Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Deciduous and permanent teeth

A
  • Permanent teeth in by ~5 years
  • Teeth erupt at rate of 2 – 3 mm/year
  • Grass abrasive
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2
Q

Assessing teeth

A
  • Watch her eat
    • Food dropped
  • Palpate cheeks (upper arcade esp.)
  • Discomfort in TMJ
  • Head tossing/bit discomfort:
    • Possible problems with wolf teeth
  • Balance of incisors
    • If unbalanced –> likely problems with premolars/molars
  • Oral speculum to see/feel molars
  • Radiographs if problems detected
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3
Q

Suspect Dental problems when

A
  • Change in behavior (dropping food, head tilting, excessive salivation)
    • Quidding (rolling hay into balls & dropping them)
  • Loss of weight /condition
  • Halitosis
  • Refusing certain types of food/refusing food completely
  • Eating slowly
  • Packing food into cheeks
  • Food/hay in feces
  • Swellings under jaw, side of face, above eyes
  • Chewing on bit
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4
Q

Parrot Mouth

A
  • Inherited?
  • Poor wear of incisors
  • deformity of face
  • poor wear of molars
  • correctable in foals
    • surgery
    • retention wires
    • acrylic plate
    • 6-12 weeks old
  • reduces overjet and/or overbite in 95% and 90%
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5
Q

Periodontitis

A
  • ~60% of horses >15 yrs
  • inflamed tissue around teeth
    • gigivitis= inflamed gums (early)
    • periodontitis= periodontal ligament/cementum/bone (late)
  • calculus NOT the major problem
  • Major Causes
    • diastemata (abnormal gaps between teeth, esp. cheek teeth
    • Malocclusions–> malalignment –> deep sulci in gums –> FB buildup/loss of periodontal ligament –> bacteria colonization of gingival sulci
    • systemic disease (Cushings)
    • high concentrate diet
    • maturity- esp as permanent teeth come in
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6
Q
A

Periodontitis with loss of alveolar bone

  • periodic dental cleaning of feed- bacteria buildup in deep sulcal pockets
  • ~75% respond temp or perm
  • packing sulci with gel
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7
Q
A

Stomatitis

  • foreign body
  • vesicular stomatitis
  • phenylbutazone
  • blister beetle
  • plant fragments
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8
Q

Reproductive Anatomy of a Mare

A
  1. Vulva
    1. opening of reproductive tract
  2. Vagina
    1. Birth canal
  3. Cervix
    1. 5-7 cm
    2. relaxes or tightens due to hormonal influences
    3. Goblet cells
  4. Uterus
    1. suspended by the broad ligament
    2. Endometrium= INNERMOST layer of uterus
      1. Endometritis= inflammation of that layer
  5. Oviducts
    1. Fallopian tubes
    2. cilia to move fluid and ova toward uterus
  6. Ovaries
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9
Q

Natural Breeding Season

A
  • Longer daylight periods
    • Best: 15–16 hours (summer!)
    • =decrease melatonin from pineal gland
    • Pulses of increasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
    • Release of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
      • From pituitary gland
      • Acts on ovaries
        • ESTROGEN
      • Surge of lutenizing hormone (LH)
        • Stimulate follicles to develop
      • Ruptured follicle - forms corpus luteum
        • Releases PROGESTRONE
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10
Q

Mares Estrus Cycle

A
  • Estrus
    • 21 days
      • 15 days diestrus
      • 6 days estrus
    • Ovulation
      • 24-48 hrs
      • Late in estrus
      • characteristics
    • Luteal Stage
      • Metestrus= 2 days
      • Diestrus= 12-13 days
      • Granulosa Cells
        • yellow bodies
        • progesterone
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11
Q

Manipulating Estrus using Lights

A
  • Artificial lighting
    • 16 hr light period
  • Hormonal
    • Daily I/M progesterone for 10 days–> estrus behavior w/in 5 days
    • GnRH 3x daily, followed by hCG
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12
Q

Abortion vs. Stillbirth

A

Abortion= expulsion <300 days of gestation

Stillbirth= expulsion >300 days of gestation

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13
Q
A

Pyometra

  • generally rare
  • infection w/abundant exudate formation
    • fever
    • depression
    • visible discharge
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14
Q

Urovagina

A
  • Accumulation of urine
    • observe with speculum
    • correct with surgery (extend urethra)
    • urine scald
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15
Q

Mastitis

A
  • Inflammation and infection of mammary glands
  • most common after weaning
  • treatment
    • milk out
    • antimicrobials
    • anti-inflammatories
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16
Q

Granulosa Cell Tumor

A
  • Hormonally-active:
    • Testosterone
    • Estrogen (+ -)progesterone
    • Detected by:
      • Behavior
      • Rectal palpation
      • Hormonal assays (blood)
    • Surgical removal of

affected ovary

    * NOT malignant
    * NOT bilateral
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17
Q

Caslicks

A
  • Wind sucking
  • ‘Tipped’ vulvar conformation
  • Recurrent endometritis
  • Open prior to foaling!
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18
Q

Stallion Examination

A
  1. physical exam
  2. ultrasound
  3. endoscopy
  4. cultures
  5. breeding observation
  6. semen analysis
    1. volume
    2. concentration
    3. morphology
    4. motility
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19
Q

Cryptorchidism

A
  • one or both testicles fail to drop
  • palpate 4-6 months
  • SURGERY
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20
Q

Inguinal and Scrotal hernia

A
  • intestines slip through inguinal rings
  • colic risk
  • correct with surgery
  • complications with castration
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21
Q

EVA

A

Equine Viral Arteritis

  • signs
    • fever
    • depression
    • edema of belly and legs
    • abortions
  • spread
    • stallions w/ or w/o symptoms
    • cooled or frozen semen
    • mares- respiratory secretions
  • vaccination available
    • mares bred to carrier stallion should be vacc. prior to breeding
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22
Q

Only in college do you study dick pics for a final… sorry

A

Coital Exanthema (EHV-3)

  • sexually transmitted
  • signs
    • blister–> puss-filled visicle –> ulcer
    • penis/prepuce and vulva/perianal area
  • disease self limited
    • 2-4 wks
    • rest from breeding
    • depigmented spots remain
  • NO VACCINE
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23
Q

Contagious Equine Metritis

(Taylorella Equigenitalis)

A
  • CEM
    • eliminated in US
    • rare in Europe- sporadic
    • imported mare must test negative
  • vaginal discharge
  • diagnosis
    • culture urethra and penis/uterus
    • specific site, specific medium
  • Treatment
    • antibacterial washing of penis and urethral fossa
    • nitrofurazone dressing for 5 consq. days
  • NO VACCINE- CEM REGULATED IN USA
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24
Q

What is osteochondrosis

A
  • A group of diseases characterized by abnormal growth and development of cartilage (articular and epiphyseal cartilage) and bone
    • As DOT said, osteochondrosis is NOT a single disease
    • “Osteo-” “-chondrosis(itis)”
  • Growth of cartilage, as well as ossification of cartilage to bone at the epiphysis, does not occur correctly
  • Results in abnormally thick cartilage and possibly bone cysts beneath cartilage
  • •Cartilage thickening leads to cells not getting enough nutrients and they die,resulting in weak sections of cartilage
  • Very common in rapidly growing individuals and breeds (people, horses,dogs,and pigs)
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25
Q

OCD

A

Osteochondrosis Dissecans

  • Cartilage and bone deformation lead to void formed between cartilage and bone
    • Normal daily activity can exacerbate this issue
  • Cartilage may tear due to weak spots, creating a cartilage “flap”
  • Once this flap has formed, osteochondrosis progresses to OCD
  • In OCD, epiphyseal plate is unaffected and flap forms in joint
  • OCD is one of the most common diseases resulting from osteochondrosis
    • Signs usually seen in horses ~8 months of agee
    • Depending on affected joint, maybe later
    • Commonly affected joints depend on breed of horse
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26
Q

Benign Neoplasia

A
  • Slow growth
  • Usually encapsulated
  • Smooth surface
  • Local compression
  • Small size
  • Not fatal unless:
    • Bleed out
    • Compression of vital organ
    • Growth in confined space
    • Hormone production
  • Cells differentiated
  • Cells uniform and resemble each other
  • Blood vessels in tumor well formed
  • Minimal or no necrosis
  • NEVER metastasize
  • DNA content usually normal
  • Karyotype usually normal
  • Normal mitotic figures
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27
Q

Malignant Neoplasia

A
  • Metastasis
  • Local invasion
  • irregular surface
  • little or no capsule
  • may be large with rapid growth
  • often death if untreated
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28
Q

Common Tumors of horses

A
  1. sarcoid
  2. viral papilloma and aural plaques
  3. SCC
  4. melanoma/malignant melanoma
  5. thyroid adenoma
  6. pituitary adenoma in pars intermedia
  7. lipoma
  8. ovarian tumors (=granulosa cell tumor)
  9. mast cell tumor
  10. lymphoma (leukemia)
  11. teratoma of undescended testicles
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29
Q
A

Papilloma- Equine Warts

  • EcPV-1
    • muzzle and lips
  • EcPV-2
    • genital areas
    • associated with genital SCC
    • like HPV-16 vaccine?
    • Integrated into cell genome
  • Young horses (<3 years)
  • hardy virus
  • Immunity
    • disappearance 1-6 months after appearance
  • Chemical or freezing to remove
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30
Q
A

AURAL PLAQUES

  • concave aspect, pinna
  • esp. summer/fall = flies
  • papilloma virus on EM
    • not isolated
  • often bilateral
  • non-painful
    • bother owner more than horses
  • no reported treatments
  • do not regress
    • wax in summer, wane in winter
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31
Q
A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

  • COMMON
  • Ocular
    • eyelid, conjunctiva, cornea, eyelid
    • UV light/pale skin
  • Penile/preputial
    • smegma (EcPV-2)
    • often aggressive in young horses
  • Face
    • UV light/pale skin
  • Perineal
    • UV light/pale skin
    • vulva/clitoral
  • Stomach
    • often aggressive
  • Treatment
    • surgical
      • early small lesions
      • least successful on large, long-standing lesions
    • other
      • cryotherapy
      • cytotoxic chemicals
      • immunomodulation (BCG)
      • radiation
        • considered best
        • expensive
        • specialty clinics
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32
Q
A

Melanoma

  • virtually all gray horses
    • >6-8 yrs
    • black tarry discharge
  • esp. tail perineum
    • can be anywhere
  • some become malignant
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33
Q
A

LYMPHOMA

  • NO viral association
  • typically 4-10 yrs old
  • generally diagnosed late in clinical course
  • chemotherapy and radiation therapy
  • palliative glucocorticoid use more common
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34
Q

Thyroid Adenoma

A
  • common in older horses
  • biopsy or needle aspiration to confirm
  • no need for treatment unless
    • compression on adjacent structures
    • growing
    • hyperthyroidism
  • OTHER Thyroid Masses
    • goiter (congenital)
    • Cystic hyperplasia
    • Adenocarcinoma of thyroid follicles or C cells
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35
Q

Granulosa Cell Tumor

A
  • Common
    • male/female hormones secreted
    • aggresive/stallion-like behavior
    • markedly prolonged estrus
    • unilateral
    • slow growing
    • do NOT metastasize
  • Diagnose
    • Palpation
    • ultrasound
    • testosterone+inhibin
    • anti-mullarian hormone
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36
Q

Pituitary Adenoma, Pars Intermedia

A
  • Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)
  • melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) production
  • typically >18 yrs old
  • long hair coat
  • pressure on hypothalamus
  • body temp, appetite, cyclic shedding
  • polyuria/polydipsia (PU/PD)
  • poor muscle tone and weakness
  • somnolence
  • abnormal distribution of adipose tissue
  • swelling of periorbital fossa, laminitis
  • more infections
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37
Q

Lipoma

A
  • common in older horses
  • intra-abdominal
  • long stalk=stragulation of small intestine
  • cause of colic
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38
Q

Lymphoma

A
  • most commonly internal
  • leukemia UNUSUAL
  • no effective treatment
  • when skin involved
    • often indolent
    • cutaneous nodules
    • T cell rich, B cell lymphoma
    • may be stallion-like behavior
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39
Q

where is navicular disease

A
  • the navicular bone is located at the back of the coffin bone
    • gliding surface of DDFT
    • bursa serve as protective layer
  • specific injury to the bone is “Navicular Disease”
  • Injury to the surrounding area “Navicular Syndrome”
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40
Q

Predisposing Factors to Navicular

A
  • Age= 7-14
  • Workload= nonathletic or rapid change
  • Genetics= warmbloods, ponies, friesians, arabians
  • Conformation= halther type QH’s
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41
Q

Recognizing navicular disease

A
  • lameness= bilateral
  • stall shavings= piling (making a cushion)
  • standing underneath of themselves= shifting weight to the toes
  • natural overgrowth of heels
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42
Q

What is cancer?

A

when cells have one or more mutations in key genes that proliferates causing uncontrolled growth and metastasizing

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43
Q

List three neoplasias in horses

A
  1. sarcoids
  2. SCC
  3. Melanomas
44
Q
A
  • Brucella Abortus
    • B. suis occasionally involved
    • endemic in GYA elk and bison
    • transmission to cattle
    • cattle –> horses
      • serological positive horses not uncommon
    • zoonotic
  • “Fistulous withers” and “poll evil”
    • bursitis between shoulder blades or atlantal bursa
45
Q

EVA

A
  • arterivirus (related to PRRS)
  • present but rare in USA
  • most infections inapparent
  • three presentations
    • Flu-like illness
    • abortion
    • pneumonia (v. young foals)
  • MVL vaccine- USDA-controlled
46
Q
A

Pigeon Fever (dryland distemper; Wyoming strangles)

  • no vaccine
  • fly transmitted
  • esp. in young horses <5yr
  • abscess in pectoral area and ventral midline
  • generally recover within 2 wks of rupture and discharge
  • complications
    • internal abscesses
    • laminitis
47
Q
A

Big Head

  • Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism, bran disease, miller disease, swollen face disease, equine osteoporosis
  • low in Ca and/or high in Phosphorus
    • typically with a P/Ca ratio of >3/1
48
Q
A

Hendra

  • Incubation= 6-18 days
  • Depression, pyrexia, dyspnea, tachycardia
  • nasal discharge
  • sudden death 1-3 days after onset
49
Q

Dourine- Equine Trypanosomiasis

A
  • equine version of human “sleeping sickness”
  • STD
  • horses only
  • In S. America and elsewhere
  • Chronic blood-borne parasity
    • trypanosoma equiperdum
  • transmitted sexually, but a neurological disease
50
Q

Clinical signs of dourine

A
  • Acute STD=
    • mares: vaginal discharge
    • stallions: edema of external genitalia
  • Chronic disease= CNS
  • Treatment not recommended
    • induces carrier state
  • risk from imported semen from endemic areas
51
Q

Innate immunity

A
  • Multiple components
52
Q

Adaptive immunity

A
  • cell-mediated= T cell
  • Humoral= B cell
53
Q
A

Strangles

  • streptococcus equi
    • one antigenic type
    • hard for neutrophils to kill (mucoid capsule)
  • infection from other horses
    • direct vs. indirect
    • long-term subclinical carriers
  • upper respiratory tract infection
    • fever
    • other complications
    • shedding begins AFTER fever starts
      • 1-2 days
    • intranasal vaccine
54
Q

about antibody tests

A
  • difficulty distinguishing whether abcess is due to
    • natural infection
    • vaccine
    • cross reactions
  • different antibody classes
    • IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE
      • IgE develops late in horses –> allergies at >2 yrs
  • Seroconversion
    • 4 fold or greater rise in measurable antibody
    • rationale for ‘acute’ and ‘convalescent’ serum samples taken 3 weeks apart
55
Q

Assessing immune system

A
  • Hemogram (CBC)
    • high WBC= esp. bacterial infections
    • low WBC= esp. many viral infections
  • Immunoglobulins
    • esp. foals for FPT
  • allergen tests
56
Q

Failure of Transfer of Passive Immunity

A
  • MOST COMMON IMMUNODEFICIENCY OF HORSES
  • unlike humans, no antibody crosses placenta
    • function of equine placental structure
    • all foals are born agammaglobulinemic
  • failure of passive transfer
    • 3-20% of ALL foals
    • 800 mg/dl= nurse appropriately
    • 400-800 mg/dl= partial protection
    • <400 mg/dl= unprotected
  • x3 more likely to develop illness requiring treatment
  • absorption best in first 6 hr. post-natal life
  • typical complications
    • septicemia (blood poisoning)
      • 87% of septic neonates with IgG concentrations <8 g/l
    • Navel ill, joint ill, pneumonia, encephalitis, other
57
Q

Confirming FPT

A
  • FPT foals LOOK FINE until
    • local/generalized infection supervenes
  • Absence of FPT prerequisite to insure young foals
  • Lab Test
    • radial immunodiffusion assay (RIA)
    • Definitive- slow
  • Foal side
    • commercial kits
      • SNAP foal IgG test, GAMMA-check, EQUI-S Equine FPT, Foalcheck, etc
58
Q

FPT Risk Factors

A
  • Prematurity
  • Pre-lactation
  • Poor quality colostrum
  • Failure to nurse
  • Esp. Jan – Mar foals
  • In utero infection + consumption of Abs
59
Q

FPT Treatment

A
  • Colostrum:
  • Strip out pre-lactating mare
  • Commercial sources
  • Bovine colostrum if no equine
  • Plasma
  • Hygiene for foal
  • Observe and treat for

septicemia

60
Q

CIDS

A

Combined Immunodeficiency

  • Arabs
  • HR disease; genetic test available
  • less common now
    • 15% carrier rate in Arabs
  • Typically death at 4-6 months of infection
    • generally pneumonia
    • some unusual low-grade pathogens
  • others
    • absence of B cells
    • selective IgM deficiency
61
Q
A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis (‘jaundiced foal syndrome’)

  • mare sensitized to foal’s RBC antigens
  • complex blood antigens (8types)
  • Typical sequence:
    • normal foal –> absorb colostrum –> RBC’s destroyed –> anemia + jaundice +death
  • test mare in late gestation for anti-RBC antibodies
  • withhold mare’s milk if recognized early
  • mild: restrict exercise
  • moderate/severe: blood transfusion
62
Q

Anaphylaxis

A
  • hypersensitive immune reaction
    • typically involves IgE
  • Shock organ: lung
    • edema
    • also sweating and shock
  • possible after exposure to ANY foreign substance
    • drugs; blood or plasma transfusions
  • occasionally fatal
  • epinephrine + fluids - for shock
  • corticosteroids - to reverse inflammation
    • limited value of antihistamines
63
Q

Recurrent Airway Obstruction

A
  • Heaves = increased respiratory effort at rest
    • RAO now preferred term
    • Analogous to human asthma
    • Response to anti-inflammatory agents
    • Allergic basis with major genetic component
  • ‘Inflammatory airway disease’: Signs manifest when exercised:
    • Coughing, poor performance, exercise intolerance
    • No recognized infectious pathogen
    • Response to dusts
64
Q

Lymphoma

A
  • Most common malignant neoplasm of horse
    • Esp. Thoroughbreds
  • Typically older horses (>10 yr)
  • Variable progression – some indolent (skin)  Types:
    • Multicentric
    • Skin
    • GIT
65
Q
A

Glanders

  • Oldest known plague of horses:
    • Widespread in US, esp. in Civil War
    • Attempt to infect horses being shipped to WWI
  • No longer in US
    • Eradicated 1930s
    • Outbreak in Germany (2014)
    • South America, northern Africa, parts of Asia/Middle East
  • Bacterial disease: Burkholderia mallei
    • Evolved from B. pseudomallei, soil pathogen
    • Zoonotic – rare but serious (~40% fatal)
    • Doesn’t persist long outside of horses/mules/donkeys
  • Major form: ‘farcy’ = infected subcutaneous lymph nodes and lymphatics  Also:
    • Respiratory form
    • Chronic (actually, acute recrudescent) and occult infections
  • No vaccine + resistant to many antibiotics
  •  Control by test + slaughter
66
Q

Confidence card ;)

Whats the 1,2,3 rule?

A
  1. stand in 1 hr
  2. nurse in 2 hrs
  3. placenta passed in 3 hrs
67
Q

Trauma in foals

A
  • most important single cause of death 0-12 months
  • musculoskeletal injury
  • typically on grass
    • ribs
      • especially foaling
    • long bones
    • skull
68
Q

Septicemia

A
  • the sleepy foal
    • recumbent +- diarrhea
  • multiple agents
    • generally environmental or commensal bacteria
  • survival rate ~50% with intensive care
  • a special case: Actinobacillus sp
    • HIGH mortality
    • often present within 1 day of birth
    • found in WY
69
Q

Neonatal maladjustment syndrome

A

Dummy Foal

  • Most common CNS disorder in neonatal foals
  • neurological damage
  • FPT complication
  • Nursing +patience vs. euthanasia
70
Q

Rhodococcus ‘prescottella equi’

A
  • pyrexia and rattles
  • important regionally- endemic farms/ranches
    • soild dwelling organism
    • often in intestines of healthy horses
    • NOT a result of poor management
    • NOT related to FPT
  • NO VACCINE
    • hyperimmune serum option
  • primarily PNEUMONIA
    • also intestines or joints
    • fever + lethargy +snotty nose
71
Q
A

Conjunctivitis

  • inflamed conjunctival sac
    • bacterial or allergies
    • trauma
    • dust
  • most uncomplicated
    • good response to Abs
    • protect from flies
  • Complications
    • Keratitis
      • Keratoconjunctivitis
    • blocked NL duct
72
Q

Blocked Nasolacrimal (Tear) duct

A
  • weepy eye
    • nuisance
  • conjunctivitis sequel
  • treatment
    • Flush NL duct
  • some permanent
73
Q
A

Keratitis

  • inflamed cornea
  • normally avascular
  • deep ulcers slow to heal
  • superficial ulcers
    • risk of 2nd infection
      • bacterial
      • fungal
    • perforation risk
    • iris adhesions
  • antibiotic ointments + antropine +NSAIDS
74
Q
A

Fungal Keratitis

75
Q
A

Cataract

  • opaque lens
  • importance of severity and site
  • some congenital
  • sequel to
    • trauma
    • recurrent uveitis
  • leave alone or
    • surgery
      • phacoemulsification + lens implant
76
Q

Recurrent Uveitis

A
  • uveitis= inflammatio of blood vascular layer
  • probalby related to exposure to bacterial antigens
  • MAJOR autoimmune component
  • Genetics= appaloosa
  • one or both eyes
  • waxes and wanes
  • hard to control
  • BLINDNESS due to complications
    • persistent uveitis
    • glaucoma
    • mature cataracts
    • retinal detachment
    • hemorrhage
    • atrophy
  • anti-inflammatory + mydriatics
77
Q

Cancer in and Around Eye

A
  • Common
    • SCC
    • Sarcoid
    • papilloma
    • lymphosarcoma
    • melanoma
78
Q
A

Cancer Eye

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • esp. UV exposure
    • common in WY
  • Eyelids
  • Slow to metastasize
    • locally destructive
  • Draught, appaloosa, paints
  • surgical removal
79
Q
A

Sarcoid

  • Variable
    • 5 clinical types
    • not always obvious sarcoids
  • BPV- 1, 2, 5
  • Surgery vs.
    • immunotherapy
    • chemotherapy
    • freezing or heating
    • brachytherapy
    • photodynamic therapy
80
Q

Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction

A
  • PPID= TRUE CUSHINGS DISEASE
  • COMMON! LARGELY ESTHETIC
  • Older animals (late teens to 20’s)
  • predisposed to insulin resistance
  • Hypertrophy/hyperplasia in pituitary gland, with high ACTH (adrenocorticotropin)
    • increased cortisol released from adrenal glands
  • Abnormal fat deposits
  • long curly hair that won’t shed
  • bulging supaorbital fat pads
  • treatment
    • body clip in summer months
    • regular dental + hoof care (prone to laminitis and basically all infections)
    • Pergolide mesylate (Permad) or cyproheptadine or combo
    • increased risk of infections
81
Q

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

A
  • AKA: easy keepers, insulin-resistant
  • Humans
    • insulin-resistance= similar to pre-diabetics
  • horses
    • esp. ponies= genetic component
    • cresty neck and thick sheath
    • obesity= increased risk of laminitis
  • overfeeding structural carbohydrates
  • obese horse w/cresty neck + predisposition to laminitis
  • weight reduction + exercise
    • forage diet, not pasture grass - eliminate concentrates
82
Q

Difference between EMS and PPID

A
  • EMS
    • onset earlier
    • laminitis
    • test
      • insulin test
    • few progress to diabetes
    • control: WEIGHT LOSS
  • PPID
    • onset in middle/old age
    • laminitis
    • hirsutism
    • excessive sweating
    • skeletal muscle atrophy
    • test
      • low dose dexamethasone supression test
      • high ACTH
    • control: counteracting effects of ACTH
83
Q

Acute colitis in a horse

A
  1. plutomic horse fever
  2. salmonella
  3. CDIF
84
Q
A
  • parasitic problem
  • age, kidney’s
  • teeth
  • ulcers
  • cancer
85
Q
A
  • pneumonia
  • rhino
  • strangles
  • blockage
  • choke
  • sinisitis
  • EVA
86
Q
A

edema- the dye shows an ulcer

=== fluracine

87
Q
A

EHV3

88
Q

What serious potential medical problem must you watch for w/ retained placenta?

A
  • bacterial infection –> endometritis
  • lamanitis
89
Q

white of eye

A

sclera

90
Q

What is the most common immunological disease affecting horses?

A

FPT= failure of transfer of passive immunity

91
Q

extracorporeal shockwave therapy is used to treat?

A

tendonitis

92
Q

According to Crabbe, periodontitis can be caused by ______.

A

Cushings (corticosteriods)

maliclusion

93
Q

Which of these is most likely to persist for life?

A

Equine infectious anemia

94
Q

Why might a horse have difficulty breathing at rest?

A

pneumonia

heaves

choke

colic

heart failure

anemia

95
Q

Which of these is there no vaccine for?

A

Rhodococcus equi

96
Q

You want to find current consensus statements about a common equine disease

A

AAEP

97
Q

what might cause you to suspect navicular? Two management methods

A
  • camped under, shavings piling
    • bar shoes
    • equipack
98
Q

What is a rig?

A

cryporchid

99
Q

In one sentence explain what you understand about shock?

A

decreased perfusion of O2 to tissues

100
Q

A group of horses develops posterior weakness

A

EHV

quarantine

101
Q

Explain what a:

  • bean
  • Winking
  • Sweeny
  • Roarer
  • EGUS
  • Milkface
  • Colic
A
  • Ca buildup in bladder or urinary tract
  • estrous display by mare –> heat
  • atrophy of shoulder
  • loud breathing, damage to esophageal tract
  • equine gastric ulcer syndrome
  • trouble suckling–> parrot mouth
  • intestinal discomfort/abdominal cavity pain
102
Q

What is the theory behind effectiveness of:

acupuncture

chiropractic medicine

homeopathy

A

release of endorphines

freeing of tissue

like treats like

103
Q

Homemade solution for cleaning wounds

A

1 tsp of salt

1 pt of H2O

104
Q

Digestive Disease in older horses

A
  • worn teeth and periodontitis
  • gastro-intestinal impaction or rupture
  • intestinal displacement/volvulus
  • intestinal inflammation
  • liver failure
105
Q
A

Hydralltois/Hydramnios

  • excessive fluid in uterus
  • generally associated with dead fetus
  • terminate pregnancy
  • risk of ruptured prepubic tendon
106
Q
A

Premature Placental Separation

  • ‘red bag’
  • premature separation of placenta from uterus before water breaks
    • risk of foal hypoxia
  • tear into placenta
  • risk of neonatal maladjustment syndrome
107
Q

Good sources of info

A
  1. Consensus statements
  2. American College of Veterinary Medicine
  3. PubMed
  4. Equine Vet. Journal
  5. Gluck Equine Center, KY