Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Viruses have:

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Both DNA and RNA
d. DNA or RNA

A

d. DNA or RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The basic components of viruses are:

a. nucleic acid, cell wall, surface antigens
b. nucleic acid, endomembrane system, phospholipid bilayer
c. nucleic acid, protein coat
d. protein coat, surface antigens, phospholipid bilayer

A

c. nucleic acid, protein coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The type of media viruses grow in include:

a. cell cultures
b. living animals
c. embryonated eggs

a. A only
b. B only
c. A and C only
d. A, B, and C

A

d. A, B, and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This type of virus has 2 types (A and B) and undergoes frequent recombination

a. rhinovirus
b. influenza
c. adenovirus
d. it is a bacteria because only bacteria recombine via transformation, transduction, and bacterial conjugation

A

b. influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The treatment for respiratory syncytial virus is

a. antibodies
b. live attenuated vaccine
c. subunit transcriptase
e. ribavizine

A

e. ribavizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Humans are the only natural host in:

a. rotavirus
b. norovirus
c. coxsackieviruses
d. poliovirus
e. toxoplasma gondii

A

d. poliovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is false regarding measles:

a. blotchy appearance
b. complications may include exacerbation of TB and leukemia
c. confirmation tests can be single or paired sera
d. vaccine is rarely effective due to frequent changes in surface antigens

A

d. vaccine is rarely effective due to frequent changes in surface antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is false regarding rubella:

a. very dangerous for non- immune pregnant women during second trimester
b. localized birth defects include cataracts, deafness, heart defects
c. similar to measles but milder
d. life-long immunity after natural infection

A

a. very dangerous for non- immune pregnant women during second trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Herpes Zoster

a. is also known as shingles
b. appears as a limited rash along the trajectory of one nerve
c. is found mainly in adults
d. represents a late recurrence of latent varicella infection in a primarily immune individual
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Papilloma virus

a. is always sexually transmitted
b. appears as common warts and genital warts
c. has no vaccine available
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b. appears as common warts and genital warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mumps cause

a. glandular enlargement
b. bilateral paralysis
c. inflammation of the parathyroid gland
d. all of the above

A

b. bilateral paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus, also know as kissing disease is diagnosed by

a. immunofluorescence
b. the presence of immunoglobins in serum sample
c. RBC agglutination
d. none of the above

A

c. RBC agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which hepatitis is sexually transmitted?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. Delta agent
  5. E
  6. G
    a. B only
    b. B and C
    c. B, C, Delta agent, G
    d. C only
    e. C, G, Delta agent, A
A

c. B, C, Delta agent, G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The following is false regarding hepatitis C

a. transmitted by blood and sexually
b. initially a mild disease
c. transmitted- faecal-oral route
d. no vaccine

A

c. transmitted- faecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which regarding HIV is false?

a. it causes depletion in T cells
b. it disables B-lymphocytes from producing immunoglobulins
c. it undergoes frequent antigen changes
d. most recomment treatment is HAART

A

b. it disables B-lymphocytes from producing immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The following is seen very frequently in immunocompromised pts, especially AIDS pts
A. cryptococcus infection
B. tuberculosis infection
C. Yeast infection

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

d. A and B only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is true regarding yellow fever virus?

a. 50% mortality rate
b. because of the virulence of the virus, a live attenuated vaccine is not recommended
c. it causes bloody and mucoid diarrhea
d. it is a CNS virus

A

a. 50% mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When symptoms of rabies start to occur it is

a. always fatal
b. can be treated if injected with immunoglobins of human origin immediately
c. it has a 50% mortality rate
d. it appears as a qubit which is the fundamental unit for quantum computing

A

a. always fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The factors that play an essential role in transmitting infections are
A. source
B. fomites
C. host

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and C only
e. A and B only

A

d. A and C only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most efficient step in controlling nosocomial infections is

a. proper sanitation
b. identification of source
c. proper handwashing
d. education

A

b. identification of source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the source

a. detection
b. isolation
c. treatment of infections
d. sterilization

A

d. sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the source

a. detection
b. isolation
c. treatment of infections
d. sterilization

A

d. sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the route of transmission

a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. ventilation
d. vaccination

A

d. vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the route of transmission

a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. ventilation
d. vaccination

A

d. vaccination

25
Q

The following is not a measure taken affecting the host.

a. asepsis
b. vaccination
c. protective isolation
d. disinfection

A

d. disinfection

26
Q

Universal precautions are not a substitute for

a. isolation procedures
b. proper handwashing procedures
c. annual vaccination
d. infection control services

A

a. isolation procedures

27
Q

An infection control committee includes:

a. infection control nurse
b. infection control physician
c. infection control laboratory
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

28
Q

A general term for destroying or removing microorganisms, chemicals or radioactivity n an object or surface is

a. decontamination
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. sterilization

A

a. decontamination

29
Q

A physical or chemical means to totally destroy all types of microorganisms in or on an object is

a. decontamination
b. disinfection
c. sanitation
d. sterilization

A

d. sterilization

30
Q

The means of cleaning include:
A. Physical means
B. Chemical means
C. Biological means

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and C only
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

31
Q

A substance capable of inducing a specific immune response is

a. an antibody
b. an antigen
c. a foreign agent
d. a virus of bacteria

A

b. an antigen

32
Q

Establishment and multiplication in/on the body of a microorganism without producing any apparent or inapparent change is

a. infection
b. colonisation
c. contamination
d. a disease

A

b. colonisation

33
Q

Deposition of microorganisms without multiplication is

a. infection
b. colonisation
c. contamination
d. a disease

A

c. contamination

34
Q

The most common routes of entry are
A inhalation
B ingestion
C direct deposit

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

e. A, B and C

35
Q

The following is responsible for CMI

a. TH1 cells
b. TH2 cells
c. B-lymphocytes
d. macrophages

A

a. TH1 cells

36
Q

This cell ‘decides’ whether cell mediated immunity or humoral immunity takes place

a. T cells
b. B cells
c. antigen presenting cells
d. none of the above

A

c. antigen presenting cells

37
Q

Which is not an example of active immunization:

a. live attenuated vaccines
b. combines vaccines
c. conjugate vaccines
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

38
Q

The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance include:

A. alteration of drug target
B. production of inactivating enzymes
C. decreased antibiotic uptake

a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only
e. A, B and C

A

e. A, B and C

39
Q

If the safranin step is omitted, gram positive bacteria ad gram negative bacteria will appear and respectively under a light microscope.

A

Gram positives look purple and Gram negatives will remain invisible.

40
Q

Group A strep are:

a. alpha-hemolytic
b. beta-hemolytic
c. delta-hemolytic
g. gamma hemolytic

A

b. beta-hemolytic

41
Q

Clostridium species are unique because they

a. have a waxy outer layer
b. are anaerobic
c. are microaerophiles
d. are the deadliest species of positive bacilli

A

b. are anaerobic

42
Q

Clostridium tetani is transmitted through

a. puncture by rusty nail
b. skin trauma by any object contaminated with spores
c. eating improperly canned food
d. all of the above

A

b. skin trauma by any object contaminated with spores

43
Q

The following causes bloody and mucoid diarrhoea

a. E. coli O157:H7
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Shiggellae
d. Plasmodium

A

a. E. coli O157:H7

44
Q

The following causes malaria

a. E. coli O157:H7
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Shiggellae
d. Plasmodium

A

d. Plasmodium

45
Q

In the mantoux test tuberculin solution is injected

a. intravenous
b. intramuscular
c. intradermal
d. intraperitoneal

A

c. intradermal

46
Q

Syphilis is caused by

a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Mycobacterium syphilis
d. none of the above

A

b. Treponema pallidum

47
Q

The levels of fungal infection in order are

A

[skin]- superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, systemic-[bloodstream]

48
Q

In the event that you find an AIDS patient infected with a fungal infection, what fungus would you suspect first?

a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. cryptococcis
d. systemic candidadis

A

c. cryptococcis

49
Q

Name a parasite for each

  1. Acquired through water
  2. Acquired through food
  3. Acquired sexually
  4. Acquired through animals
A
  1. Cryptosporidiosis, Giardia Lambilla
  2. Cyclosporiasis
  3. Trichonomas vaginalis
  4. Plasmodium (malaria)
50
Q

Name the 2 tests important for viral diagnosis

A
  1. Detection of viruses in clinical specimens
    (EM)
    2.
51
Q

Name and describe 2 types of serum tests

A

1..

52
Q

What is the name of the vaccine given for measles

A

live-attenuated; MMR

53
Q

Name 2 different systems used for isolation procedures applied to infected patients

A
  1. disease specific

2. Category specific

54
Q

Name 2 universal precautions

A
  • wearing of gloves for manipulating blood and body secretions
  • hand washing after each patient
55
Q

What is the least used cell culture?

A

Cell culture

56
Q

Name 3 harmful effects of the immune response

A
  1. Allergy and hypersensitivity states
  2. Auto-immune diseases
  3. Immunodeficiency states
57
Q

Name and describe the 2 forms of Chlamydiae

A

i) Elementary body

58
Q

What type of vaccine would you give to an employee who is going to a foreign country for one year?

A

live-attenuated