Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is a solitary mass in the lung periphery or fissure?

A

pleural fibroma

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2
Q

Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma is related to what exposure?

A

asbestos

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3
Q

A Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma will shift the mediastinum in which direction?

A

toward the involved side

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4
Q

What is the sign associated with an Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma; described as a body wall lesion?

A

“Extrapleural sign”

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5
Q

What is the most common primary tumor of the pleura?

A

Pleural Mesothelioma

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6
Q

What is the 3rd MC site of a teratoma?

A

Thorax

– (following gonadal and sacrococcygeal location)

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7
Q

Intrathoracic teratomas are usually found where in the thorax?

A

anterior mediastinum

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8
Q

What are the 3 T’s + H for Anterior Mediastinal Masses?

A
    • Hodgkins lymphoma
    • Thymoma
    • Teratoma
    • Substernal Thyroid
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9
Q

Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) isa result of what?

A

systemic capillary damage

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10
Q

What radiographic sign indicates ARDS

A

Silhouette sign bilaterally

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11
Q

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis (EAA) is an allergic lung disease d/t _____ inhalation of ____.

A

occupational inhalation of organic agents

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12
Q

Farmer’s lung is associated with what organic agent?

A

moldy hay

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13
Q

Bird fancier’s disease is associated with what organic agent?

A

bird droppings

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14
Q

Pneumoconiosis is a pulmonary disease caused by inhalation of ____ and its accumulation in the lung.

A

inorganic dust

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15
Q

Siderosis is associated with what profession?

A

iron = welders

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16
Q

Silicosis is associated what profession?

A

silicon = coal miners

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17
Q

Reticulonodular; “eggshell” calcifications of lymph nodes is associated with what patholody?

A

silicosis

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18
Q

What is a collection of air in pleural space?

A

pneumothorax

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19
Q

What is the MCC of Pneumothorax?

A

Traumatic

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20
Q

Which type of spontaneous pneumothorax is a “bleb” rupture?

A

primary

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21
Q

Which type of spontaneous pneumothorax is a result of a chest disease that produces cavities?

A

secondary

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22
Q

What is a collection of air cysts in the lung?

A

bullae

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23
Q

What is a small bulla on edge of lung?

A

Bleb

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24
Q

What Dx is associated with an image finding of a “flap defect”?

A

tension penumothorax

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25
Q

What Dx is associated with an image finding of a “check valve”?

A

passive atelectasis

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26
Q

What Dx is associated with an image finding of a “crescent-shaped radiolucent shadow” bordered medially by a thin radiodense line representing the visceral pleura?

A

penumothorax

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27
Q

Multisystem aggregation of NONcaseating epithelial granulomas?

A

Sarcoidosis

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28
Q

Sarcoidosis is MC in what population

A

black females

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29
Q

What lab test confirms Dx of Sarcoidosis?

A

Kviem lab test

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30
Q

What finding indicates stage 1 of Sarcoidosis?

A

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

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31
Q

What finding indicates stage 2 of Sarcoidosis?

A

hilar and parenchymal nodules

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32
Q

What finding indicates stage 3 of Sarcoidosis?

A

parenchymal nodules

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33
Q

What finding indicates stage 4 of Sarcoidosis?

A

parenchymal fibrosis (interstitial)

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34
Q

What are 3 anatomical areas that CT would be better than MRI and why?

A

abdominal, pelvic, thoracic caviteis

– Motion is not an issue

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35
Q

Where is pain referred for the Aorta?

A

lumbar spine

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36
Q

Where is pain referred for the Colon?

A

Midlumbar spine

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37
Q

Where is pain referred for the Gallbladder?

A

Inferior border of right scapula

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38
Q

Where is pain referred for Gynecological disorders?

A

L4-pelvis

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39
Q

Where is pain referred for the Kidneys?

A

groin, flank

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40
Q

Where is pain referred for the Pancreas?

A

lower thoracic spine

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41
Q

Where is pain referred for peptic ulcers?

A

midthoracic spine, heart area

42
Q

Where is pain referred for the rectum?

A

left lumbar paraspinal region

43
Q

Where is pain referred for the sigmoid colon?

A

sacral region

44
Q

What modality best visualizes the stomach?

A

plain film

45
Q

What modality best visualizes the small bowel?

A

plain film w/ barium contrast

46
Q

What modality best visualizes the large bowel?

A

contrast + plain film

47
Q

What modality best visualizes the appendix?

A

ultrasound or CT

48
Q

What modality best visualizes the liver/gallbladder?

A

ultrasound

49
Q

What modality best visualizes the pancreas?

A

CT + contrast/ERCP

50
Q

What modality best visualizes the spleen?

A

ultrasound or CT

51
Q

What modality best visualizes the kidneys?

A

plain film

52
Q

What modality best visualizes the adrenals?

A

CT or MRI

53
Q

What modality best visualizes the ureter?

A

IV contrast

54
Q

What modality best visualizes the bladder?

A

plain film

55
Q

What modality best visualizes the blood vessels?

A

ultrasound

56
Q

Bladder calculi is formed from what?

A

urinary stasis

57
Q

What population is at risk for Bladder calculi?

A

elderly males

58
Q

What radiograph finding is associated with bladder calculi?

A

oval radiodense shadows in bladder

59
Q

How do you DDx kidney stones from gallstones on lateral films?

A

– Kidney stones = At or Behind spine

– Gallstones = anterior to spine

60
Q

Plain films demonstrate “popcorn”, “mulberry bush” or “cauliflower” calcification. What is the Dx?

A

Uterine Fibroma

61
Q

Gallstones form from an imbalance in the chemical composition of ___, where solid cholesterol fragments are formed leading to stones.

A

bile

62
Q

What population is at risk for gallstones?

A

“SOAP”

    • sickle-cell anemia
    • obesity
    • age (elderly)
    • pregnancy
63
Q

What is the pain referral pattern for gallstones?

A

inferior border of right shoulder (pain)

64
Q

If you suspect gallstones, where should you look on a plain film?

A

RUQ for radiodense shadows

65
Q

What is the best Dx for gallstones?

A

Ultrasound

–(whearas kidney stones best identified by plain film)

66
Q

Arise from malignant transformation of polyps.

A

Colorectal Carcinoma

67
Q

What are 2 radiographic signs that indicate Colorectal Carcinoma?

A

napkin ring or apple core deformity

68
Q

Is a tumor inside ore outside the lumen easier to find and why?

A

inside lumen = easier to find and take care of

69
Q

What S/S should would suggest colorectal carcinoma?

A

rectal bleeding or hemoccult-positive stool

70
Q

What is the #1 site of cancer in women?

A

breast

71
Q

What is the #1 site of cancer in men?

A

prostate

72
Q

What is #2 site of cancer in men and women?

A

lung

73
Q

What is #3 site of cancer in men and women?

A

colon/rectum

74
Q

What is #5 site of cancer in men and women?

A

hodgkins

75
Q

What is the MC type of hiatal hernia?

A

sliding hernias

76
Q

What is the best type of imaging for hiatal hernia?

A

plain film; barium swallow

– look for gastric air bubble

77
Q

Pancreatic lithiasis is related to __ in 90% of cases.

A

alcohol

78
Q

Small irregular scattered densities at the L1-L2, sometimes L3 level “crossing” the spine. Dx?

A

pancreatic lithiasis

79
Q

A “stippled” density that crosses spine indicates what?

A

pancreatic lithiasis

80
Q

What is the best source of imaging for AAA’s?

A

Ultrasound > CT > MRI

81
Q

How big does a AAA need to be for surgery?

A

> 5-6 cm

82
Q

Hydatid disease is an infestation of what parasite?

A

Echinoccoccus granulosus

83
Q

Hydatid cysts are slow growing and may affect what organ?

A

liver

84
Q

Hydatid cysts are best seen with what imaging?

A

CT

85
Q

Do you adjust someone with a Hydatid disease?

A

no

86
Q

What accounts for ~1/2 of traumatic brain injuries?

A

MVA’s

87
Q

What is the the gold standard for intracranial injuries?

A

CT

88
Q

What is the gold standard for cervical spine fractures?

A

CT

89
Q

What is the gold standard to define cervical spine soft tissue findings?

A

MRI

90
Q

Subdural hematomas are due to injury of what structues?

A

dural venous sinus

91
Q

Subarachnoid bleeds are due to injury of what structure?

A

circle of willis

92
Q

Epidural bleeds are due to injury of what structure?

A

middle meningeal artery

93
Q

Chronic, progressive (autoimmune) demyelinating disorder that affects nerves of brain, spinal cord and other parts of CNS?

A

MS

94
Q

What imaging source is best at diagnosing MS?

A

T2 weighted MRI

95
Q

What is the MC primary tumor?

A

astrocytoma

96
Q

What is an aka for neurofibromas?

A

dumbbell tumors

97
Q

Herniation of cerebellar tonsils into cervical spinal?

A

arnold-chiari malformation

98
Q

What source of imaging is needed for complete evaluation?

A

MRI

99
Q

Which is a dilation of cord - next to central canal

– Syringomyelia or Hydromyelia???

A

syringomyelia

100
Q

Which is a dilation of cord due to fluid in central canal

– Syringomyelia or Hydromyelia???

A

Hydromyelia

101
Q

Dilations of the subarachnoid space surrounding a spinal nerve root?

A

Tarlov or arachnoid cyst