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Physical Diagnosis > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Valgus test for?

A

MCL stability

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2
Q

What is the Varus test for?

A

LCL

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3
Q

What is the Anterior Drawer test for?

A

ACL

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4
Q

What is the Lachman test for?

A

ACL

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5
Q

What is the Posterior Drawer test for?

A

PCL

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6
Q

What is the McMurray test for?

A

Meniscus (medial and lateral)

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7
Q

What is the Patellar Apprehension test for?

A

Patellar subluxation or dislocation

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8
Q

What movement is spinal level C5 responsible for?

A

shoulder abduction

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9
Q

What movement is spinal level C6 responsible for?

A

biceps

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10
Q

What movement is spinal level C7 responsible for?

A

triceps

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11
Q

What movement is spinal level C8 responsible for?

A

finger flexion

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12
Q

What movement is spinal level T1 responsible for?

A

finger intrinsic motions

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13
Q

What movement is spinal level L1 responsible for?

A

hip flexion

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14
Q

What movement is spinal level L2 responsible for?

A

hip adduction

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15
Q

What movement is spinal level L3 responsible for?

A

lower leg extension

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16
Q

What movement is spinal level L4 responsible for?

A

foot dorsiflexion

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17
Q

What movement is spinal level L5 responsible for?

A

big toe dorsiflexion

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18
Q

What movement is spinal level S1 responsible for?

A

foot plantarflexion

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19
Q

What spinal level is responsible for shoulder abduction?

A

C5

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20
Q

What spinal level is responsible for biceps?

A

C6

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21
Q

What spinal level is responsible for triceps?

A

C7

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22
Q

What spinal level is responsible for finger flexion?

A

C8

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23
Q

What spinal level is responsible for finger intrinsics?

A

T1

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24
Q

What spinal level is responsible for hip flexion?

A

L1

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25
Q

What spinal level is responsible for hip adduction?

A

L2

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26
Q

What spinal level is responsible for lower leg extension?

A

L3

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27
Q

What spinal level is responsible for foot dorsiflexion?

A

L4

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28
Q

What spinal level is responsible for big toe dorsiflexion?

A

L5

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29
Q

What spinal level is responsible for foot plantarflexion?

A

S1

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30
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for shoulder abduction?

A

deltoid and supraspinatus (C5, C6)

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31
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for elbow flexion?

A

brachialis and biceps (C5, C6)

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32
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for elbow extension?

A

triceps (C7)

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33
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for finger flexion?

A

FDS, FDP, and lumbricals (C8)

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34
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for finger intrinsics?

A

dorsal and palmar interossei (T1)

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35
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for hip flexion?

A

iliopsoas (L1-L3)

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36
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for hip adduction?

A

adductor longus (L2-L4)

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37
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for lower leg extension?

A

quadriceps (L2-L4)

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38
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for foot dorsiflexion?

A

anterior tibialis (L4)

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39
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for big toe dorsiflexion?

A

extensor hallucis longus (L5)

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40
Q

What muscle(s) are responsible for foot plantarflexion?

A

soleus and gastrocnemius (S1-S2)

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41
Q

What is another name for the submandibular salivary duct?

A

Wharton’s duct

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42
Q

What is another name for the parotid salivary duct?

A

Stenson’s duct

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43
Q

Where is Stenson’s duct located?

A

Opposite the 2nd maxillary molar

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44
Q

What is the tooth number for the right upper incisor?

A

8

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45
Q

What is the tooth number for the left upper incisor?

A

9

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46
Q

What is the tooth number for the right lower incisor?

A

25

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47
Q

What is the tooth number for the left lower incisor?

A

24

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48
Q

What ligament(s) are found on the lateral aspect of the ankle?

A

posterior talofibular ligament, anterior talofibular ligament, and calcaneofibular ligament

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49
Q

What ligament(s) are found on the medial aspect of the ankle?

A

deltoid ligament

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50
Q

In an optho exam, you note an increased cup to disc ratio. What does this indicate?

A

Glaucoma

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51
Q

What does an absent red reflex in a child suggest?

A

Retinoblastoma (or congenital cataract)

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52
Q

What 3 symptoms are seen in Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis

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53
Q

What is the Kernig test for?

A

meningeal irritation

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54
Q

What is the Brudzinski test for?

A

meningeal irritation

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55
Q

How do you perform a Kernig test?

A

Passively flex hip and knee to 90 degrees then extend slowly, noting pain or resistance

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56
Q

How do you perform a Brudzinski test?

A

Passively flex the patient’s neck and look to see if they lift their legs off the table to reduce pain

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57
Q

What is anisicoria?

A

Traumatic mydriasis (dilation of pupil)

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58
Q

What is hyphema?

A

A collection of blood in the front of the eye, between the iris and the cornea. It’s usually caused by trauma.

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59
Q

What does PERLA stand for?

A

Pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation

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60
Q

What condition(s) result in dull percussion of the lungs?

A

Consolidation/atelectasis or pleural effusion

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61
Q

What condition(s) result in hyperresonant percussion of the lungs?

A

emphysema or pneumothorax

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62
Q

What condition(s) result in increased fremitus of the lungs?

A

consolidation/atelectasis

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63
Q

What condition(s) result in decreased fremitus of the lungs?

A

emphysema, pneumothorax, pleural effusion

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64
Q

What is the normal breath sound at the lung base?

A

Vesicular

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65
Q

What condition(s) result in bronchial breath sounds at the base of the lungs?

A

consolidation/atelectasis

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66
Q

What condition(s) result in decreased breath sounds at the base of the lungs?

A

emphysema, pneumothorax, pleural effusion

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67
Q

What condition(s) result in crackles when listening to the lungs?

A

consolidation/atelectasis

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68
Q

What condition(s) do not result in crackles when listening to the lungs?

A

Normal lungs, emphysema, pneumothorax, pleural effusion

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69
Q

In a transillumination test of a swollen scrotum, what will appear as translucent?

A

hydrocele or spermatocele

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70
Q

In a transillumination test of a swollen scrotum, what will not appear as translucent?

A

hernia or tumor

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71
Q

What is the Obturator test for?

A

inflammation, appendicitis, peritoneal irritation

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72
Q

What is the Psoas test for?

A

intra-abdominal inflammation, appendicitis, psoas abscess

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73
Q

What is the Rovsing test for?

A

appendicitis (special peritoneal irritation test)

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74
Q

What cranial nerves are needed for the Gag reflex test?

A

CN IX and X

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75
Q

What type of sound should you hear when you percuss the lung?

A

resonant

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76
Q

What type of sound should you hear when you percuss the heart or another solid organ?

A

dull

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77
Q

What type of sound should you hear when you percuss the stomach or a gas-filled intestine?

A

tympany

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78
Q

What type of sound should you hear when you percuss bone or a thick muscle?

A

flat

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79
Q

What type of sound should you hear when you percuss an emphysematous lung?

A

hyperresonant

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80
Q

What grade of murmur is very faint and can only be heard in a very quiet room?

A

Grade I

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81
Q

What grade of murmur is quiet but recognizable?

A

Grade II

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82
Q

What grade of murmur is moderately loud?

A

Grade III

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83
Q

What grade of murmur is loud with a palpable thrill?

A

Grade IV

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84
Q

What grade of murmur has a thrill that can be heard with the rim of a stethoscope?

A

Grade V

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85
Q

What grade of murmur can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest?

A

Grade VI

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86
Q

What type of breath sound is loud and high pitched and with i=e?

A

tracheal (heard over trachea)

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87
Q

What type of breath sound is loud and high pitched and with i

A

bronchial (heard over manubrium)

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88
Q

What type of breath sound is soft and low pitched and with i>e?

A

vesicular (heard over lung periphery)

89
Q

What type of breath sound is moderate and with i=e?

A

bronchovesicular (between carina and mainstem bronchi in 1st and 2nd interspace)

90
Q

What type of breath sound is moderate and with i=e?

A

bronchovesicular (between carina and mainstem bronchi in 1st and 2nd interspace)

91
Q

What spinal level does the patellar reflex test?

A

L4 (L2-L3)

92
Q

What spinal level does the Achilles reflex test?

A

S1-S2

93
Q

What spinal level does the anal wink reflex test?

A

S2-S4

94
Q

What spinal level does the anal wink reflex test?

A

S2-S4

95
Q

How do you perform Rovsing’s sign test?

A

push on patients LLQ, noting pain present on other side (RLQ/McBurney’s Point)

96
Q

How do you perform the Obturator sign test?

A

With the patient lying supine, flex the patient’s leg at the hip with knee bent, then rotate the leg internally, noting pain

97
Q

How do you perform Psoas sign test?

A

With the patient lying on the unaffected side, passively extend the affected hip, noting the presence of abdominal pain

98
Q

What is Murphy’s sign indicative of?

A

Acute cholecystitis

99
Q

What is Murphy’s sign indicative of?

A

Acute cholecystitis

100
Q

What is the dermatome level for the umbilicus?

A

T10

101
Q

What is the dermatome level above the inguinal ligament?

A

T12

102
Q

What is the dermatome level below the inguinal ligament?

A

L1

103
Q

What is the dermatome level for the anterior middle thigh?

A

L2

104
Q

What is the dermatome level for the patella?

A

L3

105
Q

What is the dermatome level for the buttocks?

A

L1-L3

106
Q

What is the dermatome level for the popliteal fossa?

A

S2

107
Q

What is the dermatome level for the anus?

A

S2-S4

108
Q

What is the dermatome level for the dorsum of the foot?

A

L5 (peroneal nerve)

109
Q

What is the dermatome level for the lateral foot?

A

S1 (Sural nerve)

110
Q

What is the dermatome level for the medial foot?

A

Saphenous nerve

111
Q

What is the presentation of someone with a positive Trendelenberg sign?

A

They lean towards the affect side while the opposite hip sags

112
Q

What is the dermatome level for the round patch of skin on the lateral deltoid?

A

C5 (Axillary nerve)

113
Q

What is the dermatome level for the medial aspect of the arm?

A

T1 (medial brachial cutaneous nerve)

114
Q

What is the dermatome level for the nipples?

A

T4

115
Q

What does the shoulder arc test indicate?

A

Pain between 60-120 degrees = subacromial pathology; pain >120 degrees = acromioclavicular pathology

116
Q

What does the impingement test indicate?

A

rotator cuff tendon impingement (between greater tuberosity and acromion)

117
Q

What does the drop arm test indicate?

A

torn rotator cuff tendon (supraspinatus)

118
Q

What does the Tinel sign indicate?

A

ulnar or median nerve compression

119
Q

What is the Allen test used for?

A

blood supply to hand (palmar arch collateral circulation between ulnar and radial arteries)

120
Q

What is the spinal level for sensation over the deltoid?

A

C5

121
Q

What is the spinal level for sensation of the thumb?

A

C6

122
Q

What is the spinal level for sensation of the middle finger?

A

C7

123
Q

What is the spinal level for sensation of the pinkie?

A

C8

124
Q

What is the spinal level for sensation of the axilla?

A

T1

125
Q

What is the motor spinal level for hip flexion?

A

L2

126
Q

What is the motor spinal level for knee extension?

A

L3

127
Q

What is the motor spinal level for ankle dorsiflexion?

A

L4

128
Q

What is the motor spinal level for big toe extension and hip extension?

A

L5

129
Q

What is the motor spinal level for plantarflexion?

A

S1

130
Q

What is the motor spinal level for the anal sphincter?

A

S2-S4

131
Q

What is the motion performed by the supraspinatus?

A

Abduction

132
Q

What is the motion performed by the infraspinatus?

A

external rotation

133
Q

What is the motion performed by the subscapularis?

A

internal rotation

134
Q

What is the motion performed by the teres minor?

A

extension and external rotation

135
Q

What is the motor spinal level for shoulder abduction?

A

C5

136
Q

What is the motor spinal level for elbow flexion and wrist extension?

A

C6

137
Q

What is the motor spinal level for elbow extension and finger extension?

A

C7

138
Q

What is the motor spinal level for finger flexion?

A

C8

139
Q

What is the motor spinal level for finger abduction and adduction?

A

T1

140
Q

At what incline do you measure a supine patient’s jugular venous pressure?

A

Between 30 and 90 degrees (starting at 30)

141
Q

What happens during the jugular venous A wave? What part of the heart cycle does this mark?

A

right atrial contraction; end of diastole

142
Q

What happens during the jugular venous X descent wave?

A

right atrial relaxation, ventricular contraction

143
Q

What happens during the jugular venous V wave?

A

right atrial filling

144
Q

What happens during the jugular venous Y descent wave?

A

opening of tricuspid valve and passive right ventricular filling

145
Q

Which heart sound is heard at the beginning of systole?

A

S1

146
Q

Where can a murmur from aortic stenosis be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

upper sternal border, radiating to carotid; crescendo to decrescendo

147
Q

Where can a murmur from aortic regurgitation be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

left parasternal border; decrescendo

148
Q

Where can a murmur from mitral stenosis be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

radiating to axilla; decrescendo (may have an opening snap)

149
Q

Where can a murmur from mitral regurgitation be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

left axilla; is holosystolic

150
Q

Where can a murmur from tricuspid stenosis be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

left sternal border; has a split S1

151
Q

Where can a murmur from tricuspid regurgitation be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

right sternal border, radiating up; is holosystolic

152
Q

Where can a murmur from pulmonic stenosis be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

2nd intercostal space and left sternal border, radiating to back; crescendo to decrescendo

153
Q

Where can a murmur from pulmonic regurgitation be heard? What volume quality does it have? (crescendo, decrescendo, etc.)

A

left lower sternal border; descrescendo

154
Q

What conditions are suggested by decreased tactile fremitus?

A

conditions that block sound flow - mass, pleural effusion

155
Q

What conditions are suggested by increased tactile fremitus?

A

conditions that enhance sound flow - alveolar pneumonia

156
Q

What conditions are suggested by decreased percussion?

A

consolidation, mass, pleural effusion

157
Q

What conditions are suggested by increased percussion?

A

COPD, pneumothorax

158
Q

What conditions are suggested by increased bronchophony/whispered pectoriloquy/egophony?

A

consolidation (fluid in air spaces)

159
Q

What is stridor? What is indicated by it?

A

high-pitched, inspiratory, upper airway sound caused by turbulent flow in upper airway; due to airway obstruction from mass, swelling, tumors, croup, or foreign bodies

160
Q

What is wheezing? What is indicated by it?

A

continuous, musical, high-pitched sounds during expiration; due to narrowing of bronchi by swelling, secretion, foreign body, tumor, asthma, COPD, pulmonary edema

161
Q

What is rales? What is indicated by it?

A

aka crackles; short, discontinuous nonmusical sounds on inspiration; caused by opening of collapsed distal airways and alveoli

162
Q

What is rhonchi? What is indicated by it?

A

low pitched; associated with mucus plugging, poor movement of secretions, and bronchitis

163
Q

Where is McBurney’s point located?

A

2/3 between umbilicus and right anterior superior iliac spine

164
Q

What is the difference between visceral and parietal pain?

A

Visceral pain is crampy, vague, diffuse, and poorly localized; parietal pain is sharp, localized pain

165
Q

Which testicle tends to hang lower in males?

A

left

166
Q

What are the 5 parameters of speech?

A

amount, speed, volume, clarity, fluency

167
Q

What are the 3 parameters of language?

A

complexity, comprehension, coherence

168
Q

What is thought process? What may be seen with an abnormal thought process?

A

relevance and logical connections between thoughts; tangential thoughts or loosening of associations

169
Q

What is thought content? What may be seen with an abnormal thought content?

A

what the patient thinks about; delusions or obsessions

170
Q

Alcohol withdrawal is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

delirium

171
Q

Uremia is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

delirium

172
Q

Acute hepatic failure is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

delirium

173
Q

Acute cerebral vasculitis is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

delirium

174
Q

Atropine poisoning is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

delirium

175
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

dementia

176
Q

Thyroid disorders are a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

dementia

177
Q

Multiple strokes are a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

dementia

178
Q

Head trauma is a cause of [delirium/dementia]

A

dementia

179
Q

In someone with [delirium/dementia], attention is usually normal.

A

dementia

180
Q

What is the Weber test for?

A

hearing lateralization/hearing loss (conductive hearing loss - sound heard more on affected side; sensorineural hearing loss - sound heard more on unaffected side)

181
Q

What is the Rinne test for?

A

determining if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural (conductive - bone conduction is better than air conduction; sensorineural - air conduction is better than bone conduction (this is the same as normal))

182
Q

What are the 4 parameters of motor activity covered by the mental status exam?

A

amount, speed, posture, gait

183
Q

What is the difference between hyperactivity and agitation?

A

Both involved increased activity, but hyperactivity is goal-directed and agitation is purposeless

184
Q

What is the difference between bradykinesia and psychomotor retardation?

A

Bradykinesia is slowed movement; psychomotor retardation is slowed movement and speech

185
Q

What is sterotypy?

A

Frequent, repetitive, seemingly driven, nonfunctional motor behavior (ex - head banging)

186
Q

What is the difference between mood and affect?

A

Mood is the patient’s self-described emotional state whereas affect is the observed emotional state

187
Q

What are the 5 parameters of affect covered by the mental status exam?

A

range, intensity, stability, appropriateness, relatedness

188
Q

Awareness and understanding of internal or external sensory information is defined as ___.

A

perception

189
Q

Awareness that symptoms are normal or abnormal is defined as ___.

A

insight

190
Q

The cognitive process of evaluating and comparing alternatives is defined as ___.

A

judgment

191
Q

The general ability of the patient to think and reason is defined as ___.

A

cognition

192
Q

___ is defined as a mental disturbance of usually short duration, usually reflecting a toxic state, marked by illusions, hallucinations, delusions, excitement, restlessness, and incoherence.

A

Delirium

193
Q

___ is an organic mental syndrome characterized by a general loss of intellectual abilities, involving impairment in memory, judgment, and abstract thinking as well as changes in personality, but not including that due to clouding of consciousness, depression, or other functional mental disorder.

A

Dementia

194
Q

What is the ability of the eye to focus at near called?

A

Accommodation

195
Q

What is pupillary constriction called?

A

miosis

196
Q

What is pupillary dilation called?

A

mydriasis

197
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Difference in pupil diameter not greater than 1 mm

198
Q

What are the afferent and efferent nerves involved in the pupillary light reflex?

A

efferent - CN II

afferent - CN III

199
Q

What is a relative afferent pupillary defect?

A

When an eye is unable to react to light; both eyes will remain dilated

200
Q

What is the normal appearance of the tympanic membrane?

A

Pearly-gray, ovoid, and semi-transparent

201
Q

How do you test CN I?

A

Have patient smell something or ask about recent changes in smell

202
Q

How do you test CN II?

A

test visual acuity

203
Q

How do you test CN III?

A

have patient open eye and look up + test for pupillary light reflex

204
Q

How do you test CN IV?

A

have patient look downward and inward

205
Q

How do you test CN V?

A

have patient clench teeth and feel temporal and masseter muscles + sensation testing on forehead, cheeks, and jaw + corneal reflex (tests V and VII)

206
Q

How do you test CN VI?

A

have patient look laterally

207
Q

How do you test CN VII?

A

ask patient to smile, puff out cheeks, and close eyes against resistance + have patient taste salty/sweet/sour/bitter substances on the anterior tongue

208
Q

How do you test CN VIII?

A

complete auditory and bone and air conduction tests + test balance by asking patient to stand on one foot and close eyes

209
Q

How do you test CN IX?

A

test gag reflex + ask patient to say “ahhh” and watch palate elevation

210
Q

How do you test CN X?

A

listen to patient speak

211
Q

How do you test CN XI?

A

ask patient to shrug shoulders against resistance

212
Q

How do you test CN XII?

A

ask patient to stick out tongue, looking for deviation to one side

213
Q

What nerve provides taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

CN VII

214
Q

What nerve provides taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

CN IX

215
Q

What are the afferent and efferent nerves involved in accommodation?

A

afferent - CN II

efferent - CN III

216
Q

What are the afferent and efferent nerves involved in the gag reflex?

A

afferent - CN IX

efferent - CN X

217
Q

What is the Romberg test for?

A

test for sensory ataxia (position sense)

218
Q

What is the Pronator Drift test for?

A

position sense and corticospinal lesions

Physical Diagnosis (2 decks)

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