Final Exam Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

True or False
A sweeney is a depression in muscle mass (usually at the shoulder) that may be from an injury to the nerves, lack of control, and/or atrophy.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This type of event uses almost exclusively Standardbred horses:

a. cutting
b. harness racing
c. dressage
d. reining

A

b. harness racing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

There are _____ cervical vertebrae.

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

There are _____ thoracic vertebrae.

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

There are _____ lumbar vertebrae.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

There are _____ sacrum vertebrae.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

There are _____ caudal vertebrae.

A

15-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

There are _____ ribs.

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 wild horse types

A

Tarpan
Forest
Asiatic Wild
Tundra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4-beat gait that is slow

A

Walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2-beat diagonal gait

A

Back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2-beat diagonal gait, faster than a walk

A

Trot/Jog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2-beat lateral gait, faster than a walk

A

Pace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3-beat gait

A

Canter/ Lope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4-beat gait

A

Gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False

Bot fly larvae can damage the lining go the stomach, where they attach

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False

The toxin causing Tetanus is called Clostridium perfringen.

A

False, Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False

Rabies is transmitted from the blood of an infected wild animal to a horse

A

False, transmitted when saliva comes into contact with mucous membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False

Pinworms are more commonly found in younger horses.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most common blood feeding flying pest to a horse is:

a. mosquito
b. horse fly
c. stable fly
d. bot fly

A

c. stable fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____ bones in horse skeletal system.

A

205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The first signs of domestication of the horse were discovered to be:

a. between 300 and 500 years ago
b. between 1,000 and 2,000 years ago
c. between 2,500 and 4,500 b.c.
d. between 6,000 and 8,000 b.c.

A

c. between 2,500 and 4,500 b.c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False

Hindgut fermentation in the horse takes place in the small intestine

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False
In a normal delivery, the feet will start to protrude from the vulva, one slightly ahead of the other, during stage 1 of parturition.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or False | On average, a horse consumes about 10-12 gallons of water a day.
True
26
True or False | The recommended particle size for ideal composting is 2 to 2 1/2 " in size
False
27
True or False | With fresh semen, a sample should contain a minimum of 200 million progressively motile sperm
False, 300 million progressively motile sperm
28
True or False | The innermost area of the ovary that contains the ova is called the cortex
True
29
True or False | For ventilation, it is recommended to have a minimum of 1' length of a ridge vent for every stall (horse) in a barn
True
30
True or False | The gestation length of a mare is normally 315 to 320 days
False, 310 - 365 days (~11 months)
31
True or False | If anaerobic conditions are present during composting, it will lead to unpleasant odors.
True
32
True or False | Fertilization occurs in the portion of the oviduct referred to as the isthmus.
False
33
True or False | Horses are unable to belch, vomit, and don't chew cud.
True
34
True or False | A normal estrous cycle length is an average of 31 days
False, 21 days
35
True or False When a horse increases speed from a canter to a fast gallop, type II fibers are primarily used for energy generation to contribute to muscle contractions.
True
36
When performing artificial insemination, it is recommended to first deposit semen on which day of estrus (heat)? a. 2nd day b. 4th day c. 1st day d. 3rd day
c. 1st day
37
Average fertilizer content on an as-is basis contains about 12lb N/ton, 9lb K2O/ton and how many lb P2O5/ton? a. 5 b. 9 c. 12 d. none
a. 5
38
A 1000# maintenance horse should consume about how many pounds of feed/day? a. 20-25# b. 5-10# c. 15-20# d. 10-15#
c. 15-20#
39
Flooring considerations do NOT include: a. a 12-14" soffit b. ease of cleaning c. availability & cost d. drainage
a. a 12-14" soffit
40
The rate of passage for feed in a horse is: a. 40 to 50 hours b. 65 to 75 hours c. 100 to 120 hours d. 95 to 105 hours
b. 65 to 75 hours
41
Examples of common bedding would not include: a. straw b. sand c. shavings d. pressure treated wood shavings
d. pressure treated wood shavings
42
How much manure does a horse produce per day? a. ~25 lbs b. ~10 lbs c. ~75 lbs d. ~50 lbs
d. ~50 lbs
43
The goal when considering composting, is to have the pile(s) sustain the internal temperature of 145 degrees for at least how long? a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 28 days
b. 14 days
44
When does ovulation occur? a. 0-12 hr. prior to end of heat b. 24-48 hr. after the end of heat c. 12-23 hr. prior to end of heat d. 24-48 hr. prior to end of heat
d. 24-48 hr. prior to end of heat
45
Which is NOT part of stage 2 parturition: a. Expulsion of the placenta b. Amnionic membrane protrudes c. Feet protrude from vulva d. Amnion ruptures
a. Expulsion of the placenta
46
Which include the one, two, or three rule for foals: a. should stand within 1 hour b. placenta should pass within 3 hrs c. should nurse within 2 hours d. all of the above
d. all of the above
47
The mare is unique in that it is anestrus during the winter and it is considered to be seasonally _____.
Polyestrus
48
The ratio of Ca:P in the diet ranges from 1:1 to _____.
2.5:1
49
The concave side of the ovary where ovulation occurs is called the _____.
Ovulation fossa
50
Never feed more than _____ BW/feeding.
0.75
51
It is recommended that a building housing horses have at least _____ air changes per hour.
4-8
52
Respiratory rate at a gallop is linked to _____, where a horse takes a breath for every step.
Stride
53
As a horse becomes more fit, stroke volume tends to _____ and heart rate at a particular speed tends to _____.
Increase | Decrease
54
What are 2 stages of the estrous cycle; diestrus, which is usually _____ days in length, and estrus, which is usually _____ days in length
14 | 6
55
Discuss 3 factors that influence the digestibility of nutrients in the digestive tract:
rate of passage level of maturity method of processing
56
Describe the signs of impending parturition:
relaxed vulva vocalization laying down/ getting up (restless)
57
Name 2 factors that influences the digestibility of the nutrients in the digestive tract:
Type | Frequency
58
Discuss one aspect of newborn foal care:
Iodine the Naval
59
Compare positive and negative aspects of Artificial Insemination vs. Natural mating:
``` AI = easier to transport AI = could be less viable AI = reduced risk, reduced infection ```
60
Discuss how nutritional requirements may change for a horse:
Needs differ with seasons, age, work load, performance level, lactation, and pregnancy
61
A _____ is a deviation in structure or function that interferes with the use and ability of a horse.
unsoundness
62
Identify which of the following is NOT an unsoundness or blemish in the hock area: a. thoroughpin b. curb c. ringbone d. bog spavin
c. ringbone - pastern
63
A condition where there is soft, fleshy swelling from an irritation or injury at the point of the elbow or hock: a. side elbow, ringed hock b. boot boil c. bucked elbow, bucked hock d. capped elbow, capped hock
d. capped elbow, capped hock
64
A flexion test, involving the distal forelimb, usually produces exacerbation of this lameness: a. navicular b. thoroughpin c. wind puff d. shoe boil
a. navicular
65
List one example of a horse breed with a unique gait (other than walk, trot, canter) and describe the gait:
Standardbred - pace - this is a 2 beat lateral gait that is faster than a walk LHLF (1) - suspension - RHRF (2)
66
Phenotype = _____ x _____
genotype | environment
67
Horses have _____ pairs of chromosomes
32
68
What are the 2 genes for emphasizing coat color?
Extension (E) | Agouti (A)
69
_____ controls the production of red and black pigment
Extension (E)
70
_____ controls the distribution of black pigment
Agouti (A)
71
What are the 5 modifying dilution genes?
``` Cream Champagne Dun Pearl Silver ```
72
What color foal would you get if you breed two red horses?
red
73
Could you determine by phenotypic examination (of coat color) whether a red horse had an (AA or Aa) or (aa)?
NO
74
____ inability to form pigment in skin and hair, and is rarely encountered
W gene
75
____ exclusion of pigment from hair
G gene
76
A gray horse will be either _____ or _____
GG or Gg
77
Single dose dilutions produce _____, _____, and _____
Palomino Buckskin Smoky black
78
2 doses (dilutions) produce _____, _____, and _____
Cremello Perlino Smoky Creams
79
_____ causes pigment dilution
C gene
80
_____ dilutes black, and does not change red
Silver (Z) gene
81
_____ dun pattern and pigment dilution
Gene D