapse, which modulates activity of the ____ neuron, depending on the neurotransmitter and the receptor type

A

presynaptic ; postsynaptic

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148
Q

basal forebrain constellation of cholinergic neurons, including basal nucleus of meynert ; dorsolateral pontine tegmental constellation of cholinergic neurons

A

acetylcholine

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149
Q

is acetylcholine more widespread or more limited?

A

widespread

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150
Q

is serotonin more widespread or more limited?

A

widespread

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151
Q

is dopamine more widespread or more limited?

A

more limited

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152
Q

the function of this neurotransmitter is to enable muscle action, learning, and memory

A

acetylcholine

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153
Q

with alzheimer’s disease, ACh-producing neurons ____

A

deteriorate

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154
Q

the function of this neurotransmitter is to influence movement, learning, attention, and emotion

A

dopamine

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155
Q

excess dopamine receptor activity is linked to ___

A

schizophrenia

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156
Q

starved of dopamine, the brain produces the tremors and decreased mobility of ____

A

parkinson’s disease

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157
Q

the function of this neurotransmitter is to affect mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal

A

serotonin

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158
Q

undersupply of serotonin is linked to ___

A

depression

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159
Q

____ and some other antidepressant drugs raise serotonin levels

A

prozac

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160
Q

the function of this neurotransmitter is to help control alertness and arousal

A

norepinephrine

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161
Q

undersupply of this neurotransmitter can depress mood

A

norepinephrine

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162
Q

___ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)

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163
Q

undersupply of this neurotransmitter is linked to seizures, tremors, and insomnia

A

GABA

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164
Q

____ is a major excitatory neurotransmitter; involved in memory

A

glutamate

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165
Q

oversupply of this neurotransmitter can overstimulate the brain, producing migraines or seizures (which is why some people avoid MSG in food)

A

glutamate

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166
Q

“___” and “___” signals (from other neurons) flow through dendrites and cell body to the axon hillock where these signals are averaged together across the cell and over a short period of time (“___”)

A

“go” and “stop” ; (“summation”)

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167
Q

if ‘go’ signals win, the action potential is the ___ response

A

all or none

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168
Q

neurons fire at a ___ intensity

A

fixed

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169
Q

continuous ‘go’ input can increase the firing rate to the limit of the refractory period, perhaps up to ____ times per second

A

1000

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170
Q

(EEG) records the electrical activity of the ____ in real time

A

cortex

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171
Q

___ brain activity is missing from EEG

A

non-cortical

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172
Q

pyramidal neurons in the cortex are oriented in ____

A

columns

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173
Q

as these neurons sum input from other neurons, their electrical charge becomes more _____ near the outside surface of the cortex

A

voltage-negative

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174
Q

real time or “____” EEG is useful for tracking long-lasting ‘____’ mental states, like alertness or sleep

A

“raw” ; ‘tonic’

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175
Q

repeated averaging enhances the small but consistent ‘hidden’ signal

A

event-related potential (ERP)

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176
Q

true or false: brains will respond pretty much the same on trial one as they do on trial one-thousand

A

true

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177
Q

true or false: different people’s brains respond differently

A

false ; they respond similarly

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178
Q

averaging reveals the small, consistent EERP from the noisy EEG background, sort of like averaging the single pictures of a movie - the ____ elements remain

A

consistent

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179
Q

things that do not change appear ____, while things that do change ____ together

A

bolder ; blend

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180
Q

with ERP, ____ increases, and ____ decreases

A

signal ; noise

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181
Q

what does ERP stand for?

A

event-related potential

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182
Q

early ERP components (~100 ms after stimulus onset) are mostly driven by basic ____ features, like intensity

A

stimulus

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183
Q

early ERP components are sometimes called ____ components, because they are determined outside the body

A

exogenous

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184
Q

later ERP components (~250+ ms after stimulus onset) are mostly driven by _____ meaning of stimuli

A

psychological meaning

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185
Q

later ERP components are sometimes called the _____ components, because they are determined inside the body

A

endogenous

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186
Q

the first ERP component related to a psychological process was the ____

A

P300

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187
Q

a big ERP shift ~300 ms after a ‘rare’ event

A

the P300

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188
Q

the P300 was (and is) a hot area of study because it revealed brain reactivity to all sorts of ‘psychological events,’ including ____ events

A

missing

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189
Q

the P3 is not a sensory response - the P3 can also reflect a ____

A

broken expectation

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190
Q

____ is not recognized in the P3 (it often falls into the background) whereas ____ is noticed immediately

A

consistently ; change

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191
Q

a major problem with ERP

A

source localization

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192
Q

because the brain is ____, not all parts of the brain are perpendicular to the scalp

A

folded

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193
Q

the ____ the activity is from the scalp, the ____ the signal (known as volume conduction)

A

farther ; weaker

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194
Q

as the signal travels, it spreads out, and loses strength (relationship between depth and strength)

A

volume conduction

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195
Q

true or false: strong EEG voltage could represent weak activity close to the scalp OR strong activity from deeper in the brain

A

true

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196
Q

EEG/ERP source localization limitation: electrical activity ____ or _____ among folded sections of cortex

A

combines or cancels

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197
Q

EEG/ERP source localization limitation: source ____ is difficult to distinguish from source depth

A

strength

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198
Q

EEG/ERP source localization limitation: the exact ____ of sources is unknown

A

number

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199
Q

EEG/ERP source localization limitation: each person’s head _____ is slightly different

A

anatomy

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200
Q

what does MEG stand for?

A

magnetoencephalography

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201
Q

MEG looks for the ____ field that accompanies the voltage field

A

magnetic

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202
Q

MEG has the same ____ resolution as ERPs, but better ____ resolution than ERPs

A

temporal ; spatial

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203
Q

what does SQUIDS stand for?

A

superconducting quantum interference devices

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204
Q

do magnetic fields spread out like electric fields as they pass through the brain and skull?

A

no

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205
Q

without the smearing effect of volume conduction, MEG is only limited by the ____ and ____ of SQUIDS

A

size and number

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206
Q

MEG loses sensitivity sharply about ____ cm from the SQUID

A

5 cm

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207
Q

MEG is effectively blind to ___ brain structures

A

deep

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208
Q

MEG is really great for ____ cortical tissue, but has no sensitivity to deep cortical stuff

A

surface

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209
Q

what does fMRI stand for?

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

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210
Q

fMRI yields colorful images that represent the ____ of brain activity with good precision, in a way that is easy to grasp

A

location

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211
Q

3 elements of MRI:

A
  1. strong, fixed magnet
  2. radio emitter and receiver
  3. weak, variable magnets
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212
Q

magnetic hydrogen protons (in water) align with the field, and spin at a known rate (128 MHz for a 3T scanner)

A

strong, fixed magnet

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213
Q

resonance radio wave energy at 128 MHz will “resonate with H protons and tilt them away from the main field

A

radio emitter and receiver

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214
Q

imaging smaller fields are added to across the area to be scanned, which allow a 2D image to be constructed

A

weak, variable magnets

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215
Q

this imaging method essentially detects the density of ____ in tissue, produces a stack of sharp images in about 15 minutes

A

structural MRI

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216
Q

this imaging method involves repeated, lower-resolution imaging of the brain, showing interest in image intensity as it CHANGES OVER TIME)

A

functional MRI (fMRI)

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217
Q

instead of focusing on water concentration, fMRI focuses on the small changes in signal intensity that accompany changes in local ____ oxygenation (BOLD contrast)

A

blood oxygenation

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218
Q

what does BOLD contrast stand for?

A

blood oxygen level dependent

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219
Q

high activity states trigger local increases in blood flow and volume (via astrocytes)
the “resupply” exceeds demand by about ____%

A

30%

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220
Q

this 30% excess of oxygenated blood ____ MRI signal intensity, because oxygenated blood contains slightly ____ iron than deoxygenated blood

A

increases ; less

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221
Q

how does iron affect magnetic fields?

A

it perturbs magnetic fields and causes signal intensity to sharply drop

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222
Q

because BOLD tracks the blood flow change, and not the neural activity that triggered it, BOLD signal onset is ____ and lasts for several seconds after scene offset

A

delayed

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223
Q

fMRI’s biggest weakness:

A

the typical fMRI sampling rate is far slower than the speed of the brain

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224
Q

true or false: consciousness is defined as correlated activity across at least 75% of the brain

A

false; there is little agreement about what consciousness is

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225
Q

true or false: consciousness is defined as the electrochemical activity of the brain oscillating above ~15 Hz

A

false; there is little agreement about what consciousness is

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226
Q

human skull volume has ____ over the last 2 million years

A

tripled

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227
Q

human skull volume has ____ over the last 5,000 years
a. remained stable
b. increased slightly
c. doubled
d. tripled

A

a. remained stable

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228
Q

human cortex shows unique structural features, such as:
a. homogeneous tissue organized in columns and layers
b. dense convolutions, including gyri and sulci
c. left-right symmetry in structure
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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229
Q

true or false: the fissures of the cortex are unique to all individuals

A

false

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230
Q

true or false: subcortical structures operate independently from the cortex

A

false

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231
Q

true or false: the cerebral cortex contains primarily neurons, while subcortical structures are primarily glial cells

A

false

232
Q

true or false: the autonomic nervous system is part of the central nervous system

A

false ; part of the peripheral nervous system

233
Q

true or false: psychological states can strongly influence the autonomic nervous system

A

true

234
Q

what autonomic branch would be expected to be more active after eating a large meal?

A

parasympathetic

235
Q

the thalamus may be critical to consciousness because of its:
a. broad structural connectivity with cortex and brainstem
b. high proportion of cortical - cortical connections
c. capability to switch between “burst” and “tonic” modes of transmission
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

236
Q

a neuron is more likely to fire when:
a. excitatory input arrives on the cell body, vs. a dendrite
b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time
c. excitatory input at the hillock follows multiple inhibitory inputs on the dendrites
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

237
Q

neurons fire at a ___ intensity

A

fixed

238
Q

a neuron is more likely to fire when:
a. excitatory input arrives on the cell body, vs. a dendrite
b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time
c. inhibitory input at the hillock follows multiple inhibitory inputs on the dendrites
d. all of the above

A

b. multiple excitatory inputs arrive simultaneously, vs. over time

239
Q

perception = ___ + ___

A

sensation + prediction based on experience

240
Q

our visual systems quickly and efficiently represent the world with limited ___ by making use of lots of past ___

A

limited information ; past experience

241
Q

what we perceive is a ___ of what comes into our senses, guided (or biased) by what we have seen most often in our lifetime

A

construction

242
Q

we have so much experience viewing ___ that our visual systems can sometimes lead us to perceive anything with many face-like features as being a face, at least momentarily

A

faces

243
Q

the visual system develops over ___ to become efficient at classifying things commonly around you

A

childhood

244
Q

photoreceptors that are sensitive to brightness

A

rods

245
Q

photoreceptors that are sensitive to color

A

cones

246
Q

the ___ is concentrated with cones

A

fovea

247
Q

central fixation of the fovea

A

0 degrees

248
Q

rods dominate ___

A

peripheral vision

249
Q

pathway to cortex:

A
  1. retinal input
  2. ‘crosses over’ at the chiasm
  3. left or right visual field is processed in the opposite lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and occipital cortex
250
Q

a “first order” thalamic nucleus

A

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

251
Q

the right visual field is processed solely in the ___ primary visual cortex (V1), and vice versa

A

right visual field - left primary visual cortex

left visual field - right primary visual cortex

252
Q

the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is a component of which part of the brain?

A

thalamus

253
Q

the LGN of the thalamus transfers retinal input to ___ in successive stages

A

V1

254
Q

when transferring retinal input from the LGN to V1, first, a coarse “gist” of the scene is sent, followed by the fine details over the next ~___ms

A

~10 ms

255
Q

slow, detailed (“specific”)

A

parvo

256
Q

fast, coarse (“global”)

A

magno

257
Q

the primary visual cortex (V1) is located along the ___ fissure

A

calcarine fissure

258
Q

the primary visual cortex (V1) receives retinal input according to the ___ of the stimulus in the visual field

A

location

259
Q

the ___ half of your visual field is routed to right V1

A

left

260
Q

the ___ field areas are routed to the inferior back of V1

A

upper field areas

261
Q

the ___ fixation point is routed to posterior V1

A

central fixation point

262
Q

___ areas route to anterior V1

A

peripheral areas

263
Q

for every degree of the visual field, separate clusters of V1 neurons are sensitive to different ___ (edges, contrast, brightness) of objects in that location

A

visual features

264
Q

despite considerable differences in our left and right eye’s visual field, we see ___ image

A

one unified image

265
Q

the mystery of binocular vision: each of our eyes sees a different view, yet the image we see is uniform

how is this “convergence” accomplished?

A

we haven’t figured it out exactly

266
Q

why do we have two eyes? there is a consistent difference across prey/predator species in ___ vs. ___ processing

A

peripheral vs. depth processing

267
Q

___ overlap in visual field (both eyes facing ___) gives a much better account of our distance to the object

A

wide overlap ; both eyes facing forward

268
Q

prey eyes vs. predator eyes

A

prey eyes - stronger peripheral vision

269
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) directs left and right visual input to V1, but keeps track of which eye the retinal input came from in layer ___

A

layer 4

270
Q

if we present conflicting information into each eye, our perception switches back and forth between the two

A

binocular rivalry

271
Q

according to binocular rivalry, there must be some ___ and ___ between left and right eye input, reflecting ‘higher order’ (late visual cortex and prefrontal cortex) processes that bias our perception toward one stimulus

A

competition and choice

272
Q

binocular rivalry task: when presented a happy face, a neutral face, or an unhappy face, people have a slightly greater likelihood of reporting an __ face than a ___ face

A

emotional face ; neutral face

273
Q

the visual system converts the light at the retina into the basic properties of visual perception including: (5 components)

A
  1. lightness
  2. color
  3. depth
  4. size
  5. motion
274
Q

___ qualities can be different from the physical properties of visual stimuli as measured by purely objective methods (ex. was the dress white and gold or blue and black?)

A

perceived

275
Q

lightness is a ___ quality, while luminance is a ___ property of an object

A

perceived quality ; physical property

276
Q

the ___ of an object is not directly related to the ___ of an object

A

lightness ; luminance

277
Q

lightness could be described as a ___ value, dependent upon local ___ and prior ___

A

calculated value ; local context ; prior experience

278
Q

our visual systems have not evolved to determine the “___” nature of stimuli, only what we need to manage

A

“true”

279
Q

through infancy and early childhood (by ___ and ___) we learn what visual features are “correct” and use this information to interpret future scenes

A

trial and error

280
Q

around what age do we learn what visual features are correct?

A

around age 3 or 4

281
Q

a global distinction can be made between “___” and “___” visual pathways, although recent data suggests the streams are more mixed

A

“what” and “where” pathways

282
Q

two pathways within the primary and extrastriate visual cortex:

A

where pathway and what pathway

283
Q

where pathway - ___ stream

A

dorsal stream

284
Q

analysis of motion and spatial relations within this pathway

A

where pathway

285
Q

what pathway - ___ stream

A

ventral stream

286
Q

analysis of form and color within this pathway

A

what pathway

287
Q

ventral visual cortex: early vs. late stage:

a rough distinction can be made between early visual (“___”) and later visual (“____”) processing regions

A

(“simple”) and (“complex categorical”)

288
Q

which part of the brain is utilized during late stage?

A

inferior temporal (IT) visual cortex)

289
Q

which part of the brain is utilized during early/mid stage?

A

occipital visual cortex (V1, V2, V3…)

290
Q

visual cortex - general locations:

this part of the brain is medial inferior temporal

A

parahippocampal gyrus

291
Q

visual cortex - general locations:

this part of the brain is lateral inferior temporal

A

fusiform gyrus

292
Q

visual cortex - general locations:

this part of the brain is referred to as the “transition area”

A

lateral occipital

293
Q

visual cortex - general locations:

this area of the brain is middle temporal

A

area MT

294
Q

early/mid stage of visual processing occurs within:

A

V1, V2, V3, V3a

295
Q

‘early stage’ :
‘late stage’ :

A

‘early stage’ : V1, V2, V3
‘late stage’ : everything else

296
Q

PPA refers to:

A

parahippocampal “place area”

297
Q

FFA refers to:

A

fusiform “face area”

298
Q

lots of fMRI and invasive data reveals that there are multiple ventral visual regions dedicated to the processing of ___ of things like faces, body parts, words, and others

A

categories

299
Q

where is color perceived?

lesion data suggests that color perception depends on regions of ___ visual cortex, a late stage of visual processing

A

ventral visual cortex

300
Q

patients with damage in the ventral visual cortex (stroke, tumor) often report a ___ loss of color vision, while other visual abilities remain intact

A

specific

301
Q

___ cues can even evoke activation in deeper regions of V1 that represent the peripheral visual field (larger objects)

A

depth cues

302
Q

V1 activity at central fixation, representing a small object activates:

A

only V1 and V2

303
Q

V1 activity at central fixation and periphery, representing a large object activates:

A

V1-5

304
Q

the illusory effect in V1 depends on feedback from ___ brain regions

because fMRI reflects average activity over seconds of time, we can see this ___ effect in V1

A

later brain regions ; context effect

305
Q

in the ___ (a type of monkey), the organization and timing of visual processing stages is relatively well known

A

macaque

306
Q

visual information is integrated and resolved along the ventral pathway until task-driven decisions can be made in PFC around ~___ ms

A

~150 ms

307
Q

the first stage of visual processing in V1 is purely ___ driven (“___”)

A

stimulus driven ; (“bottom up”)

308
Q

the first stage of visual processing in V1 occurs up to around ~___ ms after cue onset

A

~50 ms

309
Q

later V1 activity also reflects ___ from other brain regions (“___”), such as late visual cortex and prefrontal cortex

A

feedback ; (“top-down”)

310
Q

later V1 activity occurs ~___ ms after onset

A

~100 ms

311
Q

feedback biases perception:

~50 ms =

A

~50 ms = pure sensory

312
Q

feedback biases perception:

~120 ms =

A

~120 ms = biased

313
Q

perceptual priming:

one model of this process focuses on visual context, which has been shown to churn information in a repeating cycle of ___ and ___ waves

A

feedforward and feedback waves

314
Q

…we argue that the ventral pathway is a ___ and highly ___ occipitotemporal network linking early visual areas and the anterior IT cortex (aIT) along multiple routes through which visual information is processed

A

recurrent and highly interactive

315
Q

the ventral visual pathway is ___, ___

A

reentrant, nonlinear

316
Q

“…anatomical evidence indicates that the ventral pathway is actually a complex network of feedforward and feedback projections, some of which are unidirectional (ex. non-reciprocal) feedback connections and others of which ___ intermediate areas, allowing direct communication between putative early and late stages of the hierarchy”

A

bypass

317
Q

“visual information from ‘early’ stages of the central route can be transmitted to the most rostral temporal areas or ‘final’ visual processing stages without passing through the ___ areas of the central route”

A

intermediate

318
Q

a reentrant, nonlinear explanation of the ventral visual pathway might explain how late-stage visual cortex could rapidly ___ early visual cortex

A

bias

319
Q

visual cues for ___ and object ___ are so convincing because feedback from late-stage visual cortex seems to activate regions of V1 that represent larger objects (the peripheral visual field)

A

depth and object size

320
Q

because fMRI reflects average activity over seconds of time, we can see this biasing effect in V1, ___ after the feedback has arrived

A

long after

321
Q

the feedback to V1 is limited to basic features that V1 processes, like ___ and ___

A

luminance and size

322
Q

explicit, clear awareness of a face is most strongly tied to ___ activity

A

FFA (fusiform face area)

323
Q

is the FFA only specific to faces?

A

no ; the FFA shows plenty of activity for non-face stimuli too

324
Q

in some studies, the FG is the ___ selective visual area

A

least

325
Q

according to gauthier’s ‘greeble’ study, FFA = ___, and is not a genetic module for faces

A

FFA = experience

326
Q

auditory information, including speech and music, can be quite powerful

true or false: science has come up with a reasonable evolutionary purpose for music

A

false; despite lots of trying, science hasn’t come up with a reasonable evolutionary purpose for music

327
Q

the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and nucleus accumbens are referred to as the ___

A

reward circuit

328
Q

the reward circuit runs on ___

A

dopamine

329
Q

olds and milner (1954) demonstrated (accidentally) that a rat given the ability to self-stimulate the nucleus accumbens (NAcc) would continue to do so until ___ from thirst

A

death

330
Q

what does NAcc stand for?

A

nucleus accumbens

331
Q

in human fMRI studies, ___ rewards (ex. chocolate, cocaine) and ___ rewards (money) will drive reward circuit activity, including subcortical nucleus accumbens (NAcc) and ventromedial prefrontal cortex (mPFC)

A

primary rewards and secondary rewards

332
Q

___ is a powerful driver of NAcc activity

A

methamphetamine (as well as all drugs of abuse and gambling)

333
Q

___ music activates nucleus accumbens (vs. neutral)

A

pleasant (your favorite)

334
Q

___ binding = more dopamine release

A

less binding

335
Q

are pure tones rare or common in the real world?

A

rare (most natural sounds are combinations of many different frequencies)

336
Q

a recent meta-analysis of 47 fMRI studies of music (n=997) found that pleasant music enhances activity in reward (NAcc) and basic emotion regions (amygdala), along with increases in auditory cortex

is it clear how music became linked to this basic reward system?

A

no; how music became linked to this basic reward system is unclear

337
Q

instruments produce sounds that contain multiple ___ (or timbre) which we use to help us discriminate between different sound sources, like a piano vs. a flute

A

harmonics

338
Q

the upper harmonics are a doubling of the ___ (___) frequency

A

fundamental (lowest) frequency

339
Q

with each harmonic, the energy is ___, until it dies out around the ___th or so

A

reduced ; 10th

340
Q

fundamental frequency is always the same: ___ Hz

A

440 Hz

341
Q

does the strength of upper harmonics remain the same or vary?

A

varies widely

342
Q

our auditory systems keep track of all of these simultaneous frequencies by converting sound pressure variation to neuronal input via the ___

A

cochlea

343
Q

this device contains ~48 artificial excitation points in cochlea can be enough for people to decipher speech and other complex sounds

A

cochlear implant

344
Q

the auditory system enables selective filtering of input at the level of the ___, allowing us to focus on frequencies of interest in the moment

A

cochlea

345
Q

from the cochlea, frequencies are sent to the ___

A

primary auditory cortex (A1)

346
Q

sounds are ordered by ___ within A1 (like a piano)

A

frequency

347
Q

our auditory system is hyper-sensitive in the ___-___ range

A

2-5k range

348
Q

specialization of the auditory system may have evolved recently, adding sensitivity about ~___KHz

A

~3.5 KHz

349
Q

the auditory system includes two subcortical circuits to ___ low (<3 Hz) and high (>3 Hz) frequency sounds

A

localize

350
Q

is our ability to localize sound good?

A

no

351
Q

are humans more dependent on visual or auditory input?

A

visual

352
Q

how does the somatosensory system work? is it clear or unclear?

A

unclear ; we know the parts involved, but not how they really work together in real time

353
Q

located along the back edge of the frontal lobe (M1) and the front edge of the parietal lobe (S1), separated by the central sulcus

A

location of the primary somatosensory and primary motor cortex

354
Q

The ___ of SS cortex involved depends on the need for fine control and sensitivity

A

volume

355
Q

do your eyelids occupy about the same volume of the SS cortex as do your legs? more or less?

A

about the same

356
Q

the primary sensory cortex (S1) includes three subtypes of physical sensation from the body:

A
  1. touch
  2. temperature/pain
  3. joint/muscle position sense
357
Q

different types of sensory information are channeled through three parallel pathways in the ___ and ___, ultimately feeding into the same section of S1 representing that body part

A

spinal cord and brainstem

358
Q

the first modality of the touch subtype of the primary sensory cortex (S1)

A

discriminative touch (DT)

359
Q

discriminative touch includes 3 categories:

A

touch, pressure, and vibration perception

360
Q

free nerve endings =

A

pain

361
Q

meissner corpuscles =

A

slow vibration

362
Q

ruffini endings =

A

compression

363
Q

pacinian corpuscles =

A

rapid vibration

364
Q

temperature/pain includes the sensation of ___ and ___ across the body

A

itch and tickle

365
Q

___ nerve stimulation from pepper, ammonia, tear gas also falls under this group

A

trigeminal

366
Q

___ stimulation in mouth, nose, and eyes = pain

A

noxious

367
Q

when you put hot sauce in your food, you are not adding taste or improving the flavor, you are adding ___, as you are stimulating the trigeminal nerve

A

pain

368
Q

___ and ___ are critical for tickle

A

intensity and duration

369
Q

joint muscle position sense is described by

A

proprioception

370
Q

joint muscle position sense (proprioception) includes receptors for muscle ___, joint ___, and tendon ___

A

muscle stretch, joint position, and tendon tension

371
Q

this modality (joint muscle position sense - proprioception) feeds into the ___, which processes real-time feedback regarding the orientation of the body

A

cerebellum

372
Q

___ is susceptible to alcohol

A

proprioception

373
Q

somatosensory representation in the cortex is ___ (it expands and contracts with experience)

A

dynamic

374
Q

throughout childhood, our common actions became ‘packaged’ into functional units in ___

A

M1 (primary motor cortex)

375
Q

in an animal model, complex multi-joint movements can be evoked by stimulation at a ___ location on primary motor cortex

A

single location

376
Q

M1 codes ___, not single muscles

A

actions

377
Q

many of our common motor behaviors are “___”
-we combine motor scheme so we can walk, look at our phone, and eat at the same time

A

automated

378
Q

example of a motor expectation

A

walking into the kitchen to put the milk and cereal box away (you know the general direction to walk into the kitchen, but you put the cereal in the fridge, and the milk in the pantry)

379
Q

locomotor behaviors are even more ___
-once begun, major transitions in locomotion pattern can be managed outside of our awareness

A

packaged

380
Q

does awareness make major transitions in locomotion pattern better or worse?

A

worse

381
Q

animal research shows that the ___ alone can manage transitions in locomotor behaviors via what has been called ___ (CPG) without any input from the brain

A

spinal cord ; central pattern generators

382
Q

does controlled motor behavior require little or enormous preparation and on/off timing before M1 becomes involved to execute the action?

A

enormous

383
Q

this part of the brain manages the preparation for action in response to external cuees

A

premotor cortex

384
Q

premotor cortex activity ___ primary motor cortex activity

A

precede

385
Q

premotor cortex activity ___ when overt movement begins (or is aborted)

A

ceases

386
Q

in superior medial frontal cortex, and feeds into premotor cortex

A

supplementary motor cortex

387
Q

does the supplementary motor cortex manage well-learned movements, with or without need for explicit sensory cues?

A

without

388
Q

does an action actually have to happen to evoke supplementary motor area (SMA) activity?

A

no; simply imagining that you are riding a bike will evoke SMA activity (the action does not have to actually happen)

389
Q

SMA (and cerebellum) is strongly active during ___ actions, even when action is clearly impossible
-___ feedback is unnecessary

A

imagined ; sensory feedback

390
Q

motor preparation occupies a large chunk of cortex, mostly located on surface ___

A

gyri

391
Q

___ exploit this large premotor signal to communicate with “locked in” patients

A

brain-computer interfaces

392
Q

to finely control the exact onset and offset of a movement, the ___ serves as a “gate” between premotor and motor cortex

A

basal ganglia

393
Q

this part of the brain prepares and plans motor behavior

A

premotor cortex

394
Q

the start and stop of motor behavior (“gating”)

A

basal ganglia

395
Q

the execution of the motor behavior occurs in which part of the brain?

A

primary motor cortex

396
Q

which part of the brain ensures that the action goes “according to plan”

A

cerebellum

397
Q

cerebellum: movement “___” in real time

A

“tuning”

398
Q

the cerebellum serves to ___ and ___ the balance of sensory-motor integration during a movement

A

coordinate and refine

399
Q

cerebellum makes up ___% of total brain volume, but makes up almost ___% of neurons in the brain

A

10% ; 50%

400
Q

this part of the brain is thought to be a huge ‘data processor’ crunching numbers to adjust motor output based on sensory feedback, thus enabling precise motor control in changing contexts

A

cerebellum

401
Q

true or false: human brains have an oversized cortex

A

true; other mammals have nearly equivalent sized cortex and cerebellum

402
Q

a quick neurological test of cerebellar integrity

A

moving your finger directly between your nose and a fixed point in space

403
Q

the ___ pathways of the cerebellum are well defined, but real-time function is not

A

structural

404
Q

the cerebellum receives huge amounts of input from the cortex (frontal, parietal), spinal cord, and midbrain, and then some sort of comparison is made between ___ and ___ action

A

planned and actual

405
Q

after a comparison is made between planned and actual action, ___ signals are sent from the cerebellum to motor thalamus to refine movement in almost real time

A

error correction signals

405
Q

error correction signals are sent from the ___ to motor ___

A

cerebellum to motor thalamus

406
Q

the cerebellum is also active during many ___ tasks, which was often ignored as “noise” in early fMRI studies

A

non-motor

407
Q

true or false: inhibiting the cerebellum (but not other areas of the brain) slows down our ability to make predictable choices

A

true

407
Q

which 3 behavior domains appear to be associated with the largest clusters of cerebellum activity?

A

language, music, and working memory

408
Q

one idea about the cerebellum’s contribution to no motor tasks is that its huge processing power may have been “repurposed” to ___ what might happen in future behaviors

A

predict

408
Q

dynamic behaviors (language, music, working memory) involve the most significant ___ and ___ as the behavior takes place

A

prediction and adjustment

409
Q

the nature of body ownership is ___

A

constructive

410
Q

which study illustrated the flexible nature of body ownership?

A

the rubber hand illusion
-when a semi-realistic false hand was placed within the subject’s view (with their real hand out of view) and both hands were stimulated, most subjects soon reported feeling ownership of the false hand, reacting defensively if the false hand was threatened

410
Q

notice taken of someone or something; the regarding of someone or something as interesting or important

A

attention

411
Q

is attention a limited or unlimited resource?

A

limited

412
Q

___ models of attention highlight our limited capacity to process information

A

cognitive models

412
Q

true or false: attention increases our processing of some things and decreases our processing of other things

A

true

412
Q

attention is:

A

focusing on a subset of features that are somehow “relevant” and ignoring the “irrelevant”

413
Q

what kind of stimuli do we process a bit more readily during this “blink” of attention?

A

emotional stimuli

413
Q

this form of attention is called endogenous, or “top-down” attention
-the “top” is the goal state coming from inside (endo) the person
-we are searching for a specific target

A

goal-directed attention

413
Q

how does the filtering process for attention work? where and how do we process some things more fully than others, and how do we choose which things are “relevant” ?

A

it’s not completely clear

414
Q

example of goal-directed attention

A

where’s waldo?
-we search the area slowly and carefully until we find the target

415
Q

true or false: too much or too little attention can be dangerous

A

true

415
Q

even when we are trying our best, our attention is ___

A

imperfect

416
Q

this task asks folks to attend to 2 letters presented in a rapid series. processing the first letter (T1) absorbs most of folks’ attention, revealing a “blink,” or lapse of attention for the second letter (T2), strongest around 200 ms after T1

A

“attentional blink” task

417
Q

searching for one particular thing through a mixture of multiple target features

A

conjunction search

417
Q

true or false: multiple target features (conjunction search) does NOT increase search time along with the number of background distractors

A

false ; does increase search time

418
Q

the ___ of a target extends reaction time significantly

A

absence

418
Q

does reaction time extend or shorten as the number of distractors increases?

A

extends

419
Q

this form of attention is called exogenous, or “bottom-up” attention
-the “bottom” is the sensory features that ‘pop-out’ or grab our attention from outside the body (exo)

A

automatic capture of attention (“captured” attention)

419
Q

example of “captured” attention

A

a loud noise or a flash of lightning
-these features interrupt and grab our attention, without any intention on our part
-we can’t ignore it, these stimuli are processed even if we don’t want to

419
Q

do endogenous and exogenous attention features function together or separately in search tasks?

A

together

419
Q

if search features “pop-out” strongly, task performance is ___
-in this scenario, does the number of distractors matter?

A

fast ; does not matter

420
Q

can attention be defined simply by gaze location?

A

no

421
Q

does attention operate independent or “above” simple visual input?

A

yes

421
Q

true or false: attending covertly leads to increased response speed and improved accuracy to a stimulus appearing at the attended location

A

true

422
Q

asking subjects to pay attention to a location on a screen, while keeping fixation somewhere else

A

attending covertly

423
Q

early visual ___ show evidence of a ‘covert’ attention advantage
-visual areas seem to be “warmed up” ahead of time by ___ attention

A

early visual ERPs ; endogenous attention

423
Q

covert attention enhances visual cortical fMRI BOLD signal before or after the target appears?

A

before

423
Q

first: locate ___ areas that respond to upper left and right patches

-subtracting BOLD signal recorded as subjects wait for left vs. right cue to appear shows a huge ___ increase in cortical activation due to attention

A

V1 ; preparatory increase

424
Q

true or false: attending to the left ‘warms up’ left visual hemisphere areas

A

false ; attending to the left ‘warms up’ right visual hemisphere areas

425
Q

___ elements in the unattended ear can “force through” the filter and “capture” our attention

A

salient

425
Q

selective attention effect is mostly consistent with an old hypothesis of Helmholtz (1860s), suggesting that attention operates by filtering (“gating out”) unattended input at the early sensory stage

-this filter of attention is not perfect - ___ (or personally ‘salient’) stimuli break through the filter

A

exogenous

426
Q

this also works for auditory input, by asking folks to wear headphones playing two different recordings, and asking them to alternate their attention toward one ear or the other

-in this “dichotomous listening” task, memory is much better for the content played to the ___ ear

A

attended ear

427
Q

neuroscience studies of attention show that selection can modulate brain reactivity at all stages of the process. what are the two kinds of selection?

A

early selection and late selection

427
Q

example: if an ‘ignored’ speaker sneezes, laughs, curses, or says your full name, this ability to register ‘relevant’ details in the ignored ear argues against a strict early selection model of attention

-why does this sort of feature make evolutionary sense?

A

we should never be able to completely ignore explicit threats

427
Q

recent data demonstrates that the porous filter works in one or both directions? inhibiting processing of ignored cues, and enhancing processing of attended cues

A

both directions

428
Q

a revised model, which allows highly relevant information to pass through the ears

A

porous filter

429
Q

where does late selection occur?

A

prefrontal cortex

429
Q

where does early selection occur?

A

sensory cortex

430
Q

searching through a messy desk drawer for a highlighter is an example of which selection?

A

early selection

431
Q

searching through a crowded bar for your roommate is an example of which selection?

A

late selection

432
Q

if you are searching through a crowded bar for your roommate, and you happen to know that your roommate is wearing red, this is an example of which kind of selection?

A

early and late selection

433
Q

how is selection managed in the brain?

A

folks are still working on it

434
Q

this theory by treisman suggests that we have “feature maps” in our visual systems that allow us to quickly and efficiently recognize basic characteristics (color, shape, etc.) that enables exogenous “pop-out” attention

A

feature integration theory

435
Q

if we need to locate something we ‘bind’ these multiple features together, using ___ attention.

-do we know much about the brain mechanisms supporting this process? or is this where research is in progress

A

endogenous ; where research is in progress

436
Q

almost any sort of visual attention task evokes activity in two bilateral brain regions:

A
  1. the premotor frontal eye fields (FEF)
  2. dorsal parietal intraparietal sulcus (IPS)
437
Q

this region of the brain is tied to eye movement and preparation

A

frontal eye fields (FEF)

438
Q

this region of the brain is involved in 3D spatial awareness of stimuli around you

A

intraparietal sulcus (IPS)

439
Q

the ___ network appears to swerve the needs of endogenous attention - anything that we need or want to look at engages the network

A

frontoparietal network

440
Q

true or false: frontoparietal network (FP) network activity is limited to eye movements only

A

false ; FP network activity is independent of eye movement

441
Q

does covert attention shifts also drive FEF/IPS activity?

A

yes

441
Q

studies of exogenous shifts of attention find activity in a parallel attention network now called the ___

A

ventral FP (frontoparietal) network

441
Q

the ventral FP network consists of two components:

A
  1. inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)
  2. temporoparietal junction (TPJ)
441
Q

the dorsal network consists of two components:

A

FEF (frontal eye fields) and IPS (intraparietal sulcus)

442
Q

___ shifts of attention are associated with activity in dorsal network (FEF and IPS)

A

endogenous

443
Q

this type of attention is characterized by endogenous shifts of attention are associated with activity in dorsal network (FEF and IPS)

A

voluntary attention

444
Q

ventral network is composed of two components in the brain:

A

temporoparietal junction (TPJ) and inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)

445
Q

imagine sitting and watching TV; the ___ FP network manages your visual attention to the screen and limits sensitivity to anything else

A

dorsal

445
Q

a timer goes off in the kitchen, the ___ FP network breaks your attention toward the TV. Then, the ___ FP engages as you make your way to get your dinner

A

ventral ; dorsal

445
Q

this FP network can be thought of as a “circuit breaker” or “interrupt mechanism” to cease focused attention

A

ventral FP network

446
Q

which FP network is mostly in charge?

A

dorsal

446
Q

___ shifts of attention are associated with activity in ventral network (TPJ and IFG)

A

exogenous

447
Q

in studies where attention is ‘captured’ by features like salience, or emotion, attention effects take longer, around ___ ms after the target

A

200 ms

447
Q

The basic idea of selective attention is that some region of PFC (and probably other areas) ___ and ___ the search goal. The current goal appears to inform the FP network to scan the environment, locate the target, and fixate gaze to that point

A

chooses and maintains

447
Q

___ designs in visual search are simplistic

-when searching for a target with one basic feature (ex. a red bar), we are able to rapidly search a large array, using exogenous attention

A

“classic”

447
Q

most attention studies use ___ tasks, where the subject is “prepared and waiting” for a specific target

A

endogenous tasks

447
Q

with endogenous tasks, attention effects are evident soon after the target appears, around ___ ms

A

100 ms

448
Q

is a naturalistic search performance faster or slower than expected

A

faster than expected

448
Q

by studying attention ___ stimuli, we reveal how attention works (and evolved) to solve ‘real world’ problems

A

naturalistic stimuli

448
Q

find a notre dame fan in the crowd of a UGA football game: complex but familiar, and ecologically valid

A

example of a naturalistic (real world) search

448
Q

when asked to decide if a scene contains an animal, people can correctly identify animals ___% of the time, even when the scene is presented for only ___ ms

A

94% ; 20 ms

448
Q

find a horizontal red line in a picture of red and green lines, tilted at different angles: Simple, but also unfamiliar, and ecologically sterile, foreign

A

example of a naturalistic (real world) search

449
Q

familiar contexts ___ search times

  • we locate objects (ex. a coffee maker) ___ when they are placed in a natural setting, relative to a simple array, even though the natural setting is much more visually complex
A

reduce ; faster

449
Q

naturalistic search: why so fast?

this early ERP effect is just as fast as hillyard’s left vs. right visual attention, or left vs. right ear attention. but the task is much more ___ (cars vs. trees, or faces vs. buildings)

A

complex

449
Q

why is a naturalistic search so fast?

A

target objects and distractors are familiar ; it is easy for us to search for an animal in a natural environment (we’ve been training for this sort of task our whole lives)

450
Q

true or false: scene context hinders gaze location

A

false ; scene context aids gaze location
-fixations demonstrate that people know where to look for an object in a photograph from past experience

450
Q

does attention modulate only early or early and late visual cortex activity up and down?

A

both early and late

451
Q

if we change the target category every trial, we can see the ___ ventral visual cortex ‘warm up’ and “cool down” the category-sensitive regions ahead of time (just like early visual cortex)

A

late ventral visual cortex

452
Q

naturalistic search: limitations

-attention can bias visual processing of broad target categories (ex. cars vs. trees) but cannot focus on ___ subtypes (ex. BMWs vs. Fords, cats vs. dogs)

A

detailed

452
Q

how does attention modulate brain reactivity?

A

models of selective attention propose that target stimuli are “tagged” or “gated through” in some way for enhanced processing, but the exact mechanism is unknown

452
Q

the enhancement of familiar target categories is enacted in parallel across part of or the entire visual field, much like basic features such as color?
-we can’t limit our categorical attention to one location around us

A

the entire visual field

452
Q

this type of attention is characterized by exogenous shifts of attention are associated with activity in a ventral network including temporoparietal junction (TPD) and inferior frontal gyrus (IFG)

A

attention reorienting

453
Q

do the dorsal and ventral networks work in unison or opposition?

A

opposition

453
Q

true or false: when one FP network is active, the other is inhibited

A

true

454
Q

recently, a research group were able to identify multiple V1 clusters that responded to different line orientations, but all fed into a single ___ cluster

A

V4

454
Q

both ___ and ___ of EEG appear to support network connections

A

frequency and phase

454
Q

cortical neurons are constantly ___ (increasing and decreasing. inactivity)

A

oscillating

454
Q

comparing the way cortical signals between V1 and V4 neurons changed when the same stimulus was attended or ignored focuses on 2 components:

A

frequency and phase of EEG signals between V1 and V4

455
Q

activity is greatest at the ___ point of an oscillation. it sends and receives signals best at this point in time

A

high point

455
Q

if two or more regions are connected, and oscillating at the same frequency, they are often part of a ___ network

A

functional network

456
Q

for A and B to communicate best, A should send a signal to B so that it ___ when B is at a high point of activity

A

arrives

456
Q

this process manages region A so that its signal is sent to A’s high point, and so it arrives when region B is at its high point

A

phase shift

456
Q

higher oscillation frequencies represent ___ signals, while slower frequencies represent ___ signals

A

feedforward ; feedback

456
Q

high frequency EEG = ___ signals

A

feedforward

456
Q

bottom-up =

A

gamma

457
Q

rhythms for cognition:

A

communication through coherence

457
Q

V1 clusters feed into target cluster in ___

A

V4

457
Q

V1 sends its signal as a perfect ___, so that it is heard much more loudly by V4 target than competing stimuli

A

phase representation

457
Q

low frequency EEG = ___ signals

A

feedback

458
Q

top-down =

A

alpha-beta

459
Q

this phase representation locks itself to ___ somehow, so it only hears this V1 cluster

A

V4

459
Q

two components of memory:

A

working memory and long-term memory

459
Q

attended information is transmitted into V4 and its highest ___ point (its peak), while ignored information is transmitted into V4 at its ___ point

A

excitation ; inhibition

460
Q

what manages phase tuning?

true or false: slow-frequency “top-down” feedback signals from later stages of visual cortex (or PFC) is involved

A

true

460
Q

two components of long-term memory:

A

declarative (explicit memory) and nondeclarative (implicit memory

461
Q

two components of declarative (explicit memory)

A

episodic memory (events) and semantic memory (facts)

461
Q

nondeclarative memory is referred to as ___ memory

A

implicit memory

461
Q

declarative memory is referred to as ___ memory

A

explicit

462
Q

is memory formation understood well? or poorly understood?

A

poorly understood

462
Q

3 components of nondeclarative (implicit) memory

A

priming, skill learning, and conditioning

463
Q

true or false: minor concussions typically erase memory of recent events

A

true

463
Q

what must occur over an extended period of time for the memory of an event to last

A

the brain must be allowed tp “consolidate”

463
Q

can severe concussions eliminate memory of the entire day, week, or more?

A

yes

464
Q

a rare condition in which a temporary loss of memory function occurs with no apparent cause, lasting 1-24 hours
-all other brain functions are intact, and CT, MRI, PET scans look normal

A

transient global amnesia

464
Q

are novel memories formed instantly? or does it actually take quite a while for memories to become permanent?

A

it actually takes quite a while for memories to become permanent

465
Q

with transient global amnesia, immediate recall (~1 min) is normal, along with term memories (longer than ~1 year), but everything in between is temporarily ___

-patients can’t understand what’s happening, and often ask the same series of questions in a “repeating loop”

A

temporarily lost

465
Q

3 flavors of implicit memory:

A

priming, skill learning, and conditioning

465
Q

this flavor of implicit memory only works if it happens implicitly (outside our awareness)

A

priming

465
Q

how are implicit memories formed?

A

automatically, by mere exposure or by simple association

466
Q

___ involves the implicit presentation of information/cues that have the effect of increasing the probability that a person will respond with a target stimulus (word, object, etc.)

A

priming

466
Q

how long after a transient global amnesia episode does memory function gradually recover?

can new memories be formed again?

are memories of the TGA event itself permanent, or are they lost?

A

~24 hours ; yes ; lost

466
Q

are implicit memories easy or difficult to describe?

A

difficult

467
Q

true or false: V1 attended and V1 unattended both feed into V4

A

true

468
Q

true or false: priming must remain ‘under the radar’ to work

A

true

469
Q

personal practice and experience that leads to ‘motor learning’ that is highly resistant to decay - a ‘permanent memory’
ex. you never forget how to catch a ball, or ride a bike

A

skill learning

470
Q

___ is highly implicit. it is impossible to explain to someone how to swim or ride a bike. they need to learn for themselves

A

skill learning

471
Q

motor plasticity is revealed through ___

ex. riding a bike is a complicated motor task. many variables must be balanced to manage it well. once you ‘get it,’ it generally stays with you forever, BUT, if you change one part of the process, and try to adapt, strange things happen
(ex. backwards bicycle video)

A

reprogramming

471
Q

learning that a neutral cue produces an aversive (or appetitive) outcome

A

classical conditioning

472
Q

___ is one of the best understood sorts of memory, from a neuro standpoint

A

associative conditioning

473
Q

skin conductance responses (sympathetic) reveal reveal the creation of the new memory association. SC will often show learning effects before or after the subject is able to verbally report the association, demonstrating ‘implicit’ learning?

A

before

474
Q

classical conditioning depends on intact ___

A

amygdala

475
Q

“fear potentiation” of the startle reflex is dependent on an intact central nucleus of the subcortical ___. without this part of the brain, fear associations are poorly learned

A

amygdala

476
Q

the what, where, when, and how of an event (active clusters of activity in visual, auditory, and premotor cortex, etc.) are linked through connections with the HC
-after many years of use, can these clusters gain independence from HC index and develop direct links?

A

yes

476
Q

in healthy folks, what brain structures are needed to recall an event

A
  1. the parts of the cortex that were active during the original event (sight, smell, sound, feelings, etc.)
  2. hippocampus to provide the list of all these elements, so that they can be reactivated when you bring the memory back online
477
Q

explicit learning activates this part of the brain, indicating declarative learning

A

hippocampus

477
Q

3 basic components of declarative memory:

A

encoding, storage, and retrieval

477
Q

consistent with the index model, fMRI studies have shown visual cortex reactivation during retrieval of word memories that were formed in combination with ___ stimuli
-thus the text cue evokes the ___ associate in memory

A

picture ; visual

477
Q

repeated recall of a past event strengthens the direct connections between those parts of the cortex, and eventually the hippocampus is not necessary. how long does this process take?

A

~6-12 months

477
Q

implicit learning activates this part of the brain

A

amygdala

478
Q

this working hypothesis of declarative memory function considers the HC as an ‘index’ - a map of memory elements

A

the hippocampal “index model”

478
Q

why does head trauma affect memory more than other brain functions?

A

it is not clear, but it could be that memory depends on structures located in the middle of the brain, where shearing, twisting forces concentrate (medial temporal lobe structures)

478
Q

HM’s declarative deficits were linked primarily to the loss of the ___

A

hippocampus

479
Q

both retrieval and encoding are somehow connected with the ___, which stores the “index” of an event

A

hippocampus

480
Q

during retrieval of word memories that were formed in combination with sound stimuli, the ___ cortex is reactivated

A

auditory cortex

481
Q

true or false: L IFG activity is weaker during memory retrieval

A

false ; stronger

481
Q

memory encoding: we see greater IFG activity during ___ (deep) compared to ___ (shallow) strategy use

A

semantic (deep) ; phonological (shallow)

481
Q

encoding has been linked to

A

left IFG

481
Q

from behavioral memory research, we know that greater ___ improves performance. in other words, the more deeply we think about an item, the more likely we are to remember it later

A

depth processing

481
Q

deep thinking engages left inferior frontal cortex, or ___, known to be involved in language processing

A

broca’s area

481
Q

more left IFG activity during ___ vs. ___ memory encoding

A

semantic vs. sound

481
Q

clearly recalled items are associated with more ___ parietal activity

A

ventral parietal

481
Q

correctly remembered word trials showed much more ___ activity

A

L IFG

482
Q

low-confidence items are associated with more ___ parietal activity

A

dorsal parietal

482
Q

retrieval has been linked to

A

left IFG and posterior parietal cortex

483
Q

both ___ (receptors, dendrites) and ___ processes (large cortical networks) are involved in memory consolidation

A

subcellular and systemic processes

483
Q

selectively interrupting different stages of sleep reveals that stage 4 “___” sleep is especially critical to memory retention the following day

A

“slow-wave”

483
Q

how do we determine which things to remember and which to forget?

A

it’s unclear

483
Q

one likely component to consolidation

A

sleep

484
Q

memory consolidation has been shown to involve ___ and ___ scales that vary widely

A

spatial and temporal

484
Q

neurocognitive processing during sleep can benefit memory storage when memories are covertly cued via ___ and ___ stimulation

A

auditory and olfactory

484
Q

learned spatial associations that were ___ during slow wave sleep were remembered better in human trials

A

re-cued

485
Q

true or false: the information that ultimately remains available for retrieval may tend to be that which is reactivated during sleep

A

true

486
Q

this view of reconsolidation states that the stored memory is stable; the “original” copy is read out at retrieval

A

classic view of reconsolidation

486
Q

memories are gradually altered over time through ___

A

reconsolidation

486
Q

ex. of reconsolidation

A

memories that are repeatedly recounted tend to put the narrator in a better light

486
Q

this view of reconsolidation states that the stored memory is malleable; the “most recently” accessed copy is read out at retrieval

A

modern view of reconsolidation

486
Q

reconsolidation has been used in ___ patients to weaken the persistent emotional associations typically evoked by traumatic memories

A

PTSD

486
Q

over time, the hippocampal index becomes less important in memory recall. how long?

A

~1 year

486
Q

a set of processes that transfer hippocampus-mediated to direct cortical connections

A

consolidation

486
Q

is memory consolidation well understood?

A

no ; poorly understood