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Biology 115 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA that codes for the amino acids in this protein?

A

900

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2
Q

Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?

A

the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates

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3
Q

Oxidation of water occurs

A

Photosynthesis

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4
Q

Reduction of NADP+

A

Photosynthesis

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5
Q

Electrons flow along a Transport Chain

A

Both Photosynthesis and Respiration

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6
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation and/or photophosphorylation occurs

A

Both Photosynthesis and Respiration

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7
Q

Generation of proton gradients occurs

A

Both Photosynthesis and Respiration

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8
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are sister chromatids separated and pulled to the opposite poles of the cell?

A

Anaphase

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9
Q

In which direction are nucleotides laid down in the new strand while DNA is being synthesized?

A

5’—>3‘

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10
Q

Codons are sets of three _____ that encode a protein.

A

RNA nucleotides

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11
Q

According to the central dogma, what molecule should go in the blank?

A

mRNA

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12
Q

What is NOT synthesized from a DNA template?

A

amino acids

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13
Q

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called:

A

Cyclins

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14
Q

How can one eukaryotic gene lead to one transcript, but multiple different proteins?

A

Alternative Splicing

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15
Q

What type of hypothesized replication results in one duplex containing both parental strands and the other duplex containing two new strands of DNA after the two parental strands had served as templates for the two daughter strands?

A

conservative replication

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16
Q

The specific site on the bacterial chromosome at which replication begins is called the ________.

A

origin

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17
Q

n an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after she has removed its 5’ cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect her to find?

A

The molecule is digested by enzymes because it is not protected at the 5’ end.

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18
Q

What is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

A

the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5’ cap of mRNA

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19
Q

Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA ________.

A

before transcription is complete

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20
Q

What occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?

A

concurrent transcription and translation

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21
Q

Put the events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order.

A
  1. Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit
  2. Recognition of initiation codon
  3. Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA
  4. Attachment of the large subunit
  5. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA
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22
Q

What are the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription?

A

The processing of RNA.
The promoter sequences used.
The area within the cell in which transcription occurs.

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23
Q

place the events of protein synthesis in the proper order.

A
  1. A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA, the tRNA for methionine (in the P site), and a large ribosomal subunit
  2. An amino-acyl tRNA binds to the A site
  3. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a methionine amino acid.
  4. The ribosome moves so that the “empty” tRNA moves from the P site to the E site and the amino-acyl tRNA moves from the A site to the P site.
  5. tRNA in the E site disassociates from the complex.
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24
Q

What level of gene expression allows the most rapid response to environmental change?

A

post-translational control

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25
Q

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when lactose enters the cell?

A

Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

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26
Q

The greatest expression of the lac operon occurs when lactose levels are ________.

A

high and glucose levels are low

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27
Q

The product of the lacI gene is ________.

A

the repressor

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28
Q

DNA is undamaged, therefore DNA will be allowed to replicate.

A

G1

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29
Q

Chromosomes have replicated correctly and MPF is present.

A

G2

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30
Q

Spindle fibers are properly attached to sister chromatids at the kinetochore.

A

M

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31
Q

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein’s activity?

A

It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.

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32
Q

RNA is created in a ________ fashion, which means DNA is read from ______.

A

5’ to 3’ / 3’ to 5’

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33
Q

In which direction do the DNA strands grow during replication?

A

one toward the replication fork and one away from the replication fork

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34
Q

Codes for a protein.

A

mRNA

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35
Q

Is a carrier for amino acids and has an anticodon.

A

tRNA

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36
Q

Along with proteins, makes up a ribosome.

A

rRNA

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37
Q

Strand initiation in DNA replication is accomplished when an enzyme lays down a primer. Of what molecule is that primer composed?

A

RNA

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38
Q

Transcription and translation happen______ in prokaryotes.

A

almost simultaneously

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39
Q

If you wanted to prevent a regulatory protein from changing gene expression, you would have to prevent physical contact between the protein and ________.

A

DNA

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40
Q

According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod, what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?

A

The lac operon would be transcribed continuously.

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41
Q

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome.

If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase (lacZ) gene and the permease (lacY) gene, which of the following would be likely?

A

Beta galactosidase will not be produced.

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42
Q

Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA ________.

A

before transcription is complete

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43
Q

As scientists were unraveling the mysteries associated with transcription and translation in eukaryotes, they discovered there was not a one-to-one correspondence between the nucleotide sequence of a gene and the base sequence of the mRNA it codes for. They proposed the genes-in-pieces hypothesis. How can the genes-in-pieces hypothesis be explained?

A

Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are present in the initial transcript, but are removed by splicing.

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44
Q

How does termination of translation take place?

A

A stop codon is reached.

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45
Q

How can one eukaryotic gene lead to one transcript, but multiple different proteins?

A

Alternative Splicing

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46
Q

The statement “DNA → RNA → Proteins” ________.

A

is known as the central dogma

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47
Q

Strand initiation in DNA replication is accomplished when an enzyme lays down a primer. Of what molecule is that primer composed?

A

RNA

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48
Q

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein’s activity?

A

It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.

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49
Q

The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________.

A

missense mutation

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50
Q

What mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

A

a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence

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51
Q

What type of hypothesized replication results in one duplex containing both parental strands and the other duplex containing two new strands of DNA after the two parental strands had served as templates for the two daughter strands?

A

conservative replication

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52
Q

The specific site on the bacterial chromosome at which replication begins is called the ________.

A

origin

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53
Q

RNA polymerase needs additional proteins to tightly bind a gene’s promoter.

A

Transcriptional

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54
Q

mRNA is quickly degraded by an enzyme in the cell’s cytoplasm before a protein can be made.

A

Translational

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55
Q

A protein needs to have a phosphate group added to its structure before it can perform its function.

A

Post-Translational

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56
Q

What process is central to the initiation of transcription in bacteria?

A

binding of sigma to the promoter region

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57
Q

Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?

A

the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates

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58
Q

In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of ________.

A

DNA and proteins

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59
Q

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?

A

cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis

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60
Q

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to ________.

A

normal growth and cell function

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61
Q

What happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

A

Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.

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62
Q

If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?

A

It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.

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63
Q

When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?

A

late prophase of meiosis I

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64
Q

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? They have ________.

A

half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

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65
Q

Methylation of histones makes DNA

A

more “loose” or less condensed.

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66
Q

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

A

HT

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67
Q

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that ________.

A

the parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait

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68
Q

The greatest expression of the lac operon occurs when lactose levels are ________.

A

high and glucose levels are low

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69
Q

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when lactose enters the cell?

A

Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

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70
Q

Which of the following levels of gene expression allows the most rapid response to environmental change?

A

post-translational control

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71
Q

Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level, what would be different?

A

Cells would expend significantly more energy.

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72
Q

Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?

A

the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates

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73
Q

You want to engineer a eukaryotic gene into a bacterial colony and have it expressed. What must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene?

A

a bacterial promoter sequence

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74
Q

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until ________.

A

several transcription factors have bound to the promoter

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75
Q

Put the events of bacterial transcription in chronological order.

A
  1. Sigma binds to RNA polymerase.
  2. Sigma binds to the promoter region.
  3. The double helix of DNA is unwound, breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary strands.
  4. Transcription begins.
  5. Sigma is released.
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76
Q

A mutation that results in premature termination of translation ________.

A

is a nonsense mutation

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77
Q

What mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

A

a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence

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78
Q

The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________.

A

missense mutation

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79
Q

The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene ________.

A

expression

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80
Q

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around ________.

A

histones

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81
Q

What is true about the DNA in one of your brain cells?

A

It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.

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82
Q

If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?

A

It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.

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83
Q

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is ________.

A

haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids

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84
Q

What happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

A

Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.

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85
Q

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? They have ________.

A

half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

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86
Q

Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level, what would be different?

A

Cells would expend significantly more energy.

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87
Q

The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene ________.

A

expression

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88
Q

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around ________.

A

histones

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89
Q

Which method is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene expression that is NOT used in bacteria?

A

control of both RNA (alternative) splicing and chromatin remodeling

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90
Q

A cell in late anaphase of mitosis will have ________.

A

no chromosomes in the center of the cell

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91
Q

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?

A

cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis

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92
Q

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to ________.

A

normal growth and cell function

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93
Q

A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced twelve black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, six blacks and six albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?

A

Albino is recessive; black is dominant.

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94
Q

Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that ________.

A

traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 generation

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95
Q

When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

A

50 percent

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96
Q

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until ________.

A

several transcription factors have bound to the promoter

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97
Q

What process is central to the initiation of transcription in bacteria?

A

binding of sigma to the promoter region

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98
Q

A frameshift mutation could result from ________.

A

either an insertion or a deletion of a base

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99
Q

The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________.

A

missense mutation

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100
Q

What mutation would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

A

a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence

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101
Q

Transcription and translation of a gene composed of 30 nucleotides would form a protein containing a maxim of ___ amino acids

A

90

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102
Q

What are the differences about Eukaryotes?

A
  • has introns
  • undergoes RNA editing
  • transcription occurs in the nucleus
  • translation occurs in the cytoplasm
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103
Q

What are the differences about Prokaryotes?

A
  • don’t have introns
  • no RNA editing
  • Transcription and translation occurs in cytoplasm
  • Transcription and translation occur simultaneously
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104
Q

makes mRNA from DNA template

A

RNA polymerase

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105
Q

What does RNA polymerase do in prokaryotes?

A

uses sigma bound to -35 -10 promoter region to find a place to begin transcription

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106
Q

What does RNA polymerase do in eukaryotes?

A

uses TATA box to find a place to begin transcription

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107
Q

What are the features of RNA synthesis?

A
  • RNA is synthesized in 5’ to 3’
  • RNA polymerase reads DNA 3’ to 5’
  • RNA polymerase reads the Template Strand
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108
Q

What are the steps of Bacterial Transcription?

A
  1. ) Initiation- RNA polymerase finds sigma and attaches to DNA and breaks hydrogen bonds between nucleotides
  2. ) Elongation- RNA polymerase adds complementary base pairs to DNA template strand
  3. ) Termination- RNA polymerase reads a termination sequence, stops transcribing RNA and releases it
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109
Q

How does RNA polymerase know where to start transcription on the DNA in prokaryotes?

A

RNA polymerase binds to sigma which is bound to -35 -10 box

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110
Q

What are the two exceptions of eukaryotic transcription?

A
  1. ) RNA polymerase starts at after the TATA box, not the -35 -10 box
  2. ) RNA must undergoes editing before being translated
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111
Q

Where does RNA editing occur?

A

in the nucleus

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112
Q

How do you get mature RNA?

A

take the introns out of pre-mRNA

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113
Q

What are added to the mRNA molecule for stability?

A

5’ cap and poly (A) tail

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114
Q

How is pre-mRNA edited?

A
  1. ) snRNPs (small nuclear ribomucleoproteins) gather on the intron
  2. ) snRNP’s pinch pre-mRNA and splice together exon
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115
Q

In prokaryotes and eukaryotes this process is nearly identical

A

translation

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116
Q

what drives translation?

A

tRNA

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117
Q

on tRNA there is an _______ and a ____ _____ on the __ end

A

anticodon
amino acid
3’

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118
Q

What is tRNA primed with?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthase (ATP dependent process)

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119
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

synthesize proteins from mature mRNA

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120
Q

What are the two subunits of a ribosome?

A

small-attaches to mRNA first

large- begins translation once it binds to small subunit

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121
Q

What do initiation factors do?

A

recruit mRNA and first tRNA to the small ribosomal subunit

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122
Q

The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid always ____

A

AUG

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123
Q

The first mRNA codon is AUG so the anticodon sequence that would bring in the MET is ____

A

UAC

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124
Q

What are the three sites of translation elongation?

A

E site-“Exit” site
P site- “Passing” site
A site- new tRNAs enter

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125
Q

What bond do the amino acids form at the ribosomes active site?

A

Peptide

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126
Q

What are the steps of translation termination?

A
  1. Release factor binds to stop codon
  2. Polypeptide is released
  3. Ribosome subunits separate
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127
Q

How is transcription different in prokaryotes?

A

Transcription and translation happens almost simultaneously in prokaryotes

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128
Q

What are polyribosomes?

A

clusters of ribosomes that translate the same piece of mRNA at the same time in prokaryotes

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129
Q

What are the three types of gene regulation for prokaryotes?

A
  • Transcriptional
  • Translation
  • Post-transaltional
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130
Q

Which type of gene regulation allows for the most rapid response to the environment?

A

post-translational

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131
Q

Which type of gene regulation is the most energy efficient?

A

transcriptional

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132
Q

What is transcriptional control?

A
  • Prevents the transcription of DNA to mRNA

- most energy efficient

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133
Q

What is translation control?

A

-mRNAs aren’t translated to proteins

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134
Q

What is post-translational control?

A
  • prevents the activation of proteins by chemically adding or taking away a molecule
  • fastest response
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135
Q

Which type of control prevents chemical modification of proteins so that they stay inactive?

A

post-translational control

136
Q

What is a monosaccharide that is readily used by E. coli for cellular respiration?

A

glucose

137
Q

What happens once glucose is taken in by the cell?

A

it directly undergoes glycolysis

138
Q

What is a disaccharide that and must be broken down before being used?

A

Lactose

139
Q

What can lactose be broken down into?

A

glucose and galactose

140
Q

Why must lactose be broken down?

A

it is a disaccharide

141
Q

What two proteins are required to break down lactose?

A

B-Galactosidase

Galactoside permease

142
Q

a set of genes that are regulated by the same promoter and are transcribed together

A

operon

143
Q

codes for the repressor of the Lac operon (responds to lactose concentration)

A

LacI

144
Q

where the LacI repressor will bind to prevent transcription

A

operator

145
Q

codes for B-galatosidase (the enzyme that breaks lactose into glucose and galactose)

A

LacZ

146
Q

Codes for Galactoside permerase (transmembrane protein that transports lactose into the cell)

A

LacY

147
Q

When does the negative control of lac operon occur?

A

when a regulatory protein binds to the DNA and prevents transcription
-determined by presence of lactose

148
Q

How does lactose being absent affect negative control?

A
  • LacI repressor is produced and binds to operator

- repressor blocks RNA polymerase and leads to infrequent transcription

149
Q

How does lactose being present affect negative control?

A
  • LacI repressor is produced but releases from operator when bound to lactose
  • RNA polymerase can bind to DNA and frequently transcribe the Lac operon
150
Q

How does the pretense of both lactose and the repressor affect the outcome of negative gene control?

A

Transcription occurs

151
Q

Would bacteria keep breaking down lactose even in the presence of high glucose?

A

no

152
Q

When does the positive control of lac operon occur?

A

when a regulatory protein binds to the DNA and triggers transcription
-not determined by presence of lactose (uses CAP as regulatory protein instead)

153
Q

What is CAP?

A

(catabolite gene activator protein) is a protein regulator

154
Q

What is cAMP?

A

(cyclic Adenine MonoPhosphate) binds to and activates CAP

-regulated by glucose concentration

155
Q

What is the status of CAP and cAMP when glucose concentrations are high?

A

cAMP concentrations are low so so the cAMP/CAP complex will not form and bind to Lac operon

156
Q

What happens when the cAMP/CAP complex doesn’t form?

A

RNA polymerase will only loosely bind to DNA

-infrequent transcription

157
Q

What is the status of CAP and cAMP when glucose concentrations are low?

A

cAMP concentrations are high so the cAMP/CAP complex forms and binds to Lac operon

158
Q

What happens when the cAMP/CAP complex forms?

A

RNA polymerase can tightly bind to DNA

-frequent transcription

159
Q

What gene codes for the Lac operon repressor and where does the repressor bind?

A

LacI, operator

160
Q

If an E.coli cell is currently in an environment that is abundant in both lactose and glucose will transcription of the Lac operon be:

A

infrequent

161
Q

What if the E. coli is only abundant in lactose?

A

frequent

162
Q

In the function of the lac operon in E. coli, the lac genes are transcribed in the presence of lactose because

A

a molecule of lactose binds to the repressor

163
Q

Different genes are turned on and off to_______

A

make different proteins

164
Q

When can even expression be controlled?

A
  1. Before transcription
    - chromatin remodeling
  2. During transcription
    - regulatory sequences
  3. During RNA processing
    - splicing
    - stability
  4. During translation
    - Regulatory proteins
  5. After translation
    - Chemical modification
    - Protein folding
165
Q

DNA forms _____ bonds with _____ ______ to provide structure

A

ionic

histone proteins

166
Q

What does DNA wrap itself around?

A

histone beads

167
Q

What does DNA wrapping allow for?

A

protein scaffolding

168
Q

DNA is ___ while histones are _____

A

negative

postive

169
Q

What are histones full of?

A

lysine and arginine

170
Q

Euchromatin is ______ packed making it _______ to transcription proteins

A

loosely

accessible

171
Q

Heterochromatin is ________ packed making it __________ to transcription proteins

A

tightly

inaccessible

172
Q

If a region of DNA were to become more condensed, how would the expression of that gene be affected?

A

Gene expression would decrease

173
Q

have N-terminus tails that can be modified covalently

A

histones

174
Q

Adding and removing ______ groups changes the ________ charge of the ______

A

functional
postive
histone

175
Q

Changing the charge strengthens the bonds between

A

histones and DNA

176
Q

Addition of a methyl group

A

methylation

177
Q

Addition of an acetyl group

A

acetylation

178
Q

removal of an acetyl group

A

Deacetylation

179
Q
  • Restores + charge
  • Tightens chromatin
  • Turns genes “off”
A

histone deacetylase

180
Q
  • Neutralizes + charge
  • Loosens chromatin
  • Turns genes “on”
A

Histone Acetyl Transferase

181
Q
  • Opposite of acetylation

- Silences gene expression by condensing DNA

A

Histone Methylation

182
Q

How would gene expression be affected if the concentration of HAT was increased?

A

Gene expression would increase

HAT acetylates histones —> chromatin decondenses —> trasncription is induced

183
Q

How would gene expression be affected if the concentration of DNA Methyltransferase was decreased?

A

Gene expression would increase

DNA methyltransferase doesn’t methylate histones —> chromatin decondendses —> transcription is induced

184
Q

DNA methyltrasnferase binds a ______ group to a _____ at a ____ site

A

methyl
cytosine
CpG

185
Q

heritable control of gene expression without changing DNA sequences

A

Epigenetics

186
Q

Impreinted genes are ___

A

permanently off and heritable

187
Q

A silenced gene will be ____

A

passed down in its inactive form

188
Q

Inherited genes ____

A

may not be functional

189
Q

Methylation is also used to ________

A

permanently silence genes during certain stages of development

190
Q

In comparative genomic hybridization_____

A

methylated fragments match up with complementary sections of DNA

191
Q

The _____ of the resulting chromosomes indicates which ____ are present

A

color

tags

192
Q

Yellow means

A

equal parts from each person

193
Q

Green means

A

comes primarily from person 1

-increase in methylation

194
Q

Red means

A

comes primarily from person 2

-decrease methylation

195
Q

For transcriptional regulation, eukaryotes have ____

A

regulatory sequences within their DNA

  • proteins recongnize and bind to these sites
  • –leads to increase or decrease of transcription
196
Q

The 3D structure of DNA changes when

A

distal promoters are used

197
Q

In the presence of corresponding regulatory proteins, a regulatory sequence causes the rate of transcription to decrease. When the 3D configuration of the DNA changes, the sequence has not effect on transcription. What type of regulatory sequence is this?

A

A silencer sequence

198
Q

Premature mRNA gets

A

spliced to make mature mRNA, which gets translated

199
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

2+ mature mRNAs are made from the eons and code for 2 different proteins

200
Q

Introns get

A

removed

201
Q

Exons are

A

left in

202
Q

The longer mRNA exists in the cytoplasm,

A

the more it can be translated

203
Q

Greater stability leads to

A

greater expression

204
Q

Enzymes in the cytoplasm _______

A

break down mRNA

205
Q

mRNA has to be protected so _____

A

it can be transcribed

206
Q

________ and _____ block the enzymes from the RNA

A

Poly-A tail

5’ cap

207
Q

mRNA can be broken down using

A

RNA interference

208
Q

RISC protein complex does what?

A
  • Binds to a single strand of mRNA

- Brings target mRNA, miRNA, and enzymes together

209
Q

miRNA:

A
  • made solely for mRNA regulation

- serves as a template

210
Q

What is Dicer?

A

Enzyme that cuts mRNA

211
Q

Suppose there is a mutation in the gene that codes for Dicer, which causes the protein to be non-functional. How would this effect the expression of other genes?

A

Gene expression would increase

212
Q

Translation can be stopped by

A

preventing the binding of mRNA and ribosomes

213
Q

How does preventing the binding of mRNA and ribosomes stop translation?

A
  • mRNA binds to ribosome and translation starts
  • Regulatory proteins bind to mRNA
  • —-Ribosome and initiation factors are blocked
  • Ribosome is phosphorylated
  • —-Chemical modification prevents initiation
214
Q

Proteins may be ________, but can still be ________.

A

synthesized

non-functional

215
Q

Proteins must be ______ to function

A

properly

216
Q

these proteins help other proteins to fold correctly

A

chaperone

217
Q

Chemical modification can also

A

change protein functionality

  • -phosphorylation
  • -formation of quaternary structures
218
Q

What is evolution?

A

a change in population over time

219
Q

What is not a form of evidence used to investigate evolution?

A

anthropological studies

220
Q

What are the five important types of evidence used to investigate evolution?

A
  1. fossils
  2. biogeography
  3. comparative anatomy
  4. comparative embryology
  5. molecular studies
221
Q

Do fossils reveal extant organisms?

A

no

222
Q

What provide physical evidence of change in living things over time?

A

fossils

223
Q

Fossils tend to be from _____

A

extinct organisms

224
Q

What are the age of fossils determined with?

A

Isotope Analysis

225
Q

Where are newer rock layers found?

A

closer to the surface (the top)

226
Q

Dr. Navaratnam found a Mesosaurus fossil: this freshwater reptile was only native to South America and Africa during the Permian period. Which concept provides rationale to this discovery?

A

Continental drift

227
Q

deals with geographic distribution of species at given points in time

A

biogeography

228
Q

Structures that come from the same common ancestor and are similar regarding form or function

A

homologous structures

229
Q

species with structures sharing the same form or function, but lacking a common ancestor

A

analogous structures

230
Q

What is an example an analogous structure?

A

bird and insect wings

231
Q

Is a turtle shell a vestigial trait?

A

no

232
Q

structures that are no longer functional for the organism

A

vestigial traits

233
Q

The comparison of the developmental stages of different species

A

comparative structure

234
Q

similar developmental stages between species provide

A

evidence of a common ancestor

235
Q

What are molecular studies?

A

DNA similarities (genetic homology)
Protein similarities
mutations vs time

236
Q

What is the evolutionary driving force proposed by Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck?

A

Inner need to change

237
Q

Lamarck:

A
  • made the first formal theory of evolution

- believed that evolution can span across a lifetime

238
Q

The process by which populations change over time

A

natural selection

239
Q

natural selection provides an explanation for

A

evolution

240
Q

the ________ drives natural selection

A

environment

241
Q

Natural selection requires

A

diversity within the population

–so genetic variability and external factors affect an organism’s level of fitness

242
Q

regards the organism’s ability to reach maturation and successfully reproduce

A

fitness

243
Q

natural selection acts on

A

the individual

–this can result in evolutionary change in the population

244
Q

The gene coding for this species coloration also affects fertility. If black coloration results from mutation making the organism infertile, which would have the higher level of fitness the black or white bugs in the given environment?

A

this species is fucked

245
Q

Natural selection DOES NOT

A

create new traits or alleles

246
Q

Carrying capacity clearly provides

A

evidence of the environment driving natural selection

247
Q

Population growth is

A

naturally exponential

248
Q

Exponential growth can only be seen when

A

resources are abundant

249
Q

marks the point of growth where resources are no longer abundant (population saturation point)

A

carrying capacity

250
Q

crossing the carrying capacity line results in

A

increased death rate

251
Q

a type of membrane transport that does not require the usage of ATP.

A

simple diffusion

252
Q

Does facilitated diffusion require ATP?

A

no

253
Q

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome.

If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase (lacZ) gene and the permease (lacY) gene, which of the following would be likely?

A

Beta galactosidase will not be produced.

254
Q

If you wanted to prevent a regulatory protein from changing gene expression, you would have to prevent physical contact between the protein and ________.

A

DNA

255
Q

The product of the lacI gene is ________.

A

the repressor

256
Q

Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level, what would be different?

A

Cells would expend significantly more energy.

257
Q

The greatest expression of the lac operon occurs when lactose levels are ________.

A

high and glucose levels are low

258
Q

The driving force behind natural selection is:

A

the environment

259
Q

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?

A

incomplete dominance

260
Q

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

A

0

261
Q

In humans, male-pattern baldness may be assumed to be controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele B determines nonbaldness, and allele b determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele b is dominant over B. If a man and woman both with genotype Bb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?

A

75 percent

262
Q

Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white.

(a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
(b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.)

A

Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1

263
Q

In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?

A

tortoiseshell females; black males

264
Q

What is not necessary for natural selection to occur?

A

Characteristics acquired by individuals over the course of their lifetime, i.e. big muscles from weight lifting, are passed on to their offspring.

265
Q

Placing a cell in a hypotonic solution will cause it to

A

swell

266
Q

What are the molecules that go into (are the “inputs” for) the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

NADPH
ATP
CO2

267
Q

Bipasha is studying a new drug, Calcigro, that is suspected to improve bone density. The drug has made it through animal testing and into human trials. Two groups of females have been matched for age, race and health status. Group A is given a pill containing starch and 1000 mg of Calcigro while Group B is given a pill containing starch only. Both groups are following a diet regimen with an intake of 1000 mg of calcium daily.

What is the dependent variable?

A

Bone density

268
Q

The type of chemical reaction responsible for linking monomers into polymers is known as a

A

dehydration reaction

269
Q

Two atoms are bonded together when valence electrons are shared between the two. The electrons spend more time circulating around the nucleus of the first atom than the second.

What type of bond is described above?

A

Polar Covalent

270
Q

Fur thickness in dogs is inherited via three different genes (each with two possible alleles). The addition of dominant alleles makes the fur more thick. The addition of recessive alleles makes the fur thinner. The majority of dogs have a median fur thickness. What inheritance pattern best describes the above scenario?

A

Quantitative Trait

271
Q

What will most easily pass through a semipermeable membrane?

A

Small Polar Molecules

272
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate
NADH
ATP

273
Q

What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?

A

More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.

274
Q

What mutation would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

A

a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence

275
Q

The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________.

A

missense mutation

276
Q

Antibiotic resistance occurs because of

A

the presence of a chance mutation in an individual bacteria’s genome, not due to the presence of an antibiotic.

277
Q

An individual has the genotype of rrYy for two Mendelian genes. Select all of the following that are possible gametes from this individual:

A

rY

ry

278
Q

What is a capability of natural selection?

A

Allows for the fittest individuals to produce more offspring.

279
Q

Homologous chromosomes ________.

A

carry information for the same traits

280
Q

What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?

A

genetic recombination during meiosis

281
Q

What are similarities between mitosis and meiosis?

A
  • Process begins with a single, diploid cell.
  • DNA replication occurs once before cell division begins.
  • Separation of sister chromatids.
282
Q

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to ________.

A

have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription

283
Q

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect?

A

The cell’s DNA couldn’t be packed into its nucleus.

284
Q

A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture.

In one set of experiments she succeeded in increasing acetlylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see?

A

decreased chromatin condensation

285
Q

Which method is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene expression that is NOT used in bacteria?

A

control of both RNA (alternative) splicing and chromatin remodeling

286
Q

Gene expression can be altered more easily at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because ________.

A

eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns

287
Q

The children of athletes tend to be much more athletic, on average, than other children because the physical characterics their parents built up over their lifetimes have been passed on to their children.
This statements is more:

A

Lamarckian

288
Q

A cell biologist has developed a new drug that will block the cis face of the Golgi apparatus. The cis face of the Golgi apparatus is the “receiving” or “incoming” face of the Golgi. If eventually approved by the FDA, she wants to use this new drug to aid cancer patients. What specifically will this drug prevent from happening inside a cancer cell?

A

the movement of the lipids and proteins synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus

289
Q

The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does NOT happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________.

A

metaphase

290
Q

What happens if MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are in G2?

A

The cells enter mitosis.

291
Q

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same eukaryotic cell, only DNA replication ________.

A

incorporates the entire template molecule in the product

292
Q

Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?

A

Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.

293
Q

The same basic internal organs (kidneys, stomach, heart, lungs) are found in frogs, birds, snakes, and rodents. This is primarily an example of ________.

A

structural homology

294
Q

Similar gill pouches in embryos of a chick, human, and cat are an example of ________.

A

developmental homology

295
Q

Biological fitness is best defined as

A

the ability of an individual to produce offspring that survive and reproduce, relative to other individuals in the population.

296
Q

Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the events under the influence of natural selection?

A
  1. A change occurs in the environment.
  2. Poorly-adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
  3. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly-adapted individuals.
  4. Poorly-adapted individuals have decreased survivorship.
297
Q

What is the best example of fitness trade-off (compromise)?

A

Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when moving.

298
Q

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must ________.

A

be removed before sister chromatids can separate

299
Q

Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by ________.

A

creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles

300
Q

If meiosis produces haploid cells, how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state?

A

fertilization

301
Q

When we first see chiasmata under a microscope, we know that ________.

A

prophase I is occurring

302
Q

Sexual reproduction ________.

A

can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment

303
Q

What is the smallest unit containing the entire human genome?

A

one male somatic cell

304
Q

A bacterial cell suddenly stops creating protein, even though the DNA is still present and in working order. Which organelle’s malfunction would be responsible for this result?

A

Ribosomes

305
Q

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around ________.

A

histones

306
Q

Imagine that you have isolated a yeast mutant that contains a constitutively (constantly) active histone deacetylase. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant?

A

The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.

307
Q

What allows more than one type of protein to be produced from one gene?

A

alternative forms of RNA splicing

308
Q

The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene ________.

A

expression

309
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

ADP + P
Water
Sugar
NADP

310
Q

If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.

A

pass the G2 checkpoint

311
Q

What does NOT occur during mitosis?

A

replication of the DNA

312
Q

Fur thickness in dogs is inherited due to a single gene with two possible alleles. When two copies of the dominant gene is present, the fur is very thick. When two copies of the recessive gene is present, the fur is very thin. Heterozygous individuals have a median fur thickness phenotype. What inheritance pattern best describes the above scenario?

A

Incomplete dominance

313
Q

What are the molecules that go into (are the “inputs” for) the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

ADP + P
NADP+
Light
Water

314
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during ________.

A

mitosis and meiosis II

315
Q

Two atoms are bonded together when a valence electron is donated from one atom and received by the second. The resulting charge of the two atoms leads to their attraction to one another.

What type of bond is described above?

A

Ionic

316
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of the Electron Transport Chain and Chemiosmosis?

A

Water
NAD
ATP
FAD

317
Q

Which of the following modifications would allow for DNA to become less condensed (more loosely coiled)?

A

Remove methyl groups from DNA bases.
Add acetyl groups to histones.
Remove methyl groups from histones.

318
Q

Which of the following modifications would allow for DNA to become more condensed (more tightly coiled)?

A

Add methyl groups to DNA bases.
Add methyl groups to histones.
Remove acetyl groups from histones.

319
Q

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________.

A

disruption of mitotic spindle formation

320
Q

Colony collapse disorder is an issue facing America’s honey bee population. It is not known exactly what causes the death of honey bees, but it is thought to be due to either one, or a combination, of three factors: insecticides building in the wax of the hive, mites, and/or a virus known as KBV. To conduct an experiment to determine the effect of these factors on honey bee survival, which groups of bees will be needed?

A

Bees treated with high levels of insecticide
Bees exposed to mites
Bees exposed to KBV virus
Bees exposed to combinations of all three factors
Healthy honey bees

321
Q

If you wanted to prevent a regulatory protein from changing gene expression, you would have to prevent physical contact between the protein and ________.

A

DNA

322
Q

The product of the lacI gene is ________.

A

the repressor

323
Q

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when lactose enters the cell?

A

Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

324
Q

What level of gene expression allows the most rapid response to environmental change?

A

post-translational control

325
Q

Translation requires ________.

A

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA

326
Q

There should be a strong positive correlation between the rate of protein synthesis and ________.

A

the number of ribosomes

327
Q

Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA ________.

A

before transcription is complete

328
Q

What is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

A

the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5’ cap of mRNA

329
Q

In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

A

roan × roan

330
Q

In humans, male-pattern baldness may be assumed to be controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele B determines nonbaldness, and allele b determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele b is dominant over B. If a man and woman both with genotype Bb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?

A

75 percent

331
Q

What are the molecules that go into (are the “inputs” for) the Citric Acid Cycle?

A

FAD
NAD
Acetyl CoA
ADP + P

332
Q

A frameshift mutation could result from ________.

A

either an insertion or a deletion of a base

333
Q

Placing a cell in a hypertonic solution will cause it to

A

shrink

334
Q

Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?

A

Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits.

335
Q

Similar gill pouches in embryos of a chick, human, and cat are an example of ________.

A

developmental homology

Biology 115 (4 decks)

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