Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are some of the important similarities and differences between the Hippocratic Oath and more contemporary codes of medical ethics (like the CMA Code)?

A

Hippocratic- Paternalistic (no autonomy)
Contemporary- Autonomy based
Both- Part of a group, take oath seriously, and establish professional groups and duties

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2
Q

What are some of the main problems facing medical professional codes of ethics? (Explain each of these.)

A
  1. Codes don’t all have the same rules: Validity of the code
  2. Codes can conflict with other moral commitments: Some people are against refusal in medical field
  3. Codes of ethics are largely codes of professional etiquette: doctors writing own prescription
  4. Codes are often vague and give little detail: accepting and refusing are both forms of respect; situations where code could go either way; can’t look at every possible scenario
  5. Codes have principles that could easily conflict: obligations to family, patients, yourself, etc could conflict.
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3
Q

Explain the main models of physician-patient relations. What are some of the problems or advantages of each model?

A
  1. Engineering Model- value free; focus on medical science; values are concern of patient; concerned about facts. Disadvantages: physicians deal with life and death, morality/values are bound to be involved.
  2. Priestly Model- Paternalistic; benevolence; physician assumes role of moral authority (respected). Disadvantage: many doctors are bad at conversations. Doctors aren’t relatable to priests.
  3. Collegial Model - Physicians should be patients’ colleges; equality; shares with patient same goal of eliminating disease. Disadvantages: doctors and patients are not equals as they don’t have the same knowledge and education.
  4. Contractual Model- characterized by… Freedom, dignity, truth telling, promise keeping and justice. Claims to solve other models problems; very open. Disadvantages: power advantage (doctor has more power), one-way need (patient needs help, doctor is not obligated to help), going to a doctor is not a contract.
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4
Q

What is the difference between descriptivist and normativist conceptions of health and disease?

A

Descriptivism: Judgements about health don’t require value judgements. They’re objecting descriptions about disease.
Normativism: All judgements about health include value judgements as part of their meaning

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5
Q

Explain the concept of competence and its relationship to autonomy.

A
  • Ability to make choices based on an understanding of the relevant consequences of that choice on oneself and others
  • The level of moral agency at which a person employs no more that his capabilities(a) of making an independent choice and (b) of engaging in rational deliberation.

process standard of decision making competence: balancing autonomy and beneficence

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6
Q

How does competence differ from autonomy?

A
  • minimal: focuses on autonomy (more subjective)

outcome: focuses on beneficence (more objective)

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7
Q

Explain Mill’s two different types of action.

A

Self regarding- Actions that only affect the agents or others who have given their consent.
Other regarding- Actions which affect individuals (against their consent) other than the agent.

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8
Q

Explain Mill’s two different types of harm.

A

Direct- A affects B with action X, where X is harmful.

Indirect- A does X and x causes y, where y is harmful to b. (controversial)

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9
Q

Explain Mill’s “harm” principle.

A

Sole reason for which anyone can rightfully interfere with liberty of action of any member of the community is when that persons behaviour causes other regarding harm.

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10
Q

What is paternalism and what is the significance of this concept for biomedical ethics?

A

Doing something for someone else good, without regard to the others wishes. Example: JW refusing blood transfusion for religious reason and court ordering physicians to perform transfusion.

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11
Q

Explain the main concepts/requirements involved in the concept of informed consent.

A
  1. Information
  2. Volition- using one’s will
  3. Mental capacity
  4. Legal capacity
    autonomous authorization (individuals) given if patient with substantial understanding without the influence of others authorized a hcp to preform a procedure:
    (a) The patient is competent enough to make a decision.
    (b) The patient receives adequate disclosure of relevant information. (c) The patient understands the information.
    (d) The patient makes a decision voluntarily.
    (a) Competence: Clear examples of incompetent patients (those who are incapable of making informed decisions) are those who are severely psychotic, or mentally disabled or very young. But, what about these less clear cases: Those who are not thinking clearly because they are crippled by fear or pain, or even stupidity?
    (b) Disclosure: The relevant information to be disclosed is generally thought to at least include (i) the nature of the proposed procedure, (ii) alternatives to the proposed procedure, (iii) their potential risks, and (iv) their potential benefits.
    (c) Understanding: Obviously, one can only consent to something if they understand what they are agreeing to. But, some have argued that many patients will NEVER truly understand what they are agreeing to, unless they themselves have been to medical school, since most treatments and medical issues are incredibly complex.
    1
    (d) Voluntary: Obviously consent is only valid if it is voluntary. This is, for instance, why we consider contracts to be rendered invalid if signed at gunpoint. But, there are much subtler forms of coercion than being held at gunpoint.
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12
Q

What are the main ways of understanding the information requirement of informed consent? What are the various advantages and problems for each approach?

A

Full- All info that has bearing on decision on question. Problem: lots of information.
Professional- Info that a similarly place college would disclosed under same circumstances. Problem: too limiting.
Subjective- Whatever the patient wants to know. Problem: might not know what to ask or might ask too much.
Objective- Unmodified; physicians have obligation to disclose (unasked) what any reasonable person would want to know
Modified; physicians have obligation to disclosed (unasked) what an objective, reasonable person would want to know in the patients situation.
Problem; how would physicians know other cultural value (too much expectation)

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13
Q

Explain the main exceptions that often appear in biomedical contexts to principle that medical professionals should always seek informed consent.

A
  1. paternalistic cases
  2. impracticality
  3. medico-legal emergencies
  4. legal
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14
Q

In what circumstances does Kipnis argue that health care professionals should accommodate a patient’s culturally based beliefs or values?

A

Duty to provide best care for a patients pressing health care needs and prohibition on becoming instrument of injustice. In the circumstance where a man didn’t want to be be treated by a japanese man because of trauma from war and a KKK member not wanting an african american man treating him. Both are morally the same because one need to put best health care for patients pressing needs before injustice and controversial issues.

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15
Q

What are the implications of Kipnis’s view for patient autonomy?

A
  1. Focusing on patients health needs first informs entire practice of hcp
  2. Hcp training is ill equipped to provide training in racism, sexism, and other forms of discrimination
  3. no moral difference. there is a differnce
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16
Q

What difficulty (or difficulties) does Macklin see when a perspective that respects cultural diversity adopts a strong form of ethical relativism?

A

Is standard focus on autonomy in western biomedical ethics consistent with multiculturalism?
What obligations do physicians in north america have toward patients with different cultural beliefs/ practices?
Multiculturalism is not relativist.
He argues that multiculturalism is incoherent, so clinicians have no obligations to follow it’s requirements and treat all cultures are equal. It’s possible to respect cultural diversity without having to accept every feature.

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17
Q

Explain why Siegler maintains that confidentiality is a “decrepit” concept.

A
  1. It is worn out and useless
  2. No longer exists
  3. Comprimised in actual medical practices; Not everything is 100% confidential as Many people have access to medical records
    Records can be used in court
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18
Q

xplain the three main reasons why Lipkin argues that it is not always morally right for a physician to tell the truth to patients.

A

(1) Understanding is Impossible: Medicine is so complex, and patients are so ill- informed about the nature of the human body, and sickness, that they are incapable of true understanding, or assessing information accurately. For instance, when they hear the word “cancer”, some will assume this means they are going to die in a few weeks, while others will think it is nothing serious. Similarly, “arthritis” may make one patient think of their completely incapacitated grandmother, and make another patient think of their grandfather who complained just a little. These broad labels are not very informative, but the narrower labels or any in-depth explanation would be too confusing for them.
(2) People Don’t Want to Know: Lipkin claims that, while people may SAY they want to know the truth, they really don’t. For instance, someone might ask, “Do I look fat?” and SAY they want the truth—but when you tell them they DO, you quickly learn that they did not really want the truth. What they WANTED was a “No”, whether it is true or not. Doctors face similar questions. “Am I dying?” or “Is it bad?” What they WANT is a “No”, whether or not this is true (even if they claim otherwise).
(3) Placebos: Placebos are obviously permissible. These are a form of suggestion, which is a direct or indirect presentation of an idea, followed by an uncritical, i.e., not thought-out, acceptance. These are treatments where the physician CLAIMS to be giving the patient something to treat their illness, when in fact it has no medicinal effects at all (e.g., sugar water). The goal is to improve the PSYCHOLOGICAL state of the patient, which often leads to a visible improvement in their actual physical health. Benefit of deception in the patient’s regaining of his or her health

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19
Q

Identify and explain any of the following terms:

A
  1. voluntary active euthanasia- actively assisting death; involves a deliberate action which intentionally causes the death of a person
  2. voluntary passive euthanasia- respecting request to refuse treatment; involves withholding or withdrawing life-prolonging or life-sustaining measures in order to allow for the death of a person (ex. pulling the plug)
  3. nonvoluntary active euthanasia- person can’t consent; Cannot express his or her will & it is decided life will be taken;
  4. involuntary active or passive- murder; Person can give their consent but doesn’t, the decision is made against their will
  5. euthanasia physician-assisted suicide- have a happy, pain free death; another person is involved to some degree in another person’s suicide
  6. the doctrine of double-effect-not non-consequential; excusing; what you intend to do is what is good and bad; action must intend only good, the bad effect can be foreseen but not intended and the bad effect can’t weigh out the good.
  7. terminal sedation- patient in end of life situation and death is proximate and painful- person could be sedated even though it may end their life- patient refusal of nutrition and hydration.
  8. medical futility-three kinds: physiological (futile if no chance it will achieve direct objective), relation to patients goal (futile if no chance it will achieve patients goal, and relation to professional integrity (futile if won’t achieve goals compatilble with professional integrity.
    Wrong to refer to notion of futility to help with medical decisions; futility not valid as it’s not value charged.
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20
Q

What is the difference between pre-emptive, pre-surcease, and surcease euthanasia?

A

Surcease-way of ending suffering; the only way to end it is death
Pre-surcease- at the beginning of surcease
Pre-emptive surcease- before suffering starts

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21
Q

Explain how Joseph Boyle argues that terminal sedation, as an act of the withdrawal of treatment, when considered in the light of a revised principle of double-effect, is not morally equivalent to active euthanasia.

A

Morally wrong to intentionally kill or shorten ones life. Terminal sedation involves foreseeing patient may be killed but not intending it. Because of double effect terminal sedation is okay.
Active Euthanasia: argues that euthanasia is not double effect as it is intentionally killing.

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22
Q

Why does James Rachels reject the AMA’s interpretation of the active/passive distinction?

A
  1. PE leads to decisions made on irrelevant grounds-Question is quality of life.
  2. Active more humane than Passive- PE requires more suffering than AE.
  3. No moral difference between active/ passive- Contrast of two cases with smith and jones
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23
Q

What are the two different kinds of slippery slope argument, and how are these arguments standardly used in discussions about euthanasia?

A
  1. Causal- Fallacy; If we do act A, then X,Y,Z, etc will happen; We don’t want X,Y,Z to happen; therefore we shouldn’t do A.
  2. Logical- Lots of moral/ legal cases have unwanted features of f1, f2, …,fn and shouldn’t be treated in way W; Case X has features f1, f2,…,fn and should be treated in way W; Treating case X in way W is inconsistent with all other unwanted cases involving f1, f2,…fn; Therefore we shouldn’t accept X
24
Q

What is Dan Brock’s main argument for active voluntary euthanasia?

A
  • AVE defensible for same value as right to refuse treatment:
    i) self-detrmination (autonomy) ii) Well-being (benevolence)

-Principle of beneficence; euthanasia promotes patients well being of their life is a burden that can be alleviated
— if physician is not willing patient should be transferred
— euthanasia is not murder no moral difference between killing and allowing to die

25
Q

What problem(s) does Daniel Callahan argue will follow from the legalization of active voluntary euthanasia?

A
  1. Some abuse of law is inevitable
  2. Any such law would be different to frame and enforce
  3. Any reasons provided in law would be a slippery slope- Can move to become more permissive and let more things happen.
26
Q

What two different aspects are often said to be involved in the act of abortion? What is the significance of this distinction?

A
  1. Termination of pregnancy
  2. Termination of death of a fetus
    Significance-Only way for one event to happen is for the other to happen as well.
27
Q

What is the difference between feminist and non-feminist approaches to the problem of abortion?

A

Feminist- Non-feminist too narrow (too focused on ethics and politics). Politics of reproductive cases (reproductive choices) must be considered. Look at all consequences of pregnancy for women
Non-feminist-Problem with abortion is one of claims regarding: Moral status of the fetus and moral significance of bodily integrity. Look at status of fetus and how woman got pregnant

28
Q

What are the two main legal approaches to placing restrictions on abortion? What problems/challenges do each of them face?

A
  1. Fetal status- Problems: No legal status for fetuses in Canada. Bodily integrity issues.
  2. Criminalize the medical practice of abortion: In past doctors were criminalized. Now, no laws on doctors performing with permission of a committee.
29
Q

What is the shared characteristic approach to establishing fetal status, and what are some of the problems that it faces.

A

Fetus is member of species Homo Sapiens. It has shared characteristic possessed equally by all other persons. A fetus has full moral status from its potential of becoming a person.
Problems: If you have to be human to have moral status than it seems like other species don’t have moral standing (speciesism)

30
Q

What is “speciesism” and why is it standardly criticized as a theory of fetal status.

A

Saying that one species has more more status over another species. Late fetuses have the same ability and sometimes less than animals. It is wrong to say that it is okay to kill other species just because they are not human.

31
Q

Explain the potentiality argument that is often used in support of the conservative position on abortion.

A

All adults have moral status because of an unidentified feature.
Fetuses are part of the casual history of normal adult humans.
Fetuses are potential beings with moral status.
If something has potential moral status it should be treated in same respects as one with moral status. Therefore fetuses have moral status.

32
Q

Explain at least three two important objections to potentiality arguments in defense of a conservative position on abortion.

A
  • millions of possibilities
  • slippery slope
  • Mother is an actual person with moral status and fetuses are only potential persons. Things with potential positions shouldn’t have rights. The president does not have rights until he/she is the president.
33
Q

Why does Don Marquis argue that fetuses have the same prima facie claim to not be killed as child or adult human beings?

A

It deprives them of everything they will ever have or experience. In short, it deprives them of a “future like ours” (FLO)

  1. Any action which deprives an individual of a valuable future (or, a “future like ours”) is seriously prima facie morally wrong.
  2. Abortion deprives the fetus of a valuable future (or, a “future like ours”).
  3. Therefore, abortion is seriously prima facie morally wrong.
34
Q

Explain at least three important objections to Marquis’ argument in support of a conservative position on abortion.

A
  1. Killing Old People: It seems that, on Marquis’ explanation of why killing is wrong, it might be LESS wrong to kill a very old person than to kill a child, since the latter has a LOT of valuable future ahead of them, while the former only has a little bit of valuable future ahead of them.
  2. Contraception, Masturbation, and Abstinence: Whenever a couple uses contraception, aren’t they depriving the child that WOULD have been conceived of a valuable future.
  3. Abortion in the Case of Rape: Though Marquis sets this issue aside, note that he might also be committed to the unpopular conclusion that abortion is morally wrong EVEN in the case of pregnancy due to rape. Killing a healthy fetus ALWAYS deprives an individual of a valuable future—no matter how that fetus came about. The fact that a woman was raped does not seem to justify depriving the resulting fetus of its future.
  4. The Cat-Serum Counter-Example:
    Marquis’ theory is false because it gives us the WRONG moral judgment in each case. Both the cow and the cat DO possess a valuable future in these cases—though taking that FLO away from them, contrary to what Marquis’s view entails, does NOT seem wrong. Therefore, Marquis’s view is false.
35
Q

Explain the main “line-drawing” approaches to the abortion issue. If possible, discuss their main problems as well.

A
Abortion is justified up to a specific point in gestation. 
14 days-
human form-
quickening-problem- too open 
viability-
sentience-
36
Q

Explain the main argument of J.J. Thomson’s moderate position on abortion.

A

All fetuses have moral standing. If this is true, all fetuses have an equal right to life as any other person. Doesn’t mean that person’s right to bodily integrity can always be over ridden by right to life. Bodily integrity can over ride right to life where consent has not been attained. Violinist argument.

37
Q

Explain why Mary Anne Warren argues that any adequate liberal position on abortion must—contra Thomson—argue that a fetus has no significant moral status.

A

Because bodily integrity is a property right and can’t compete with rights to live, bodily integrity only justifies extreme cases. If abortion is permissible, it must be shown that a womans responsibility for her situation isn’t relevant to her right to have an abortion and fetus does;t have full moral standing.

38
Q

Why might Mary Anne Warren’s position on abortion imply that infanticide is morally permissible? How does she try to address this problem?

A

If an eight month fetus isn’t a person, then neither is a newborn.
She claims that it is not true because others can care for the newborns and most other people would want a newborn to be cared for.

39
Q

Explain the main features that Mary Anne Warren claims are essential for being a person with moral status. What do these features mean for the issue of fetal status?

A
  1. Consiousness- consious of things around them and able to feel pain
  2. Reasoning Capacity- Able to solve new puzzles
  3. Self motivated activity- Activity that is independent
  4. Ability to communicate- Messages of variety of types
  5. Self awareness- Able to look in the mirror and smile.
    - -A fetus, even fully developed, is less person-like than the average mature mammal.
40
Q

Explain Susan Sherwin’s social conception of personhood. What does this view entail about the permissibility of abortion?

A

whether a human being is a person or not depends, in some sense, on the social relations that that being has. ABortion is permissible

  1. It’s improper to grant others the authority to interfere in women’s decisions to seek abortions.”
  2. Many perceive the commitment of the political right wing to opposing abortion as part of a general strategy to reassert patriarchal control over women in the face of significant feminist influence
  3. Women are socialized to be compliant and accommodating, sensitive to the feelings of others, and frightened of physical power; men are socialized to take advantage of every opportunity to engage in sexual intercourse and to use sex to express dominance and power
  4. There is no absolute value that attaches to fetuses apart from their relational status determined in the context of their particular development.
41
Q

What is the difference between embryo splitting and somatic cell nuclear transfer, and which of these differences might be of some interest to moral philosophers thinking about the relative ethical merits or demerits of these two methods of cloning.

A

Embryo Splitting
• requires two progenitors
• produces limited numbers of the original
• does not entail direct manipulation/selection of genetic material
• technically easy to perform (less risky)
Nuclear Transfer
• requires (in principle) only one progenitor
• produces large numbers (potentially)
• entails selection
• technically difficult (more risky)
ES just splits an embryo that isn’t an individual yet. NT is identical cloning; destroys an embryo and could make a human clone.

42
Q

Explain any one (your choice) of the following arguments that Leon Kass presents in defense of what he calls the “repugnance” of human reproductive cloning:

A
  1. the ethics of experimentation-He says that cloning is an experiment without the consent of the clone to exist, making it unethical
    1. identity and individuality- Genetic distinctiveness is what makes each human life unique and not just a carbon copy of another, and cloning removes this.
    2. fabrication and manufacture-Cloning turns begetting into making, and procreating into manufacturing. In natural reproduction, a man and a woman come together and undergo a sexual act in order to reproduce and give existence to another individual the same way they came to exist. In cloning we give existence through an intent and design, and thus we achieve a technocratic attitude towards human nature where we turn it into raw materials which can be molded into whatever, and discarded at our will.
    3. parental despotism- When individuals decide to have children they give up total control over life, and the genetic distinctiveness of individuals is what foreshadows that children are not the parents’ properties.
43
Q

Why do Russell and Irvine argue that human cloning does not necessarily involve “playing God”?

A
  1. Cloning is not similar to a divine act of creation.
    1. The objection assumes genetic determinism and this is false.
      • Can do all genetic modifications one wants but environment can change how an organism develops. Still leaves a lot up to chance.
44
Q

Is the “playing God” argument against cloning necessarily a religious or theological argument? Explain your answer.

A

Religious because it is vague, a form of the appeal to nature fallacy, or an empty emotional phrase based on God-independent feelings or beliefs.

45
Q

How do Russell and Irvine reply to the two main objections often raised against cloning—namely, that cloning wrongfully imposes an immoral psychic burden and immoral risks of harm a potential clone?

A

Objection: Cloning involves imposing a future—a psychic burden—on a clone.
Response: We deal with this very problem in ordinary life right now.
Objection: Cloning imposes a sufficient risk for the clone that it would be immmoral to engage in reproductive cloning.
Response: Current research protocols in place (e.g., Tri-Council Guidelines) are sufficient to deal with this concern.

46
Q

Explain Dan Brock’s argument in defense of the permissibility of human reproductive cloning from the reproductive freedoms that we now accept in cases of ordinary decisions about human reproduction.

A

the most widely accepted, current understanding of human reproductive freedom entails that, if human reproductive cloning were reasonably safe, we should accept it as part of that freedom.

47
Q

Explain the (alleged) distinction between enhancement and therapeutic gene therapy. Explain what the (alleged) moral differences that is suppose to exist between these two approaches.

A

Therapy: Genetic manipulation for the purpose of eliminating disease—-to “correct” defects or deficiencies.
• Enhancement: Genetic manipulation for the purpose of “improving” one’s body.

48
Q

Explain some of the main problems which have been raised to show that the enhancement-therapy distinction is not valid.

A

1 Assumes a clear and uncontroversial distinction between health and disease.
2 Assumes that the goal of treating disease is morally legitimate, whereas other goals are not.

49
Q

Explain the various ways, and their possible moral significance, in which a person’s genome could be altered.

A

1 Environment- natural
2 Eugenics- genetc counselling and fetal screening
3 Genetic Engineering or Gene Therapy- Genetic manipulation to eliminate disease- helps the person

50
Q

Explain Glannon’s argument against the morality of enhancement genetics.

A

1 GE (genetic enhancement) would generate social injustice.
2 If GE were made more affordable/accessible, it would have negative social costs.
3 GE would undermine the value we place on social equality.
4 GE would undermine autonomy and moral agency.
Conclusion: GE is morally wrong.

51
Q

Explain why Baylis and Robert argue that even if enhancement genetics is truly immoral, it nevertheless is something that will inevitably be developed.

A
1	Capitalism.
	2	Liberalism.
	3	Inquisitive human nature.
	4	Competetive human nature.
	5	The future is ours for the shaping.
52
Q

Explain Laura Purdy’s argument that it is wrong to reproduce in contexts where we know that there is a high risk of transmitting a serious disease.

A

1 We should try to provide every child with a normal opportunity for health; A healthy body is necessary for a fair chance at happiness, and a good life in our competitive world, it is right to ensure that each child is healthy.
2 It is not wrong to prevent possible children from existing; to be deprived of something one must be capable of having experiences, possible persons do not exist therefore possible persons cannot have experiences, hence possible persons can not be injured by not being brought into existence.

3	Therefore, it is wrong to reproduce when we know there is a high risk of transmitting a serious disease or defect.
53
Q

Explain Leon Kass’s moral reservations about the use of selective abortion to avoid genetic disease.

A

1 Selective abortion threatens the important moral principle of human equality.
2 Selective abortion will adversely affect attitudes towards “abnormals”.
3 Selective abortion leads to a slippery slope from trying to prevent disease to eugenics.
4 Therefore, selective abortion is not a morally defensible reason for terminating the life of a fetus.

54
Q

Kant’s concept of Autonomy

A

Self-legislation; placing will under law and not natural necessity

55
Q

Mill’s concept of Autonomy

A

2 types of action: self-regarding and other-regarding