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Biology 115 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are sister chromatids separated and pulled to the opposite poles of the cell?

A

Anaphase

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2
Q

What relieves mechanical strain that builds up (twisting forces) during replication in E. coli?

A

topoisomerase

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3
Q

Strand initiation in DNA replication is accomplished when an enzyme lays down a primer. Of what molecule is that primer composed?

A

RNA

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4
Q

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and are found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have _____ picograms of DNA at the end of the S phase and _____ picograms of DNA at the end of G2.

A

16, 16

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5
Q

Why is DNA replication called semiconservative?

A

Each daughter duplex contains one strand from the parent structure.

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6
Q

In human and many other eukaryotic species’ cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit

A

the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores

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7
Q

The specific site on the bacterial chromosome at which replication begins is called the ________

A

origin

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8
Q

Replication moves outward from the origin in ________ direction(s) and is said to be ________

A

both, bidirectional

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9
Q

What proteins bind selectively to single-stranded DNA and are responsible for keeping it extended and preventing it from being rewound and becoming double stranded?

A

single-stranded DNA binding (SSB) proteins

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10
Q

What type of hypothesized replication (Meselson-Stahl model) results in one duplex containing both parental strands and the other duplex containing two new strands of DNA after the two parental strands had served as templates for the two daughter strands?

A

conservative replication

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11
Q

In which direction are nucleotides laid down in the new strand while DNA is being synthesized?

A

5’—>3‘

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12
Q

The RNA primers that initiate replication are subsequently _____ and the resulting gap in the strand is _______ DNA and then sealed by _______

A

removed, filled in with, DNA ligase

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13
Q

In which direction do the DNA strands grow during replication?

A

one toward the replication fork and one away from the replication fork

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14
Q

New strand initiation during replication is carried out by an enzyme that makes a short RNA molecule that is used as a primer; the enzyme is a distinct type of RNA polymerase, called _______

A

Primase

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15
Q

Cells that are in a non-dividing state are in which phase?

A

G0

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16
Q

What are two copies of the same DNA (have the same exact sequence)?

A

Sister Chromatids

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17
Q

What are two copies of the same genes, but not always the same sequence (one from mom, one from dad)?

A

Homologous Chromosomes

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18
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle are sister chromatids separated and pulled to the opposite poles of the cell?

A

Anaphase

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19
Q

Meiosis is the separation of:

A

Both Sister Chromatids and Homologous Chromosomes

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20
Q

During replication, DNA is constructed in small segments called ________ that are rapidly linked to longer pieces of DNA synthesized earlier.

A

Okazaki fragments

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21
Q

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and are found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have _____ picograms of DNA at the end of the S phase and _____ picograms of DNA at the end of G2.

A

16, 16

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22
Q

The enzyme that joins the small fragments of the lagging strand together into a continuous strand is called

A

DNA ligase

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23
Q

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called:

A

Cyclins

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24
Q

If a liver cell of an animal has 24 chromosomes total, the sperm cells from this animal will have how many chromosomes?

A

12

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25
Q

DNA is undamaged, therefore DNA will be allowed to replicate.

A

G1

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26
Q

Chromosomes have replicated correctly and MPF is present.

A

G2

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27
Q

Spindle fibers are properly attached to sister chromatids at the kinetochore

A

M

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28
Q

Where does Glycolosis take place in eukaryotic cells?

A

Cytoplasm (Cytosol)

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29
Q

What types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?

A

Phospholipids and Proteins

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30
Q

Which eukaryotic organelle or organelles resemble prokaryotic cells?

A

Mitochondria

Chloroplasts

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31
Q

A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X to Y to Z. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its activation site. The binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. What is substance A?

A

An allosteric inhibitor

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32
Q

What occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A

synapsis of chromosomes

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33
Q

What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism?

A

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis; homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I

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34
Q

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must ________.

A

be removed before sister chromatids can separate

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35
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during ________.

A

mitosis and meiosis II

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36
Q

Why might adding inorganic phosphorus to a reaction mixture where glycolysis is rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway?

A

The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated.

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37
Q

In humans, xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light. Which of the following are the most prominent types of DNA lesions in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

thymine dimers

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38
Q

What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication?

A

It joins Okazaki fragments together.

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39
Q

Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates 100 times higher than normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these results?

A

The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly.

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40
Q

Which of the following reactions is the correct description of the beginning of the Citric Acid (Kreb’s) Cycle?

A

Acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate -> citrate

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41
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvate
2 (net) ATP
2 NADH

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42
Q

The product of the p53 gene ________.

A

inhibits the cell cycle

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43
Q

What does NOT occur during mitosis?

A

replication of the DNA

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44
Q

The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does NOT happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________.

A

metaphase

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45
Q

FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is analogous to ________.

A

the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells

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46
Q

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is ________.

A

an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

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47
Q

You are observing diseased cells in a medical laboratory. Upon close inspection, you notice that the cells contain many food vacuoles, yet the cells are dying of starvation. Which organelle is most likely to be the one malfunctioning within these cells?

A

Lysosomes

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48
Q

Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

A

Mitochondrial inner membrane

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49
Q

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is ________.

A

oxygen

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50
Q

What type of bonds form between the monomers that make up carbohydrates?

A

Glycosidic

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51
Q

Carbon skeletons to be broken down during cellular respiration can be obtained from:

A

Polysaccharides, Lipids, and Proteins

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52
Q

What is diffusion?

A

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

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53
Q

Enzymes increase the speed of certain biological chemical reactions by

A

bringing reactants into physical contact with one another

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54
Q

What type of bonds hold the nucleotides together to make up the backbone of DNA?

A

Covalent

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55
Q

Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ______ and in this step gain ______.

A

Lactic acid, NAD+

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56
Q

For a cell to function at an optimum, the ideal ratio between surface area and volume is?

A

Low volume and high surface area

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57
Q

Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?

A

a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

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58
Q

Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of what?

A

gaps left at the 5’ end of the lagging strand

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59
Q

Under some conditions, too much pyruvate is produced and it is more energy favorable for the cell to slow down glycolysis. What would be most likely to act as a feedback inhibitor for the process of glycolysis?

A

**

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60
Q

What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis in a diploid animal?

A

Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, and mitosis occurs in diploid cells.

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61
Q

What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism?

A

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis; homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I.

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62
Q

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A

synapsis of chromosomes

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63
Q

Homologous chromosomes ________.

A

carry information for the same traits

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64
Q

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must ________.

A

be removed before sister chromatids can separate

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65
Q

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________.

A

disruption of mitotic spindle formation

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66
Q

The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does NOT happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________.

A

metaphase

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67
Q

If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.

A

pass the G2 checkpoint

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68
Q

How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis?

A

Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow.

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69
Q

What sequence correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?

A

H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle

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70
Q

n photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during ________.

A

photosynthesis and respiration

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71
Q

What statement best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

A

Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules; respiration releases energy from complex organic molecules.

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72
Q

Codes for a protein.

A

mRNA

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73
Q

Is a carrier for amino acids and has an anticodon

A

tRNA

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74
Q

Along with proteins, makes up a ribosome.

A

rRNA

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75
Q

This occurs when a cell divides to form two nuclei that are genetically identical.

A

is true for mitosis only

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76
Q

Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs

A

is true for meiosis I only

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77
Q

Centromeres uncouple and chromatids are separated from each other.

A

is true for mitosis and meiosis II

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78
Q

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.

A

is true during Metaphase and Anaphase for meiosis only

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79
Q

Due to the use of RNA primers in DNA synthesis, the lagging strand of DNA requires extra attention to be sure

A

telomeres do not shorten with each DNA replication

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80
Q

Breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA nucleotides to separate the two strands of DNA.

A

Helicase

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81
Q

Adheres to DNA to keep complementary base pairs from re-annealing with one another

A

Single-Stranded Binding Proteins

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82
Q

Breaks covalent bonds between nucleotides to relieve the stress of strands twisting.

A

Topoisomerase

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83
Q

E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

A

one low-density and one intermediate-density band

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84
Q

Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template?

A

one strand of the DNA molecule

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85
Q

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?

A

DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

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86
Q

Shell color in clams is thought to be controlled by three different genes (each with two alleles). Shell coloration runs a range between pure white and dark purple. The addition of dominant alleles makes the shells more purple in coloration, while the addition of recessive alleles makes the shells more white. The majority of clams have shells that are medium purple, whereas the other colors are present, but in fewer numbers. This is an example of:

A

Quantitative traits

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87
Q

As electrons are passed through the system of electron carriers associated with photosystem II, they lose energy. What happens to this energy?

A

It is used to establish and maintain a proton gradient.

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88
Q

In autumn, the leaves of deciduous trees change colors. This is because chlorophyll is degraded and ___

A

carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves

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89
Q

Plants photosynthesize _____

A

only in the light but respire in light and dark

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90
Q

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?

A

incomplete dominance

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91
Q

The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?

A

All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.

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92
Q

In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?

A

tortoiseshell females; black males

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93
Q

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

A

0

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94
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their twenties. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?

A

One-half of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.

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95
Q

The combination of alleles that an organism inherits.

A

Genotype

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96
Q

The outward appearance of an organism based on inherited DNA sequence.

A

Phenotype

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97
Q

A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA that codes for the amino acids in this protein?

A

900

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98
Q

RNA is created in a ________ fashion, which means DNA is read from _

A

5’ to 3’ / 3’ to 5’

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99
Q

The herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in vertebrates and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human forms are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later reactivate, replicate again, and infect others.

In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being “empty.” Which of the following best fits these observations?

A

The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus.

100
Q

What characteristics, structures, or processes is common to bacteria and viruses?

A

genetic material composed of nucleic acid

101
Q

A sexually reproducing organism has two genes located on different chromosomes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following are possible allele combinations in this organism’s gametes?

A

hT

HT

102
Q

When a bacteriophage infects a bacterial cell, the phage’s protein coat

A

remains outside of the cell

103
Q

Codons are sets of three _____ that encode a protein.

A

RNA nucleotides

104
Q

In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.

A

the 3’ OH

105
Q

Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. This arrangement ________.

A

permits complementary base pairing

106
Q

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found?

A

A + C = G + T

107
Q

Plants photosynthesize ________.

A

only in the light but respire in light and dark

108
Q

Chlorophylls absorb most light in which colors of the visible range?

A

blue and red

109
Q

Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base?

A

DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

110
Q

Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?

A

ATP and NADPH

111
Q

In photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during ________.

A

photosynthesis and respiration

112
Q

What is mitosis?

A

the division of somatic cells (not sex cells)

113
Q

From what process are the daughter cells exact copies of the parent?

A

mitosis

114
Q

What are the goals of mitosis?

A

organismal growth, development, repair

115
Q

what is the simplest DNA packaging?

A

double stranded helical structure

116
Q

How are nucleosomes formed?

A

when DNA wraps around histones

117
Q

How are chromosomes formed?

A

nucleosomes fold and fibers tightly coil

118
Q

What is the difference between sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes?

A

sister chromatids have the same DNA, while homologous chromosomes have different sequences where one comes from the mother and the one comes from the father

119
Q

A akin cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes. This cell undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes does this cell have?

A

46

120
Q

What is interphase?

A

everything before mitosis

121
Q

What would happen if the cell was not completely grown and not ready for the chromosomes to be replicated?

A

the cell would arrest in the G0 phase

122
Q

In what phase does DNA replicate?

A

S phase

123
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

A

chromosomes condense creating a centromere with two sister chromatids attached and mitotic spindles begin to move

124
Q

What happens in pro metaphase of mitosis?

A

nuclear envelope starts to break down and kinetochores are formed on the centrioles ready for the microtubules to attach

125
Q

What happens in metaphase of mitosis?

A

attached chromosomes line up at the center plane of the cell (the metaphase plate)

126
Q

What happens in anaphase of mitosis?

A

sister chromatids detach at the centromere and are pulled to either pole of the cell by spindle fibers

127
Q

What happens in telophase of mitosis?

A

new nuclear membranes begin to form

128
Q

What happens in cytokinesis in mitosis?

A

division of cytoplasm; microfilaments of the cytoskeleton begin to create the cleavage furrow

129
Q

What separates during mitosis?

A

sister chromatids

130
Q

Serve as the organizing center of the microtubules

A

centrosomes

131
Q

are on either side of the chromosome where the microtubules attach

A

kinetochores

132
Q

How do microtubules shorten?

A

they shorten one end at the kinetochore

133
Q

What aids in spindle fiber shortening?

A

motor proteins

134
Q

What shortens at he plus end?

A

microtubules

135
Q

What travel to the minus end?

A

motor proteins

136
Q

How does a cleavage furrow occur?

A

microfilaments in the cytoskeleton work to bring the cytoplasm inward

137
Q

How does a cell plate form?

A

vesicles fuse together

138
Q

How does cytokinesis begin in plants?

A

a cell plate begins to separate the cytoplasm

139
Q

How does cytokinesis begin in an animal cell?

A

a cleavage furrow forms

140
Q

what is binary fission?

A

how bacteria replicate

141
Q

How do bacteria separate?

A

FtsZ proteins form a ring around the midpoint, the ring directs the formation of a septum and the cell separates

142
Q

What type of replication leads to cells that are identical to the parents cells after duplication?

A

Binary fission

Mitosis

143
Q

How does the G2 checkpoint work?

A
  • cyclin builds up as it approaches the G2 phase
  • as it accumulates it binds to CDK which is already in the cell
  • MPF phosphorylates proteins needed for mitosis
  • the combination of cyclin and CDK tell the cell to go on to the next phase
144
Q

What would happen if all the kinetochores were not attached?

A

MAD would stay attached to the CDC20

145
Q

What would happen if APC and CDC20 never bind?

A

mitosis would not continue because Securin would never get ubiquitinated

146
Q

What does ubiquitin do?

A

softens (degrades( securing for separate to get through securin

147
Q

What will happen when any damage does not get detected by the checkpoints?

A

The damaged cells will continue to divide and create cancerous cells

148
Q

Define benign

A

cells will not spread because they re not cancerous

149
Q

Define malignant

A

cells will replicate rapidly and begin to metastasize to other areas of the body

150
Q

In which process does the synapsis of homologous chromosomes occur?

A

meiosis

151
Q

In which phase is DNA replicated for Mitosis/Meiosis?

A

S phase

152
Q

How many daughter cells will be produced at the end of Meiosis I?

A

2

153
Q

What is the name of the structure that is formed from the joining of homologous chromosomes?

A

tetrad

154
Q

Which phase of Meiosis does crossing over occur?

A

Prophase I

155
Q

What is the ploidy of the daughter cells after Telophase I/Cytokinesis?

A

n

156
Q

Separation of homologous occurs in

A

anaphase I

157
Q

What is the policy of the daughter cells formed by Meiosis II?

A

n

158
Q

In which phase of Meiosis would you expect independent assortment to occur?

A

Metaphase I

159
Q

What of the following is NOT an advantage of using pea plants as model system for inheritance?

A

Pea planta always reproduce through self-pollination

160
Q

refers to genetic material that determines a certain trait

A

gene

161
Q

is one of the alternative forms of the gene that displays a certain trait

A

allele

162
Q

Dominance is not

A

directly related to the fitness of an organism

163
Q

What are the possible gametes that could result from a heterozygous individual with the allele combination Rr?

A

R and r

164
Q

Which of the following inheritance patterns requires more than one gene to obtain a phenotype?

A

Quantitative Traits

165
Q

Hemophilia in humans is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of mating between a normal (non-carrier) female and a hemophiliac male?

A

All sins are normal and all daughters are carriers

166
Q

Genes can code for

A

Proteins, mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

167
Q

What is the best sequence of the central dogma of biology?

A

DNA -> transcription -> RNA -> translation -> protein

168
Q

Given the following RNA strand, predict the template strand of the DNA.
5’–AUGCGCACGCCCGAUUAG–3’

A

3’–UACGCGUGCGGGCUAAUC–5’

169
Q

What are the features of the genetic code?

A
  • it is nearly universal
  • it is conservative
  • it is unambiguous
  • it is redundant
170
Q

how is the genetic code redundant ?

A

amino acids can be coded by multiple codons

171
Q

how is the genetic code unambiguous?

A

one codon equates to only one amino acid

172
Q

how is the genetic code universal?

A

same codons code for same amino acids in all organisms

173
Q

how is the genetic code conservative?

A

when multiple codons code for the same amino acid, first two bases are usually the same (wobble)

174
Q

Do all mutations cause a change in the amino acid sequence?

A

no

175
Q

Similar to RNA, _____

A

chromosomes can also be mutated

176
Q

What reaction is the correct description of the beginning of the Citric Acid (Kreb’s) Cycle?

A

Acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate -> citrate

177
Q

The enzyme that joins the small fragments of the lagging strand together into a continuous strand is called _______.

A

DNA ligase

178
Q

An individual has the genotype of rrYy for two Mendelian genes. What are all of the following that are possible gametes from this individual?

A

rY

ry

179
Q

The function of RNA is

A

to hold the code required for the creation of a protein and to have the ability to migrate out of the nucleus of a cell into the cytoplasm

180
Q

The type of bond that links two nucleotides along a single strand of RNA is known as a _________ bond.

A

Phosphodiester

181
Q

Fur thickness in dogs is inherited via three different genes (each with two possible alleles). The addition of dominant alleles makes the fur more thick. The addition of recessive alleles makes the fur thinner. The majority of dogs have a median fur thickness. What inheritance pattern best describes the above scenario?

A

Quantitative Trait

182
Q

Which phase of mitosis is associated with separation of chromatids?

A

anaphase

183
Q

Where does Glycolosis take place in eukaryotic cells?

A

Cytoplasm (Cytosol)

184
Q

How might a scientific theory be modified?

A

by the uncovering of new information using the scientific method

185
Q

In an experiment, the thylakoids are removed from the chloroplasts of a plant cell and kept in a culture medium. The culture is exposed to sunlight, CO2, and water, but no sugars are formed. What is the most likely explanation for this result?

A

The area within a plant cell where sugar is created is no longer present.

186
Q

If this cell also contains defective Securin that cannot be broken down___

A

the cell will stall in metaphase

187
Q

If this cell also contains defective APC that will not bind CDC20,

A

the cell will not divide

188
Q

If this cell also contains defective Separase that cannot chew cohesion,

A

the cell will not divide

189
Q

Areas between two animal cells where integral proteins line up and allow chemical signals to flow from one cell to another

A

Gap junctions

190
Q

A break in the cell wall between two plant cells where chemical messages can flow from one cell to another.

A

Plasmodesmata

191
Q

Areas between two animal cells where proteins align and allow for anchorage of one cell to another

A

Tight Junctions

192
Q

In which specific stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

S phase

193
Q

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?

A

incomplete dominance

194
Q

The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?

A

All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.

195
Q

Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white.

(a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
(b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.)

A

Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1

196
Q

In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

A

roan × roan

197
Q

What are the similarities between mitosis and meiosis?

A

DNA replication occurs once before cell division begins.
Process begins with a single, diploid cell.
Separation of sister chromatids.

198
Q

When does DNA replication take place in meiosis? DNA replication ________.

A

occurs before meiosis I begins

199
Q

What occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A

synapsis of chromosomes

200
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during ________.

A

mitosis and meiosis II

201
Q

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs during ________.

A

meiosis I only

202
Q

What type of division will start with a diploid eukaryotic cell and end with two diploid eukaryotic cells?

A

Mitosis

203
Q

Replication moves outward from the origin in ________ direction(s) and is said to be ________.

A

both, bidirectional

204
Q

What statement best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?

A

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, P, and NADP+ to the light reactions.

205
Q

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________.

A

disruption of mitotic spindle formation

206
Q

Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by ________.

A

creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles

207
Q

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is ________.

A

an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

208
Q

In a Mendelian dihybrid cross, two true-breeding plants differing in seed color and seed shape are crossed. Yellow seeds (Y) are dominant over green seeds (y) and round seeds (R) are dominant over wrinkled (r).
What ratio of plants in the F2 generation would be expected to produce green, round seeds?

A

3/16

209
Q

A cell, after undergoing glycolysis, takes the products from these reactions and immediately begins alcoholic fermentation. Which of the following cell types could achieve the above scenario?

A

A prokaryotic cell

A yeast cell

210
Q

The DNA strand growing toward the replication fork grows ______ in a 5’—>3’ direction as the replication fork advances and is called the ________.

A

continuously, leading strand

211
Q

In pea plants, two Mendelian genes control flower color and plant height. For flower color, purple is dominant to white. For plant height, tall is dominant to short. You are interested in determining the genotype of a random purple, tall plant from your stock. To do so, you should perform a test cross with a plant with which of the following genotypes?

A

White and short

212
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

ADP + P
NADP+
O2
Sugar

213
Q

What polysaccharide has the main function of being a structural component of bacterial cell walls?

A

Peptidoglycan

214
Q

If a somatic cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A

32

215
Q

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein’s activity?

A

It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.

216
Q

The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________.

A

missense mutation

217
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of glycolysis?

A

NADH
Pyruvate
ATP

218
Q

A cell, after undergoing glycolysis, takes the products from these reactions and immediately shuttles them to the mitochondria for processing. Which of the following cell types could achieve the above scenario?

A

A plant cell

A human muscle cell

219
Q

In human and many other eukaryotic species’ cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit

A

the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores

220
Q

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________.

A

disruption of mitotic spindle formation

221
Q

How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis?

A

Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow.

222
Q

The product of the p53 gene ________.

A

inhibits the cell cycle

223
Q

Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by ________.

A

creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles

224
Q

In an experiment, the thylakoids are removed from the chloroplasts of a plant cell and kept in a culture medium. The culture is exposed to sunlight, CO2, and water, but no sugars are formed. What is the most likely explanation for this result?

A

The area within a plant cell where sugar is created is no longer present.

225
Q

A plant cell has been able to make in a sugar molecule as a food source, but it is still dying of starvation. Which organelle’s malfunction would be responsible for this result?

A

Central Vacuole

226
Q

Which polysaccharide has the main function of being a structural component of bacterial cell walls?

A

Peptidoglycan

227
Q

Where does Glycolosis take place in eukaryotic cells?

A

Cytoplasm (Cytosol)

228
Q

In which specific stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

S

229
Q

What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?

A

More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid

230
Q

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein’s activity?

A

It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.

231
Q

A mutation that results in premature termination of translation ________.

A

is a nonsense mutation

232
Q

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

A

0

233
Q

What type of division will start with a diploid eukaryotic cell and end with 4 haploid eukaryotic cells?

A

Meiosis

234
Q

What are the final products (or “outputs”) of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

A

Sugar
ADP + P
NADP+

235
Q

Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?

A

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, P, and NADP+ to the light reactions.

236
Q

Two molecules are bonded together due to the attraction of their opposite, yet partial charges.
What type of bond is described above?

A

Hydrogen

237
Q

Bacteria are grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl for a number of generations so that all of the DNA is made of fully “heavy” DNA. The bacteria are moved to a new medium and grown in 14NH4Cl so that all new DNA will be “light”. If replication were dispersive, what would the DNA look like after one generation time.

A

Each strand is made of a mixture of “heavy” and “light” DNA with each strand being about 50% “light”.

238
Q

If a somatic cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A

32

239
Q

Homologous chromosomes ________.

A

carry information for the same traits

240
Q

What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis in a diploid animal?

A

Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, and mitosis occurs in diploid cells.

241
Q

What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?

A

genetic recombination during meiosis

242
Q

Sexual reproduction ________.

A

can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment

243
Q

Turner syndrome is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome in an affected female. Which of the following accurately describes Turner syndrome?

A

monosomy

244
Q

Sister chromatids separate from each other during ________.

A

mitosis and meiosis II

245
Q

Which phase of mitosis is associated with separation of chromatids?

A

anaphase

Biology 115 (4 decks)

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