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BIOL 261 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What did Mendel study by looking at peas compared to yeasts

A

Diploid organisms, whereas yeast were haploid

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2
Q

What are mendel’s two laws?

A

Equal transmission: same number of genes are transmitted

Independent assortment: segregation of one gene is independent of the segregation of the other gene

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3
Q

What are alleles?

A

The different forms of one genes a diploid organism can have

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4
Q

When looking at inheritance of genes, we are looking at what type of cell?

A

We are looking at reproductive cells (gametes)

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5
Q

Each gamete of has ____ chance to have either member of a gene pair

A

Equal

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6
Q

When do gametes unite at random?

A

During fertilization

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7
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance when looking at one gene with two alleles

A

3:1 or 1:1

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8
Q

What is a pedigree analysis?

A

When looking at a family tree and the pattern of inheritance

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9
Q

What progeny do we see when crossing two homozygote, one dominant, one recessive?

A

All heterozygous

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10
Q

What progeny do we see when crossing two hétérozygote?

A

3:1 phenotype
1:2:1 genotype
1/4 homo dominant, 1/2 hétérozygote, 1/4 homo recessive

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11
Q

What progeny do you get with crossing hétérozygote with homo recessive?

A

1:1 progeny

This is called a test cross?

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12
Q

What does a test cross tell you?

A

If you progeny has half one phenotype and half the phenotype of homo recessive, then the cross with done with a heterozygote
If they all give the other phenotype, you know the cross was done with a homozygote dominant individual

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13
Q

how do you find the probability of a progeny with 2 genes that are unlinked ?

A

You multiply the probability of each gene genotype

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14
Q

What are the expected ratio for crossing two heterozygote genes with two heterozygote genes?

A

9:3:3:1

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15
Q

What is the progeny for one homo and one hetero?

A

1:1:1:1

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16
Q

How do you count the number of possible combination of gametes?

A

Multiply the # of gametes of one individual of different genes, with the # of gametes of other individual of different genes

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17
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes?

A

Prokaryotic have circular chromosomes, eukaryotic have linear

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18
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

The complete set of chromosomes of a organism. Gives structure and number of chromosomes

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19
Q

Humans have how many pairs of chromosomes?

A

23 - 22 autosomal and 1 pair that is sex linked

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20
Q

What are the different types of centromeres?

A

Telocentric
Afrocentric
Meta centric

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21
Q

What results from mitosis?

A

Two daughter cells that have the same diploid genetic material

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22
Q

What results from meiosis?

A

2 cell divisions that results in 4 haploid gametes (reproductive cells that will fuse)

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23
Q

What occurs in the following stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase: chromosome condense, nuclear membrane breaks
Métaphase: nuclear spindle becomes prominent, chromosomes move at equatorial plane
Anaphase: pairs of sister chromatids separate
Telophase: nuclear membrane reforms around each daughter cell, by end, cytoplasm has been divided

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24
Q

In meiosis or mitosis can chromosomes cross over?

A

In meiosis, because of the way they align

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25
Q

What occurs in the following phases of meiosis?

A

Prophase I: chromosomes condense
Métaphase I: nuclear membrane disappears, take position at equatorial plane.
Anaphase I: chromosomes start moving to poles
Telophase I: no nuclear membrane forms, proceeds to prophase II
Prophase II: -
Métaphase II: chromosomes arrange themselves on equatorial plane, chromatids partly dissociates
Anaphase II: centromeres split, chromatids are pulled to opposite poles
Telophase II: nuclei reforms around chromosomes at pole

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26
Q

In what phase of meiosis do the chromosomes become fully condensed?

A

Prophase i

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27
Q

At what phase of meiosis do the chromosomes align at the equatorial plane?

A

Métaphase I and Métaphase II

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28
Q

At what phase of meiosis do the centromeres divide vs. Do not divide?

A

Metaphase I vs. Metaphase II

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29
Q

At what phase of meiosis do the chromosomes start moving to poles?

A 
In Anaphase I
Anaphase II (chromatids get pulled apart)
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30
Q

At what phase does the nuclei disappear and reforms?

A

Métaphase disappears

Telophase reappears

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31
Q

What are some differences between mitosis and meiosis?

A

Meiosis:

  • results in 4 haploid cells
  • One synthesis, two divisions
  • crossing over can occurs at I
  • centromeres do not divide in Anaphase I, but yes in Anaphase II

Mitosis:

  • one cell division per synthesis
  • results in 2 diploid daughter cells
  • no crossing over
  • centromeres divide at anaphase
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32
Q

Name the characteristics of a model organism?

A
  • fast reproductive cycle
  • give rise to many offsprings
  • small size
  • small genome
  • inexpensive- important biological property
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33
Q

What patterns of inheritance do we see with sex-linked genes?

A

They do not follow Mendelian rations
Disproportionate frequencies along male and females
Mothers tend to pass to sons, fathers to daughters

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34
Q

If a gene is sex-linked and the mother is heterozygous, what percentage of sons will have the trait? If she is homozygous or trait?

A

Half of the sons

All of the sons

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35
Q

If the father has an x dominant disease, what percentage of daughters will have it?

A

All daugthers will have it and show phenotype if the disease is dominant

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36
Q

In drosophila, if specie has XO, is it male or female? XXY

What is it based on?

A

Male
Female
Based on the proportion of XX to autosomal set of chromosomes

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37
Q

What kind of chromosomes do organelles (mitochondria and chloroplasts) have, how inherited are they?

A

They have circular chromosomes and is inherited from the maternal gametes. Do not follow mendel’s laws

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38
Q

What are gene maps used for? What can it be used for?

A

To calculate the distance between genes on the chromosomes by measuring the recombination.
Can be used to:
- isolate and clone genes
- clearly distinguish diff genes that affect the same trait
- Link traits to markers

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39
Q

What happens to inheritance if two genes are linked?

A

They will not abort independently in the gametes

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40
Q

When will two link genes assort independently?

A

If there are recombination

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41
Q

how do crossovers occur?

A

By double stranded break

More likely when genes are further apart - frequency is a measure of the distance between genes

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42
Q

How do you get the % recombinant?

A

You test cross the heterozygous F1 progeny with homozygous recessive

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43
Q

How do you measure % recombinant?

A

Add up the ones that recombined and divide by total progeny

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44
Q

What is the 3-point cross?

A

Used to map the distance between 3 genes and their order

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45
Q

What are the most frequent and less frequent in a 3 point cross?

A

Parental types are most frequent, double cross over are the least frequent

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46
Q

How do you find distance between two genes?

A

Calculate their % recombination (add up and divide)

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47
Q

What is interference and what is the formula?

A

Probability of double crossover is the product of the independent event
1- (observed DBC/Expected DBC)

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48
Q

What is the maximum distance that can be mapped between two genes ad why?

A

50cm, means it happens 100% of the time - gametes get 50.

More than that the genes are too far apart that they will assort independently.

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49
Q

What is the chi square test for and what is the formula?

A 
Used to decide whether data fits a certain ration (ie: these genes are linked or not linked)
Sum of (o-E)2/E

Should probability of this occurrence be lower than 5%, accept null hypothesis, should it be higher, deviation is probably due to chance, therefore reject null hypothesis

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50
Q

What are characteristics of bacteria?

A 
Cells do not have nucleus or organelles
Have circular chromosomes
Typically haploid
Have genes and phenotypes
Have cell division, not meiosis
We mostly look at e-coli
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51
Q

Why are bacteria good to study?

A

Large population
Rate mutations can be selected
Fast regeneration time
Because haploid, genotype=phenotype

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52
Q

What is the formula for find the original concentration of colonies

A

Colonies/total serial dilution

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53
Q

What are the 3 major classes of genes for bacterial genetics?

A

Résistance to bacteria
Requirement of a nutrient to grow
Ability to grow on one particular compound as sole carbon

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54
Q

What is a phototroph ?

A

Can grow on minimal medium

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55
Q

What is an autotrophs?

A

Requires a particular nutrient in order to grow

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56
Q

What is bacterial matin?

A

Under the control of the fertility factor (plasmid)

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57
Q

Describe bacterial matin conjugation

A

The fertility factor (plasmid) is a freely replicating circular piece of DNA (1/50 of bacterial DNA length)
F factor can be transferred to F- recipient.
If f factor integrate into the bacterial chromosome, becomes HFr (high frequency recombination)
HFr, can transfer copy of chrosomes to recipient F-. You have exogenote and endogenote.

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58
Q

In what sequence does the HFr incorporate into recipient bacteria?

A

Begin at the section closest to HFr, HFr is last to enter the cell

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59
Q

how is the HFr integrated?

A

By double recombination

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60
Q

What is the F-

A

Bacterial cell that can receive DNA (F factor) but not donate DNA

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61
Q

What is F+

A

bacteria that has the fertility factor as a plasmid, it can donate it readily
Only small portion of F+ inter grate it in chromosomes to become HFr

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62
Q

What is Hfr?

A

Bacteria like cell that has the fertility factor integrated in the chrosome. Can transfer to F- by starting at place adjacent to Hfr

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63
Q

What is F’?

A

Have episode that contains part of the bacterial chromosome

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64
Q

What is conjugation?

A

Transfer of DNA from one F+ to F- bacteria

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65
Q

What is a virus?

A

Small particles made up of DNA/RNA and proteins
Dépend on cellular machine of host
Called bacteriophages

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66
Q

What is transduction?

A

Phage infects cell with its DNA, which then gets replicated and degrades. Phage retakes its DNA and goes to infect another bacterial cell which can then recombine in the chromosomal DNA
Sometimes bacterial chrosome gets picked up and get reintegrated in new bacterial cell

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67
Q

What is transformation?

A

DNA can be introduced directly into cell in lab, heat shock and electroporation. They are transferred in segments

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68
Q

What are the different methods of gene mapping?

A
  • timed mating (timing of passage becomes a measure of distance between genes)
  • mapping by recombination frequency
  • mapping by transformation
  • mapping by phage transduction (measuring rate of co-transduction max 2 minutes)
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69
Q

What are two important generalized concepts?

A

Genes generally encode proteins

Proteins are generally enzymes

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70
Q

What are enzyme composed of?

A

Proteins

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71
Q

What catalysés a substrate?

A

An enzyme

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72
Q

What was the beagle and Tatum hypothesis?

A

Biosynthetic pathway where mutations occured in genes encoding the pathway

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73
Q

Name the different types of inheritance pattern (all of them)

A
  • one gene inheritance with dominance
  • 2 gene inheritance with dominance
  • incomplete dominance
  • co-dominance
  • recessive lethal alleles
  • 3 or more alleles of a single gene
  • multiple genes affecting trait
  • epistasis
  • duplicated genes
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74
Q

What happens when an enzyme has reduced amount?

A

Can become a dominant mutation because:
it can cause it be non functional:
- if part of a complex
- if an activity was released from normal constraint
OR
It could mean partial functionality (incomplete dominance)

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75
Q

What inheritance should we expect for incomplete dominance?

A

1:2:1, where heterozygous is a mix between both

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76
Q

What pattern do we expect fo co-dominance?

A

1:2:1 (same as regular Mendelian ratios)

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77
Q

What inheritance doo we expect for recessive lethal allele?

A

2:1
They never breed true, the homozygous recessive individual will always die, therefore you will never have a partent that is true

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78
Q

Inheritance of Multiple alleles?

A

Typical 1:2:1 or 1:1

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79
Q

Multiple genes affecting the same trait?

A

Should expect the 2 gene inheritance pattern 9:3:3:1

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80
Q

Inheritance of duplicated genes?

A

1:15

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81
Q

Epistasis, what is it and inheritance?

A

When alleles of one gene, masks the effects of alleles of another gene
9:4:3

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82
Q

What is a complementation test?

A

To test whether two mutations are in the same gene or different gene.
Should the progeny be normal, both parent complemented and mutations are on different genes (biosynthethic pathway is an example)

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83
Q

What is a protein?

A

Long structure of polypeptide chains, composed of Amino acids
There are 20 AA
Each protein has a unique AA sequence

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84
Q

What s a merodiploid?

A

A partial diploid organism, where a chromosomes fragment was introduced by conjugation, transformation or transduction

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85
Q

What are the four basic nucleotides and what are they a base of?

A

Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Thymine

They are nitrogen bases

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86
Q

What are the different components of DNA?

A

Phosphate base attached to deoxyribose sugar, attached to nitrogen base, which attaches to to another nitrogen base with hydrogen bonds

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87
Q

Who discovered the A=T and G=C rule?

A

Chargaff

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88
Q

What did Griffith’s study show? And who else helped in confirming and how?

A

Showed the existence of transformation between bacteria with the virus in a mouse
Mcleod and Mcarthy showed that it was DNA
Hershey and chase confirmed that it was DNA with their isotopes

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89
Q

What is the Experiment of Hershey and chase?

A

Use isotopes of phosphorous and Sulfur (DNA only has phosphorous, not sulfur)
32P and 35S, which was found in phage and bacterial cell (only 32P entered the bacteria cell

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90
Q

What did Watson and crick propose?

A

Worked with an X-ray to propose the semi-conservative model of replication

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91
Q

Who proved the semi-conservative model and how?

A

Meselson and stahl
Used heavier isotope of Nitrogen
15N
First generation showed a mix of both (middle density)
Second generation showed 2 middle bands and 2 light 14N bands

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92
Q

What is DNA composed of?

A

C,N,O,P,H

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93
Q

What are DNA strands held by?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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94
Q

Which nucleotide pairing is held by 3H bonds instead of 2?

A

G-C

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95
Q

Which part of the DNA is held by covalent bonds?

A

Deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphodiester

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96
Q

What is the directionality of DNA?

A

5’ to 3’

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97
Q

How can two strands of DNA be separated?

A

By heat and enzymes

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98
Q

What is DNA replication? And when does it occur in the life cycle of a cell?

A

It occurs in the S phase

One DNA double helix gives rise to two double helix strands. Each strand is replicated

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99
Q

What is needed for replication?

A
  • DNA template
  • Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (acts as substrate to add nucleotide)
  • Multiple enzymes:
    ≥topoisomerase
    ≥Helicase
    ≥Primase
    ≥DNA pol
  • Primer (DNA or RNA)
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100
Q

Which enzyme is required for unwinding of the double strand?

A

Topoisomerase

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101
Q

Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds

A

Helicase

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102
Q

What does RNA primate do?

A

Builds the RNA primer

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103
Q

What does DNA polymerase do?

A
  • It is the enzyme that synthesizes the new DNA
  • Must use a DNA strand as a template
  • Moves in the 3’ to 5’ direction but adding nucleotide in the 5’ to 3’ direction of the new strand
  • Pol III is the principle DNA replication enzyme
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104
Q

In what direction does the new strand elongate?

What direction does the DNA pol move?

A

Elongate in the 5’ to 3’ direction

DNA pol moves in the 3’ to 5’ direction

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105
Q

What is exonuclease activity and what does it provide? Which enzyme allows that?

A
  • Cleaving one nucleotide at a time and provide proofreading and editing
  • Pol I and III
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106
Q

What are the two different strands formed during DNA replication and how do they differ?

A

Leading strands:

  • Pol III moves in the 3’ to 5’ towards the fork
  • pol III synthesizes in a continuous manner
  • only need one primer

Lagging strands:

  • pol III moves int eh 3’ to 5’ away from the fork
  • synthesizes in short fragments using RNA primers ( made by Primase)
  • create okosaki fragment
  • pol I removes primer
  • Ligage rejoins the new segment
  • need multiple primers
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107
Q

What is an Okazaki fragment?

A

Fragment of newly synthesized DNA with the Primer

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108
Q

What enzyme removes the primer?

A

DNA pol I

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109
Q

What enzyme connects the selected strands?

A

DNA ligase

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110
Q

What direction does the DNA Pol I move?

A

Always in the 3’ to 5’

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111
Q

What direction do the new DNA synthesize?

A

Always int he 5’ to 3’

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112
Q

how does DNA pol III work at the fork?

A

Uses primer to synthesize new DNA

Will detach and go the the fork once again

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113
Q

Give the details of DNA replication (full steps)

A
  • DNA double helix is opened by topoisomerase
  • Helicase enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds
    For lagging strand:
  • Primase synthesizes RNA primer (for the lagging strand)
  • primer is the starting point for DNA pol III
  • Okazaki fragment is created
  • Pol I removes primer
  • Ligase joins the new segments
  • DNA pol III goes back towards the fork where it starts again with primer

For leading strand:

  • DNA pol III synthesizes new strand from primer
  • moves towards the fork
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114
Q

What is the role of DNA pol i?

A

Removes the primer and fills gap by synthesis of short fragments

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115
Q

What is the role of DNA pol II

A

DNA repair, replacement of new DNA synthesized that went wrong

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116
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for joints segments?

A

DNA ligase

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117
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for synthesis on most of the DNA

A

DNA pol I

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118
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double helix stand?

A

Topoisomerase

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119
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for DNA repair and short segment synthesis?

A

DNA pol II

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120
Q

What it’s he starting point of DNA pol III

A

RNA primer, which was synthesized by Primase

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121
Q

How does replication occur in e.coli compared to eukaryote?

A

E.coli:
-single origin of replication and moves in both direction

Eukaryotes:

  • multiple orginin of replication
  • moves in both direction
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122
Q

What occurs in eukaryotic replication after the primer is removed?

A

There is a terminal gap that cannot be filled by DNA pol

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123
Q

what fills in the terminal gap in eukaryotic cells? And how?

A

Telomerase

- it is a reverse transcriptase which has its own internal RNA primers

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124
Q

What are the two enzymes that fills gap, but in different places?

A

Ligase - to fill within the DNA strand

Telomerase - to fill at the end, the terminal gap

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125
Q

how does telomerase work?

A
  • Has internal RNA that is complementary to 3’ overhang
  • add complementary nucleotide, moves along to add again
  • then Primase and DNA pol can synthesize the missing parts of strands
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126
Q

What is the AZT drug?

A

Treatment for HIV used to inhibit reverse transcriptase where DNA pol cannot attach the next nucleotide because it has an N instead of an O

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127
Q

how do you replicate in a test tube?

A
  • Heat (will meld DNA to single strand)
  • add primer, DNA pol and nucleotides
  • DNA will synthesize in 5’ to 3’
128
Q

What is Gene transcription?

A

Synthesis of RNA (ribonucleic acid) from DNA template

129
Q

What is translation?

A

MRNA is translated into a protein product

130
Q

What is the purpose of mRNA?

A

It carries the information of a gene (from DNA) ito the cytoplasm for translation

131
Q

What is the difference between RNA and DNA?

A

RNA

  • has a sugar phosphate backbone composed of ribose (OH), not deoxyribose (H)
  • single stranded
  • has uracil instead of Thymine (methyl group differentiation)
132
Q

What are the different RNA classes? What do they do?

A
  • ribosomal RNA: part of translation complex
  • transfer RNA: brings AA to ribosome
  • messenger RNA: protein encoding transcriptase of Gene. Strand that gets translated into a protein.
133
Q

in what direction is the RNA transcribed?

A

5’ to 3’

134
Q

Are genes on the same stands transcribed in the same direction?

A

Yes

135
Q

The RNA strand is synthesized from which strand and is complementary or identical to which strand

A

Complementary to template

But identical to coding strand

136
Q

What are under rna that were recently discovered?

A

Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) - involved in splicing
Small nucleolar RNA (snoRNA) - involved in processing
Micro RNA- involved in mRNA degradation and gene reg
Piti interacting (piRNAs) - role in suppression of viruses

137
Q

In prokaryotes, what enzyme is used to transcribe the DNA stand?

A

RNA polymerase ( a multimeric complex)

Contains:
- beta, alpha + sigma factor = holoenzyme.

138
Q

What does the sigma factor do?

A

Provide specificity in choosing the promoter (where initiation of transcription begins)

139
Q

What are different promoters in prokaryotes for transcription?

A 
TATA box (-10)
Pro now box (-35)
140
Q

How is termination of transcription controlled in prokaryotes?

A
  • mostly controlled by rho factor
    Or
  • hair pin in RNA transcript
141
Q

Prokaryotic transcripts tend to be ___, meaning genes are cotranscribed into a single RNA

A

Polycystronic

142
Q

What do you call genes that are polycistronic?

A

An opérons?

143
Q

What is an operon?

A

A single transcript that can encode multiple different proteins (ie: lac operon)

144
Q

What are difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription of rna?

A

Prokaryotes:

  • RNA pol (one type), multimeric complex with sigma factor
  • TATA (-10) ad pro now box )-35)
  • termination controlled by rho factor or hairpin loop
  • polycistronic
  • no 5’ cap
  • if there is a poly A tail, message for degradation

Eukaryotes:

  • use diff enzymes depending on type of proteins
  • promoters are TATAAT (-30) and CAAT (-50)
  • termination is capped with 7-methyl guanosine, there if a poly A tail that signals cleavage
  • are regulons and not operons, meaning one rna encodes one protein
  • have splicing before it is exported to cytosol ask for translation
145
Q

Name the different enzymes used for protein production(in transcription) in prokaryotes

A

RNA pol I ≥ for rRNA
RNA pol II ≥ copies of genes
RNA pol III ≥ tRNA

146
Q

What are the promoters sued in eukaryotic transcription?

A

TATAAT (-30)

CAT (-50)

147
Q

What is a polydenylation signal and what does it do?

A

The addition of a poly A tail

Indicates the need for cleaving about 20bp after the poly A tail

148
Q

Where is the 7-methylguanosine added?

A

Ont he 5’ end of the transcribed RNA

149
Q

Where does the splicing occur? What is it and what enzyme does it?

A
  • Splicing occurs after the transcription
  • occurs in the nucleus before it is exported to cytoplasm
  • removes introns
  • spliceosome does it
150
Q

What is translation?

A

When mRNA is translated into synthesis of polypeptide chains

151
Q

What is a polypeptide chain?

A

Many Amino acids
Amino acids are triplets of nucleotides called codon
Several codons represent the same AA

152
Q

What is the start and stop signals?

A

AUG - start

UAG and UAA and UGA - stop

153
Q

What are long open reading frames?

A

Long sequence of nucleotide without interruptions
- usually 80 AA or longer
In prok a gene is approx: 950 base pairs, one gene = several proteins
In euk : 1300 base pairs, 1 gene = several proteins

154
Q

What are the different structures of a mature mRNA

A
  • A 5’ UTR
  • AUG start codon and a stop codon
  • an ORF
  • 3’ UTR followed by a poly A tail
155
Q

what are the three phases of translation in prokaryotes?

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

156
Q

What is the shine-Dalgarmo sequence?

A

Sequence that is 8 base pairs from start codon that helps recruit the ribosomes

157
Q

In what direction does the ribosome move on the mRNA stand?

A

From 5’ to 3’

158
Q

In what direction do the tRNA moves?

A

From A site to P site to E site, towards 5 ‘ end

159
Q

What is the role of tRNA in translation?

A

TRNA is charged and has anticodon complementary to mRNA. It brings AA to A site, moves to P site and after moves to E site and gets released.

160
Q

How is tRNA charged? What energy is used?

A

Amino Acyl tRNA synthetase adds an AA to tRNA, in orde for it to be brought to complex.
ATP is used

161
Q

what is the wobble hypothesis?

A

That the 3rd base nucleotide does not always follow Watson-crick rules. It can pair with another nucleotide

162
Q

In prokaryotes, translation occurs ____ mRNA is fully transcribed

A

Before

163
Q

Describe the initiation steps of translation in prokaryotes

A

1- binding of IF3 to 30S - becomes initiation factor
2- complex binds to mRNA
3- IF2 binds to n-formyl methionine tRNA - which brings it to P site
4- GTP hydrolysis brings dissociation of IF3 and IF2, allows 50S to associate with 30S
5- charged tRNA can now be brought to A- site

164
Q

What kind of reaction allows dissociation of Initiation factors in initiation phase, what does it allow?

A

GTP hydrolysis

Allows 50S to associate with complex

165
Q

Where does IF2 and N-formal methionine tRNA first binds?

A

The P site

166
Q

What does the IF3 and 30S complex do?

A

Allows complex to bind to mRNA and prevents 50s to associate, until ready

167
Q

What does the 30s subunit consist of?

50 s?

A

16s rna and 21 proteins

23s , 5s rna and 31 proteins

168
Q

Describe the elongation steps of translation. What is it?

A

Addition of charged tRNA in the A site

1- Elongation factor -Tu (EF-Tu) binds to EF-ts which is a GTP exchange factor
2- EF-Tu gets charged with GTP and releases EF-Ts.
3- this complex (EF-Tu- GTP) helps in bringing the charged Amynoacyl tRNA to the A site (facilitates the connection
4- once properly positioned - GTP hydrolysis, release of EF-Tu
5- ribosome catalyzes linkage of new AA to chain of AA
6- Ribosome moves along under control of EF-G bound to GTP (moves tRNA from P to A to E site) with GTP hydrolysis

169
Q

What is the purpose of GTP, unlike ATP

A

Serves as directionality, not energy like ATP

170
Q

When is GTP hydrolyzed in elongation and what does it do?

A

1- after positioning of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site
- releases GDP and EF-tu

2- also EF-G, which helps move tRNA from A to P to E site

171
Q

What is the structure of a protein?

A

AA that re linked together by covalent polypeptide bonds

- added from amino end to carboxylase group

172
Q

Describe steps of termination in translation

A

Terminate with a stop codon that appears at the A site

- tRA doe snot bind, instead RF1 (release factor) and RF3 binds and hydrolysis releases tRNA

173
Q

What are mutations?

A

Permanent change in DNA sequence

If it changes the function of a protein, it has phenotypic consequences

174
Q

Wha are the different kinds of mutations

A
  1. Point mutations
    - missense mutation
    - nonsense mutations
    - synonymous mutations
  2. Frameshift mutations
  3. Insertion or deletion of 3 nucleotides
  4. Large deletion or insertion
175
Q

Describe point mutation and the different kinds?

A

One nucleotide is changed:

  • Missense: changes condon to a different AA, can be very deleterious
  • Nonsense: changes AA to a stop codon, produce trunkcated protein. Very deleterious
  • Synonymous mutation: change in nucleotide that does not alter the sequence. No effect on protein
176
Q

Describe frameshift mutations

A

Addition or loss of 1 or 2 nucleotide:

  • changes all of the AA sequence
  • often introduces a stop codon
  • very deleterious
177
Q

Describe insertion of deletion of 3 nucleotide

A
  • if by 3 nucleotide not so bad
  • could be correctio by a second mutation to correct the frame
  • most common CFTR
178
Q

Describe large deletions or insertions

A
  • disrupts sequence and inactivates genes
179
Q

What is an insertion mutations?

A

Transposable elements that can insert and cause mutations

180
Q

how can point mutations be compensated?

A

By a suppressor mutation, which is a mutation int he anticodon of tRNA genes. This will prevent the termination of translation, and wont stop

181
Q

Name the different factors associated with each phase of translation

A

Initiation:
IF2, IF3
GTP

Elongation:
EF-tu, EF-Ts, EF-g, Ribosome

Termination:
RF1, RF3

182
Q

What is an operon and where do we find them?

A

mRNA that has multiple genes that encode different proteins

- found in prokaryotes

183
Q

Name the difference operons that we looked at

A 
Catabolic operon:
-negative regulation:
≥Lac operon (break down lactose)
- positive regulation:
≥ CAP (break down glucose)

Anabolic circuit:
≥trop operon (to make tryptophan)
≥attenuation (to activate the trip operon)

184
Q

What is a regulon and name the regulon we looked at?

A

One gene on one mRNA encodes one protein

Catabolic
≥ Galactose regulon (Leloir pathway)
- to break down galactose

185
Q

What is a merodiploid?

A

When a copy of the lac operon is carried on the F+ episode, (f’ factors) and make a temporary diploid

186
Q

What are regulatory proteins?

A

Controls transcription depending on the bind of these regulatory proteins (activators or repressor)

187
Q

When looking at operons, we are looking at what?

A

Genes that have not be transcribed yet

Looking at DNA strand that may or may not get transcribed

188
Q

Describe the different site of lac operon (regulatory components)

A

I: synthesizes the repressor
P (promoter site) - where RNA pol binds
O (operator site) - where repressor binds
Z (B-galactose) - cleaves lactose
Y (permease) - facilitates lactose update in cells
A (transacetylase) - not essential

189
Q

Describe the lac operon and how it works

A

Repressor which is synthesized by I gene, binds to Operator site.
RNA pol binds to promoter site
If Lactose is present, repressor unbinds from operator site and transcription of the 3 genes follow.

190
Q

What kind of question with the lac operon?

A

If the gene B-galactose is being synthesized

191
Q

What are the different types of mutations of lac operon. Are they Cis or trans acting, recessive or dominant

A
  • Z-,Y-,A-: recessive, cis acting
  • I-: synthesizes a repressor that cannot bind to operator site. Cis acting, recessive to I+. Operon i always on and encodes B-galatosidase
  • Oc: operator site cannot bind repressor. Cis acting, dominant because you will see B-galactosidase.
  • Is: is a super repressor. It will bind to O but will never be removed. Is trans acting and dominant. operon is always Off
  • P-: promoter mutation, where RNA pol cannot bind, therefore can never make B-galactosidase. Is cis acting and recessive to p+, but epistasis to Oc and I-
192
Q

what is the rule of thumb for mutations in lac operon?

A

P->Oc>Is>I-

193
Q

What is an example of positive regulatory protein that explains why glucose is always used up before galactose?

A

CAP (catabolic et activator protein) regulator - when glucose levels are low, ATP is low and AMP is high

194
Q

Describe the CAP regulation

A
  • when there is low glucose, adenylate cyclase is activated
  • transforms ATP to cAMP
  • cAMP binds to CAP, which together, can bind to DNA and improve activity of promoter.
195
Q

What happens when there is high glucose present? No lactose

A

Low cAMP, repressor binds and no lac genes are transcribed

196
Q

what happens when there is high glucose but lactose

A

Repressor doesn’t bind because of lactose but cAMP/CAP didn’t improve promoter = little lac mRA

197
Q

What happens when there is no glucose and lactose

A

No glucose, activation of adenylate cyclase, transforms ATP to cAMP, which binds to CAP, which improves activity of promoter
Lactose binds to repressor
LOTS of lac mRNA

198
Q

What is the trp operon?

A

Is anabolic - tells when to make or not tryptophan

199
Q

What does the trp gene encode?

A

The repressor

200
Q

Describe the trp operon

A
  • When there is tryptophan, the repressor will bind and prevent transcription
  • when there is no tryptophan, the repressor will not bind and there will be transcription to make tryptophan

** presence of tryptophan activates the repressor

201
Q

What is the difference between trp operon and lac operon

A

Presence of lactose, removes the repressor

Presence of tryptophan, activates the repressor

202
Q

What is attenuation?

A

Fine-tune of the expression of trp operon

Works because of prokaryotes having transcription and translation coupled.

203
Q

what happens in attenuation when there is plenty of tryp?

A
  • Ribosome passes and reaches termination signal and falls off
  • transcription terminators form 3-4
  • RNA stops, RNA pol dissociates (not allowing the synthesis of the enzyme that makes more tryp)
204
Q

what happens when there is not enough tryp?

A
  • ribosome will stall
  • 2-3 antiterminator will form
  • allows RNA pol to continue along DNA, allowing production of the enzyme to make more TRP
205
Q

What is the Galactose regulon?

A
  • found i eukaryotes

- positive as something needs to “activate” promoters to allow RNA poly to access

206
Q

what is the transcription factor in regulating galactose?

A

GAL 4 - binds as a dimer to Gal80 when there is no galactose.

207
Q

what happens if galactose is present?

A

It bind to Gal 80, which detaches from Gal4, le loir pathway is on and allows for metabolism of galactose

208
Q

How does gal4 act? What does Gal80 do?

A

Gal 80 is a repressor of gal4 not allowing for the transcription to occur.
Gal 4 binds as a dimer and activates the promoter by allowing RNA poly to access the promoter easier

209
Q

How id a merodiploid form?

A
  • From conjugation (or transformation, or transduction)
  • f+ becomes Hfr
  • Hfr introduces into f- and becomes an F-

Partial diploid for that locus

210
Q

What is gene cloning?

A
  • Refers to the insertion of the DNA of a gene into a vector (plasmid) that can replicate (insert into f- or as Hfr)
  • can be transformed into bacteria where it will undergo many replications
  • also called (genetic recombination technology)
211
Q

What are the major needs for cloning?

A

1- introduction of DNA (by transformation)
2- molecules to propagate the fragment (vector /plasmid)
3- means to artificially recoding : restriction enzymes (cuts DNA) and ligage (sticks together)

212
Q

what i the technique for transformation? What is it for?

A

To allow exogenous DNA to be taken up by e.coli

  • salt wash
  • heat shock
213
Q

What are the two types of natural vectors?

A

1- f’ episome: plasmid where piece of DNA has recombined in f+ factor
2- lambda transduction phase : (propagated when carried bacterial DNA) - lysogeny

214
Q

Name the different types of vectors:

A
  • plasmid
  • shuttle vectors
  • lambda bacteriophage
  • bacterial artificial chromosomes
  • yeast artificial chromosomes
215
Q

what is the major important i recombinant techniques?

A

Gene must integrate into the vector

216
Q

What is an ideal vector?

A
  • small
  • carry markers (ie: antibiotic selectable markers)
  • would propagate in e.coli)
  • has restriction sites
217
Q

What are two example to see if gene was transformed successfully?

A
  • ampicillin resistance
  • beta galactosidate

Allows to find bacteria that has new piece of DNA cloned

218
Q

What is a polylinker?

A

Multiple clog in sites

- offers many choices in regards to which enzyme to use for closing

219
Q

What are restriction sites?

A

Cut sites - DNA sequence that can be recognized by restriction enzymes

220
Q

What are restriction endonucleases (restriction enzymes)? Who has them?

A

Enzymes that can cut DNA in a precise way.

Bacteria’s have these to prevent infection from foreign bacteria

221
Q

What are the two types of restriction enzymes, how do they differ?

A

Type I: cuts elsewhere then the restriction site

Type II: work horse enzyme for recombination, recognizes a sequence and cuts at recognition site

222
Q

who did the initial work on restriction enzymes and plasmids?

A

Boyer and cohen

223
Q

Most plasmids have:

A
  • origin of replication
  • gene for antibiotic resistance (marker)
  • multiple cloning sites (Polylinker)
  • B-glactosidase
  • lac promoter
224
Q

What are the three types of restriction enzymes and how do they cut?

A

1- Eco RI - 5’ single stranded overhang
2- PST I - 3’ overhang
3 - Sma I - blunt ends

225
Q

how do you calculate the expected frequency of a restriction site of DNA of cDNA?

A

1/4 to the n
N = # of bases in the recognition sequence
1/4 because chance of each nucleotide.
If given two nucleotides that can go there 1/2

226
Q

How does electrophoresis work and what is it used for?

A
  • Used to measure the size of DNA (size of the different fragments)
  • you use gel and dye (ethics bromide) to stain DNA mol
  • you have a ladder
  • have undigested DNA
  • then have it digested by different restriction enzymes, which give you different sizes.
227
Q

Where do the smallest fragments travel in electrophoresis?

A

They travel the farthest down

228
Q

what does size tell you in electrophoresis?

A

How far te cut sites are

229
Q

If there are 3 fragments, it means you used ___ enzymes?

A

2

230
Q

What is cDNA?

A
  • MRNA that was converted to cDNA and clones (has no introns because made from mRNA)
  • has 3’UTR
  • can have 5’ UTR
  • no introns
  • no promoter
  • done by reverse transcriptase
231
Q

What is cDNA great for?

A

Deciphering the coding region of a gene

232
Q

What is PCR, what does it stand for?

A

Polymerase Chain reaction

  • allows direct amplification without the use of plasmid
  • making lots of copies of a particular DNA fragment
233
Q

what is the PCR cycle?

A

1 - denature DNA - 96 degrees
2- annealing of primers (primers stick to DNA) - 52 degrees
3- DNA synthesis from primer - 72 degrees

Do this again, many times

234
Q

What enzyme is used in PCR?

A

TAQ, which cannot proofread - it extends the primers

235
Q

What is the amplification of PCR?

A

After one cycle, # of DNA molecule has doubled - it is exponential

236
Q

How can you tell if you have cloned the piece of DNA you want? Apart from electrophoresis?

A
  • DNA hybridization (norther or southern blot)
237
Q

How do you do DNA hybridization, southern blot and northern blot

A

Southern:
After DNA digestion, electrophoresis and dénaturation (1 strand)
- you blot (transfer to membrane)
- hybridize with radioactive single stranded probe (will stick to complementary, even if not perfect)
Northern:
- RNA is used for electrophoresis instead of DNA

238
Q

What is DNA hybridization? What doe sit show?

A

If two single stranded pieces of DNA tat are complementary willl spontaneously form a double helix, even if not perfect match.

  • shows that the sequences are similar
239
Q

What is autoradiographie used for?

A

Uses southern blot to help identify if 2 alleles are the same
Restriction fragment length polymorphism
- can tell you if two fragments are the same size as size of mutated allele

240
Q

What is DNA sequencing?

A

Sequencing fragments of DNA using a primer (oligonucleotide to replicated DNA

241
Q

What is the Sanger methods of DNA sequencing?

A
  • PCR to amply the sample
  • add regular deoxyribonucleotide to be able to extend strand
  • add dideoxyribonucleotide - these are missing an oxygen and therefore terminate the sequence.
  • add fluorescence to these ddNTP (A,G,C,T)
  • they will terminate at different point and you will be able to sequence depending on colour
242
Q

What does the CRISPR/Cas 9 do?

A

Improves specificity of genetic engineering?

243
Q

What is cas 9?

A

Nucleases that is linked to RNA. RNA will direct it to the right sequence that is homologous, in order to cut it.

Therefore efficiently targets DNA of interest.

244
Q

What percentage of cancers are sporadic?

A

75%

245
Q

What are the genetics of cancer?

A

1- Genes can give stronger predisposition to specific cancers
2- other genetic factors can increase odds 2-3 folds
3- chemical compounds are clearly carcinogenic
4- env. and lifestyle can increase

246
Q

What are oncogenes? What is a normal gene called?

A

Genes that if present, seem to put those cells at risk of cancer.

Pro-onco gene

247
Q

What are differences between normal mammalian cells and tumor cells?

A

Normal:

  • divides a limited # of times approx 50 x
  • inhibition of growth with contact

Tumor cells:

  • they were immortal
  • no limit to # of division
  • not inhibited by contact
  • grow fo I
248
Q

What gene was used to identify once genes?

A

NIH 3T3

249
Q

What is the RAS oncogene?

A
  • a small GTPase that switches from ON and OFF by hydrolysis of GTP
  • have the ability to activate cancer
  • RAS protein has 12th AA changed therefore could not hydrolyze GTP, therefore stayed ON
250
Q

What are the dominant oncogenes? What do they do?

A

RAS
-found to link 2 signalling molecules:
≥receptor tyrosine kinase
≥ MAP kinase

MYC
- Encodes transcription factor
≥controls expression of large set of genes

SRC
- encodes a kinase
≥job is to add phosphate residue to various proteins

They are all key components of signalling pathways

251
Q

What does receptor tyrosine kinase do? What is it also called?

A

Also called - epidermal growth factor receptor (HER)

Transmembrane protein that stimulates the proliferation of diff types of cells

252
Q

What is a type of treatment for the epidermal growth factor?

A

Hereptin - monoclonal antibody against HER - which prevent dimerization and inhibits growth

253
Q

What are two genetic diseases that we will be looking at?

A
  • retinoblastoma

- breast cancer

254
Q

What type of genetic disease is retinoblastoma?

A

2-hit model - 2 things have to go wrong in order to get the disease
Rob gene - 2 normal copies have to go wrong in order to be activates

  • it is a recessive oncogene
  • it is a tumor suppressor gene
255
Q

why rb gene considered a tumor suppressor gene?

A

The normal gene is an inhibitor of transcritor facto E2F, which controls the start of DNA replication.

256
Q

What occurs without the normal Rb gene that inhibits Transcriptor factor?

A

The E2F is too active and replicates inappropriately.

257
Q

What percentage of breast cancer are hereditary directly from gene mutation inherited from parent?

A

5-10%

258
Q

What are the two genes associated with breast cancer? What causes the disease?

A

BRCA1 - BRCA2

Loss of heterozygosity - where a mutation in somatic cell causes second copy and bring homozygosity

259
Q

Breast cancer is ____ for inheritance and ____ at the cellular lever

A

Dominant

Recessive

260
Q

What are recessive oncogenes?

A

Rb gene
BRCA1/2
P53

261
Q

How could cancer be prevented?

A
  • no smoking
  • eat less fat, avoid over consumption
  • exercise moderately
  • drink moderately
  • self breast check/ gynaecological/ testicular
  • colonoscopy
  • annual blood test for prostate
262
Q

Diet to avoid cancer?

A

Carotenoids
Crucifierons vegetable (cabbage, broccoli etc
Fribers

263
Q

Wha are the goal of anti cancer drugs?

A 
- inhibit cell division:
≥ inhibiting DNA replication
≥disrupt separation during mitosis (disrupting spindle fibers, preventing cell division)
- kill tumor cells
≥tiger apoptosis
264
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Organized cell suicide, when cells realize they have abnormalities

265
Q

Name the different drugs that we are looking at?

A
  • 5-flurouracil (5FU)
  • Ara-C
  • Vinca Alkaloids
  • Gemcitabine (2’2’-diflurodeoxycytidine)
  • monoclonal antibodies (2 types)
  • bleomycin
  • camptothecin
  • methotrexate
  • Iressa
  • Gleevec
266
Q

Describe 5-flurouracil

A
  • used for colecteral caner
  • analogue of Uracil/thymine
  • inhibits Thymidylate synthase (precursor of DNA)
  • inhibits DNA synthesis
  • triggers programmed cell deat
267
Q

Ara-C

A

CTP analogue OH in 2’ positio

-inhibits synthesis

268
Q

Vince alkaloids types and what does it do?

A

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Vinorelbine

Disrupt the spindle fiber in mitosis - prevents dimerization of tubulin

269
Q

Gemcitabine

A
  • dCTP analogue incorporated into DNA
  • inhibits chain elongation
  • used for pancreatic cancer
270
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A

Made to target proteins found on surface of tumor cells

  • rituximab (cd20 antigen target on B cells - leukaemia, lymphoma)
  • trastuzumab (herceptin): target HER, which is overexpresed in 25-30% of breast cancer
271
Q

Bleomycin

A

Causes single stranded/double stranded breaks

272
Q

Camptothecin

A

Naturally occurring alkaloid

Inhibit topoisomerase

273
Q

Methotrexate

A

Inhibit purine and thymidylate synthesis

Causes: misincorporation of dUTP into DNA
For leukaemia, lymphoma, breast etc

274
Q

Iressa

A

Works again Tumors where HER 2 is amplified

275
Q

Gleevec

A

Inhibits action of tyrosine kinase BCR1-Ab1 fusion oncogene

276
Q

Why are there side effects?

A

Because they affect rapidly dividing cells, which are found

277
Q

What is the frequency of genotypes in a population dependent upon?

A

The frequency of alleles that cause that trait

278
Q

What does p and q stand for?

A

P = frequency of A
P = frequency of a
P+q=1

279
Q

How do you find the frequency of a specific genotype?

A

P2 (homozygote dominant) +2pq (heterozygote) + q2 (homozygote recessive)

280
Q

What are the conditions for following hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

A

Large population
Mating at random
No significant selection, migration, mutation

281
Q

What would the chi square test be used for?

A

To check if population distribution is in hardy-W equilibrium

  • must use # in population
  • always use one degree of freedom
282
Q

If given the frequency of a disease, how do you find the frequency of an allele?

A 
50 = f(aa) =q2 square root gives you q
P+q = 1
283
Q

If asked the frequency of heterozygosity, what do you do?

A

Multiply, frequency of

284
Q

What is an harem structure?

A

Single dominant male with many mates, not expected to ave H-W equilibrium

285
Q

What is inbreeding and what does it cause?

A

Between close relatives (or in plants that self pollinate)
— it decreases heterozygosity, loose 50% (1/2) per heterozygote cross
Increases homozygozity

286
Q

How is uniformity achieved?

A

Homozygote - true breeding

287
Q

What is the inbreeding coefficient?

A

Probability of the offspring from consanguineous mating is homozygous by descent

288
Q 
What is the basic # of chromosomes in humans?
# of chromosomes in gametes
A

X = 23
2X=46

N = # of chromosomes in gametes
2N = 46
289
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Have more than 2 copies of the genome

Tétraploïde = 2N = 4X = 28 x = 7

290
Q

What is euploidy?

A

Changes in the number of whole chromosomes sets

291
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

Change in the # of individual chromosomes (of whole # of sets)

292
Q

how can polyploidy be induced?

A

In plants with colchicine, which disrupts the spindle fibers and cells dont divide

  • after one cycle, doubled chromosomes
  • must have even # of chromosomes
293
Q

What is autopolyploidy?

A

Doubling chromosomes with the same species

294
Q

What is alloploidy?

A

Combined genome of 2 or more related species

295
Q

What are the types of chromosomal changes?

A

1- duplications
2- deletions
3- inversions
4- translocations

296
Q

What is duplications

A

Create imbalance in # of genes

297
Q

Deletions?

A

Usually deleterious

Generates loss of genes

298
Q

Inversion

A

1- paracentric inversion
More stable, as loss or addition, but induce recombination which produce invivable gametes and reduce surviving offspring

  1. Pericentric: includes centromeres
    Lead to decrease map distance between genes because it redues the # of recombination in a populatio
299
Q

Which chromosomal change causes recombinants to have a decreases distance?

A

Inversions

300
Q

Translocations

A

Break and reciprocal fusion of non-homologous chromosomes
- switching piece of DNA from one chromosome to another
- reduce gamete viability and cause pseudolinkage
Caused by breakage and rejoining

301
Q

What is Aneuploidy? What are the different types?

A

Arise from disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis

Nullsomis
- 2n-2 *missing two copies

Monosomics:

  • 2n-1
  • missing one X chromosomes
  • Turner syndrome
Trisomies
- 2n+1
- klinefelter syndro XXY (sterile men)
Or 
- Down’s syndrome: chrosmomes 21,
302
Q

What is genomics?

A

Study of genomes int heir entirety

303
Q

How many genes do humans have appro?

A

20,000

304
Q

What is genome structure?

A

Involves the analysis of gene sequence, gene #, order and physical nature of X

305
Q

Functional genomics?

A

Studies the function of genes, gene expression, phenotype

306
Q

Bioinformatics?

A

Use of computer analysis for structural or functional genomics

307
Q

Proteomics?

A

Study of all proteins of an organism

308
Q

how do we get a sequence?

A

Sanger gene sequencing method

309
Q

how is gene sequencing done by Sanger, which were thre new approaches used?

A

Done my increments of 300-800 bp
Typical lens of a DNA sequence from one Sanger was about 500 bases long, but total 3 million base pairs, therefore requires 6 million runs

310
Q

What are two distinc approaches used instead of Sanger?

A

1- human genome program: Broke genome into. Large fragments, clones as largement fragments in BAC and ordered into overlapping sets

2- Private consortium celera: whole genome shot gun approach. Broke genome into small fragments for sequencing and used powerful computer to fit pieces together

311
Q

What is a contigus?

A

Contiguous sequences made by overlap of sequences in regions of identity.

312
Q

What are today’s different technique to sequence a genome?

A

Illumina:

  • millions of PCR amplified short fragments
  • use fluorescent ATGC
  • look under microscope

Ion torrent

  • millions of PCR amplified short fragments on semi conductor
  • detect hydrogen ions from each nucleotide incorporated
  • chip computer

Pas bio

  • traps DNA pol
  • watches incorporation of not flucorecent in real time
  • no amplification
  • can be long pieces of DNA
313
Q

What is Blastn comparison?

A

You identify gene coding region
1- compare cDNA sequence from same species
2- compare DNA sequence to known genes n related species
3- checki DNA for long ORFs
4- identify motifs of DNA sequence (promoters, intron-exon, terminators)

314
Q

Which new technology uses hydrogen ion for genomic sequencing?

A

Ion torrent

315
Q

Which technique does not amplify by PCR?

A

PacBio

316
Q

Which technique uses fluorescence?

A

Illumina

317
Q

What is different from illumina and Sanger?

A

Illumina séquences millions of fragments simultaneously per run, instead of one run with Sanger

BIOL 261 (2 decks)

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