Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main cause of right sided heart failure?

A

Left sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main cause of left sided heart failure?

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

Acute episodes of severe shortness of breath and coughing that wake patient up at night (secondary to heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea different from orthopnea?

A

Orthopnea is shortness of breath upon lying down — before they even fall asleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Of the two, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and orthopnea, which is more specific to heart failure?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Because the left ventricle fails to pump blood. Blood backs up into the lungs. Excess blood in the lung vasculature leaks into lung tissue/alveoli and 1-3 hours after lying down that starts to affect the patients ability to breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the classic physical exam findings associated with left sided heart failure (HF)? (Lung auscultation? Heart auscultation?)

A

Tachypnea (fast breathing)
Tachycardia (fast heartrate)
Decreased oxygen saturation
Lung auscultation: crackles in the base which could progress to diffuse crackles and wheezing
Heart auscultation: S3 may be heard over apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the classic physical exam findings associated with right sided heart failure (HF)? (Lung auscultation? Heart auscultation?)

A

Increased jugular venous pressure
Peripheral pitting edema, symmetrical
Hepatomegaly may cause RUQ discomfort due to congestion of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Failure due to reduced contractile force causing decreased forward flow and backup into lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Failure due to disorientation of cells and non-compliant ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes of dilated cardiomyopathy versus hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated—toxic, familial, infectious, idiopathic

Hypertrophic—inherited, HTN

(Both can be caused by ischemic, valvular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the 4 stages (A-D) of heart failure (HF)?

A

Stage A: high risk but no structural heart damage
Stage B: asymptomatic but structural damage
Stage C: structural and symptoms
Stage D: refractor, end stage HF

Note: A-D Staging is used to determine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the treatments for the 4 stages A-D?

A

Stage A: risk factor modification and ACD-inhibitor for heart remodeling
Stage B: same plus beta blocker to slow the heart
Stage C: same plus diuretics and aldosterone and sodium restricted diet
Stage D: same plus end of life care or cardiac transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can heart failure ever improve with treatment?

A

Cardiac function in some patients can improve through myocardial remodeling with medication

Untreated HF has poor prognosis. It is progressive and eventually fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 classes of HF used for?

A

Functional status is important predictor of patient prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 classes of heart failure?

A

Class 1: No symptoms of HF with or limitation of ordinary activities (such as shopping, climbing stairs, carrying groceries or walking)

Class 2: ordinary activities somewhat limited as they produce symptoms: fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, angina

Class 3: Ordinary activities are moderately impaired because minimal activity produces symptoms but still comfortable at rest

Class 4: Ordinary activities are severely limited and has symptoms at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a normal vs trapped air vs solid abnormalities sound like with percussion of the lung?

A

Normal: resonant

Trapped air: hyperresonant (e.g. pneumothorax, emphysema)

Solid abnormalities: dull (e.g. pleural effusion, pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common cause of pleurisy? And what is the management plan for pleurisy?

A

Viral infection

Tx: NSAIDs and controlling underlying pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of fluid is found in each of the 4 types of pleuritic effusions?

A

Hydrothorax — serous fluid from viral or organ failure

Chylothorax — lymph from lung or breast cancer

Pylothorax — pus from pneumonia infection

Hemothorax — blood from trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax?

A

History: dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain radiate to back or shoulder

Physical: chest NOT tender to palpation, decreased lung sounds, hyperresonance, decreased tactile fremitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism?

A

History: dyspnea, pleuritic pain, tachypnea (fast, shallow), cough, hemolysis, tachycardia, low grade fever

Physical: crackles, S4 sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What blood test result would help you rule out pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A

D dimmer blood test would be positive

If it is negative, R/O PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 2 key symptoms of a patient with typical bacterial pneumonia?

A

Fever and sputum

Physical exam:

  1. Dullness to percussion
  2. Increased tactile fremitus
  3. Crackles over area of consolidation heard on auscultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compare and contrast typical vs atypical pneumonia

A

Typical ”sick as stink”

  • acute onset
  • productive cough
  • fever, chills, malaise

Atypical “walking pneumonia”

  • gradual onset
  • non-productive cough
  • low fever
25
Q

What is the classic lung sound associated with bronchitis (blue bloater)?

A

Scattered rhonchi, crackles, wheezes possible

26
Q

What are the USPSTF recommendations for lung cancer screening?

A

Annual CT in high risk patients 55-74 yo with 30-pack year history who still smoke or have quit within 15 years

E.g. 1 pack / day for 30 years
E.g. 1/2 pack / day for 60 years

27
Q

Compare and contrast the clinical presentations of pancoast tumor and superior vena cava syndrome

A

Pancoast: men 40-60 yo with smoking history, shoulder pain that may radiate C8 radiculopathy, extremity edema if tumor is anterior and invades subclavian vein, Horner’s syndrome if tumor invades sympathetic nerves.

SCV: compression decreases return blood flow from head, neck, arms to heart. Often due to cancers. Edema?

28
Q

Compare and contrast the abnormalities in a patient with lung cancer who presents with Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH) vs. Cushing’s

A

General lung cancer: fatigue, anorexia, unintentional weight loss.

SIADH: hyponatrimia <135
Sx: falls, gait disturbances, headache, nausea, fatigue, anorexia, lethargy, coma

Cushing’s: >serum cortisol
Sx: central weight gain, striae, proximal mm weakness, HTN, peripheral edema, moon fancies, buffalo hump

29
Q

What are the main 3 pathophysiologic components of asthma?

A
  1. Smooth muscle contraction (bronchoconstriction)
  2. Airway edema
  3. Increased mucous production
30
Q

What labs and tests can be used to help make the diagnosis of asthma? For each one, what is the outcome that suggests asthma?

A
  1. Methacholine challenge — decreased air flow supports Dx
  2. Check for response to brochodilator — improved airflow supports Dx
  3. Peak expiratory flow meter
    — reduced flow
  4. Blood test for eosinophils
    — elevated levels
  5. Skin test for allergies
    — allergic asthma
31
Q

What is the management plan for a patient with asthma exacerbation?

A

(2) inhaler meds: rescue inhaler and maintenance meds

Avoid triggers

Chiropractic manipulation improves symptoms

32
Q

What is the pathophysiology of emphysema?

A

Alveoli have been destroyed (enlarged).

Air gets trapped.

Poor O2 exchange.

33
Q

On pulmonary function testing, is the ratio of FEV1/FVC increased, decreased or unchanged in obstructive lung disease?

A

COPD: decreased ratio

<70% of predicted valve

34
Q

What causes the decreased total lung capacity (TLC) in extrinsic restrictive lung conditions?

A

Skeleton inhibits full expansion of chest wall

NMS

Obesity

35
Q

What are examples of extrinsic restrictive lung conditions?

A

Chest wall abnormalities

Neuromuscular conditions

36
Q

What are examples of intrinsic restrictive lung conditions?

A

Interstitial lung disease: asbestosis, sarcoidosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Pneumonitis: inhaled inorganic dust, inhaled organic dust

37
Q

What is obstructive vs restrictive lung disease?

A

Obstructive is where normal air flow is limited at any level

Restrictive is reduced lung volume due to lung parenchyma disease, problems with chest cage or neuromuscular dysfunction but flow of air through airway is NOT blocked

38
Q

What is the diagnostic threshold for making the diagnosis of restrictive lung disease by TLC? Is the ratio of FEV1/FVC increased, decreased or unchanged?

A

Unchanged

The ratio is unchanged since FEV1 and FVC are both reduced due to decreased TLC

39
Q

Recognize symptoms and signs suggestive of obstructive sleep apnea

A

NOT restrictive lung condition

Episodes of apnea because upper airway collapses—causes O2 desaturation and sleep arousals

Sx: snoring, pauses in breathing during sleep, excessive daytime sleepiness

40
Q

Recognize symptoms and signs suggestive of pneumoconiosis

A

Due to inhaling mineral dust e.g. crystalline silica, coal, asbestos

Sx: progressive dyspnea, dry cough, insidious “sneaky” onset

41
Q

Recognize symptoms and signs suggestive of costochondritis

A

Intermittent pain

Sx: Inflammation at 1+ costosternal or costochondral junctions, NO swelling

DDX: Tietze’s syndrome is inflammation WITH swelling of costal cartilage and sharp, unilateral pain

42
Q

Recognize symptoms and signs suggestive of shingles

A

Unilateral, dermatomal pain then vesicular rash

Refer to PCP for acyclovir. Very contagious!

43
Q

What is cervical pseudoangina?

A

Cervical spine issues can potentially be referred to the chest: osteophytes, discopathy, spondylosis

44
Q

What are some clues from patient’s history that are suggestive of chest pain caused by panic disorder?

A

Sympathetic Sx: feeling of unreality or being detached from oneself. Dizziness, paresthesia, shaking.

45
Q

In taking a patient’s history, what features could help you differentiate between chest pain caused by GERD vs esophageal spasm?

A

GERD will have heartburn, liquid or partially regurgitated food in the back of the throat. Aggravated by lying down and after a meal.

Esophageal spasm will have chest pain and intermittent dysphagia. Pain triggered by hot/cold foods/beverages

46
Q

What is Murphy’s sign and what does it suggest?

A

1) Ask patient to exhale. 2) examiner places hand below costal margin on the right side at the mid-clavicular line. 3) patient is instructed to inspire.

(+) is when patient stops breathing in and winces in a “catch” in breath

Suggests gallbladder

47
Q

What is carnett’s sign and what test results makes an abdominal wall trigger point more likely?

A

1) doc palpates area of tenderness 2) ask patient to lift head and shoulders to contract abdominal wall muscles while keeping pressure on tenderness

(+) pain increases suggests abdominal wall as source of pain

(+) pain decreases suggests intra-abdominal organ as source of pain

48
Q

In a patient with peritonitis, is guarding likely to be voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary guarding
Rigidity
Cough test
Rebound tenderness — withdrawal of pressure hurts more than the pressure

49
Q

In a patient with peritonitis, are bowel sounds likely to be increased or decreased?

A

Decreased/absent bowel sounds

Adynamic ileus and late mechanical bowel obstruction

50
Q

What other physical exam signs are alarming for possible “acute” abdomen?

A

Jar sign

Rebound tenderness

51
Q

How can you tell if a hernia is incarcerated or not?

A

“If the contents of the hernia become trapped in the weak point in the abdominal wall, it can obstruct the bowel, leading to severe pain, nausea, vomiting, and the inability to have a bowel movement or pass gas. Strangulation. An incarcerated hernia can cut off blood flow to part of your intestine.” Mayo Clinic

52
Q

What is courvoiser’s sign? What does it suggest?

A

Painless enlargement of gallbladder in jaundiced patient. Suggests cancer obstructing biliary tree.

53
Q

Name the physical exam signs associated with chronic liver disease

A

?

54
Q

Recognize the symptoms and signs suggestive of acute appendicitis

A

History: acute onset abdominal pain-starts periumbilical region and localizes to RLQ, anorexia, nausea/vomiting and fever

Physical: McBurney’s point, Rovsing’s sign when pressure to LLQ causes RLQ pain, Psoas sign, Obturator sign

55
Q

Recognize the symptoms and signs suggestive of nephrolithiasis

A

History: Tenderness to palpation at costovertebral angle suggests kidney infection or inflammation such as pyelonephritis, kidney stones, nephrolithiasis

Physical: Jar sign, rebound tenderness

56
Q

Recognize the symptoms and signs suggestive of mechanical bowel obstruction/paralytic ileus

A

Vomiting, colicky pain. Bowel movement stops. Visible peristalsis in a patient with colicky abdominal pain and vomiting is a strong indicator of bowel obstruction.

57
Q

Compare and contrast nephrolithiasis and pyelonephritis

A

Pyelonephritis ONLY causes fever (NOT nephrolithiasis).

Kidney stones can lead to pyelonephritis (infection) or inflammation (kidney stones aka nephrolithiasis). Dysuria, hematuria, N/V.

58
Q

What is the most severe class of HF and what is the yearly mortality rate for patients in that class?

A

Class 4: ordinary activities are severely limited and patient has symptoms at rest

30-70% mortality rate annually