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Operative Dentistry II > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which type of composite resins are most commonly used today?
    a. Macrofill
    b. Microhybrids
    c. Microfill
    d. Hybrids
A

d. Hybrids

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2
Q
  1. Advantages of composite resin restorations include all of the following, except:
    a. The C factor
    b. Esthetics
    c. Insulation
    d. Bonds to tooth structure
A

a. The C factor

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3
Q
  1. The generally accepted maximum thickness of a composite increment that allows for proper cure is _____.
    a. 1 to 2 mm
    b. 2 to 4 mm
    c. 4-6 mm
    d. There is no maximum thickness restriction
A

a. 1 to 2 mm

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4
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true concerning posterior composite restorations, except:
    a. Posterior composite restorations are frequently indicated in the occlusal lesions that allow conservative preparations
    b. Posterior composite restorations are contraindicated in a patient with heavy occlusion (bruxism)
    c. Posterior composites are contraindicated in a patient with high caries risk
    d. Posterior composite restorations may be indicated for the restoration of Class II cavities in the premolar teeth where the appearance is very important, the cavity margins are in the enamel, and the occlusal contacts are on the enamel
    e. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacements unless a dry operating field is maintained
A

e. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacements unless a dry operating field is maintained

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5
Q
  1. Which property of filled resins is primarily to blame for the failure of Class II composite restorations?
    a. Low flexural strength
    b. Low compressive strength
    c. Low tensile strength
    d. Low wear resistance
A

c. Low tensile strength

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6
Q
  1. Composite filler particles function to do all of the following, except:
    a. Reduce the coefficient of thermal expansion
    b. Increase the tensile strength and compressive strength
    c. Reduce the polymerization shrinkage
    d. Increase the hardness
    e. Improve wear resistance
A

b. Increase the tensile strength and compressive strength

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7
Q
  1. Which restorative material has the lowest thermal conductivity and diffusivity?
    a. Amalgam
    b. Gold
    c. Unfilled resin
    d. Filled resin
A

c. Unfilled resin

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8
Q
  1. Match the dental material on the left with the appropriate Coefficient of Thermal Expansion (ppm/c) on the right.

Unfilled resins 14.4

Composite resins 11.4

Amalgam 81-92

Direct gold 22-28

Tooth 28-35

A

Unfilled resins (81-92) Composite resins (28-35) Amalgam (22-28) Direct gold (14.4) Tooth (11.4)

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9
Q
  1. Demineralized tooth structure cannot remineralize.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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10
Q
  1. A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental caries includes _______.
    a. Limiting cariogenic substrate
    b. Controlling cariogenic flora
    c. Elevating host resistance
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct?
    a. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity.
    b. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.
    c. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator of current caries activity.
    d. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity.
A

b. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a reversible carious lesion?
    a. The lesion surface is cavitated.
    b. The lesion has advanced to the dentin radiographically.
    c. A white spot is detected on drying.
    d. The lesion surface is rough or chalky.
A

c. A white spot is detected on drying.

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13
Q
  1. Smooth surface caries refers to _______.
    a. Facial and lingual surfaces
    b. Occlusal pits and grooves
    c. Mesial and distal surfaces
    d. Both A and C
A

d. Both A and C

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary contraindication for the use of a composite restoration?
    a. Occlusal factors
    b. Inability to isolate the operating area
    c. Nonesthetic areas
    d. Extension onto the root surface
A

b. Inability to isolate the operating area

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?
    a. Amalgam
    b. Direct gold
    c. Tooth structure
    d. Composite resin
A

d. Composite resin

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16
Q
  1. Compared with amalgam restorations, composite restorations are _______.
    a. Stronger
    b. More technique-sensitive
    c. More resistant to occlusal forces
    d. Not indicated for Class II restorations
A

b. More technique-sensitive

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17
Q
  1. The rate of root surface caries is increasing, in part, because of the increase in gingival recession.
    a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
    b. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but not related
    c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
    d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
    e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
A

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

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18
Q
  1. Match the following composite resin type to the corresponding filler particle size:

Macrofill _____ a. 0.04 to 1.0 μm

Microfills _______ b. 1 to 3 μm

Microhybrids ______ c. 0.04 to 0.1 μm

Hybrids _______ d. 0.7 to 20 μm

Packable _______ e. 0.4 to 0.8 μm

Flowable _______ f. 10 μm

Nanohybrids _____ g. 20 ηm

A

Macrofill __f. 10 μm___

Microfills ___a. 0.04 to 1.0 μm____

Microhybrids ___e. 0.4 to 0.8 μm___

Hybrids ___b. 1 to 3 μm____

Packable ___d. 0.7 to 20 μm____

Flowable ___c. 0.04 to 0.1 μm____

Nanohybrids __g. 20 ηm___

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19
Q
  1. Match the following composite resin type to the corresponding filler particle volume:

Macrofill ______ a. 35-50%

Microfills _____ b. 70-77%

Microhybrids _____ c. 48-65%

Hybrids ______ d. 44-54%

Packable _____ e. 56-66%

Flowable ______ f. 75-87%

Nanohybrids _____ g. 60-75%

A

Macrofill ___g. 60-75%___

Microfills __a. 35-50%___

Microhybrids __e. 56-66%___

Hybrids ___b. 70-77%___

Packable __c. 48-65%___

Flowable ___d. 44-54%___

Nanohybrids __f. 75-87%___

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20
Q
  1. Give three examples when the use of a nanohybrid composite resin material is indicated
A

Class II restorations on molars

Class III restorations in an esthetic zone

Class V restorations

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21
Q
  1. When would a microfilled composite resin material be indicated?
A

In Anterior, esthetic restorations

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22
Q
  1. What is “plucking”? (Hint: it has nothing to do with defeathering of a rafter of turkeys)
A

The filler particles are coated with an organosilane, a coupling agent capable of producing chemical bonding to the filler particles and the resin matrix. Without a coupling agent, the strength of the cohesive mass is reduced, and the filler particles tend to be lost, or “plucked,” from the surface as preferential wear occurs in the softer surrounding resin matrix.

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23
Q
  1. Composite resin has a similar modulus of elasticity to which material?
    a. Dentin
    b. Amalgam
    c. Enamel
    d. Porcelain
A

a. Dentin

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24
Q
  1. Flexural strength is the measure of a material to resist the propagation of a crack.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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25
Q
  1. Wear of a composite resin material is attributed to several different mechanisms. Please give two examples.
A

Material factors - particle size, quanitity of fillers

Clinical factors - tooth, restoration extension, type of occlusion

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26
Q
  1. All of the following are factors affecting the wear rate of composite resin material, except:
    a. Type of occlusion
    b. Size of the restoration
    c. Filler particle size and volume
    d. Thickness of the bonded resin
A

d. Thickness of the bonded resin

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27
Q
  1. The most common force that will lead to composite resin failure is compression.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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28
Q
  1. Hardness and wear are synonymous terms.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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29
Q
  1. Common causes of failure in composite resin restorations include all the following, except:
    a. Bulk fractures of the resin
    b. Secondary caries
    c. Marginal leakage
    d. Wear of the resin material
A

a. Bulk fractures of the resin

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30
Q
  1. Isolation and moisture control are major contributing factors to the long- term success of bonded composite resin restorations.
    a. True
    b. True
    c. All of the above
A

c. All of the above

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31
Q
  1. When placement of proximal retention locks in class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following is not correct?
    a. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
    b. One should not prepare locks entirely in the axial wall.
    c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
    d. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined.
A

c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.

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32
Q
  1. Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving _______.
    a. Mechanical interlocking
    b. Ionic bonding
    c. Covalent bonding
    d. Van der Waals forces
A

a. Mechanical interlocking

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33
Q
  1. When restoring a Class II or Class III lesion, it is important to create properly shaped embrasures for all of the following reasons, except:
    a. Create a spillway for food during mastication
    b. Make the teeth self-cleansing
    c. Protect the gingival tissue, while also allowing stimulation of it
    d. Provide arch stability
A

d. Provide arch stability

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34
Q
  1. On the first day in your solo private practice, you have a pulp exposure. Which of the following are favorable factors in avoiding root canal treatment? (Circle all that apply)
    a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm
    b. The tooth had never been symptomatic
    c. The pulp appears pink
    d. The hemorrhage is severe
    e. It is a pinpoint carious exposure
A

a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm
b. The tooth had never been symptomatic
c. The pulp appears pink

35
Q
  1. Which answer is not a purpose of the rubber dam?
    a. Prevent the restorative materials from entering the mouth
    b. Isolate the tooth from oral fluids
    c. Improve bonding quality
    d. Prevent the patient from talking
A

d. Prevent the patient from talking

36
Q
  1. The principle goals of bonding are ______.
    a. Sealing and thermal insulation
    b. Strengthening teeth and esthetics
    c. Esthetics and reduction of post-operative sensitivity
    d. Sealing and retention
    e. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure
A

d. Sealing and retention

37
Q
  1. An enamel bonding agent that bonds enamel to composite is termed a “cohesive joint”; this is because there are three materials involved.
    a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
    b. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but not related
    c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
    d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
    e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
A

e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

38
Q
  1. Dental bonding and dental adhesion are synonymous terms.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

39
Q
  1. The axiopulpal line angle should be sharp to improve resistance form?
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

40
Q
  1. Proximal retention grooves should be placed at the expense of the facial and lingual walls?
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

41
Q
  1. In ideal cases, the gingival seat/floor is _____________ and ________________ to the long axis of the tooth?
    a. Flat, perpendicular
    b. Rounded, perpendicular
    c. Flat, parallel
    d. Rounded, parallel
A

a. Flat, perpendicular

42
Q
  1. What is the principle reason requiring a 90 degree exit angle for a cavity preparation?
    a. Unsupported enamel will cause the tooth to fracture
    b. Acute cavosurface angles will lead to restoration fracture
    c. 90 degree exit angles allow for optimal retention and resistance form
    d. All of these
A

d. All of these

43
Q
  1. The gingival wedge functions to do all of the following, except?
    a. Aid in developing proximal contour
    b. Replace the use of a dental dam for isolation and moisture control
    c. Attain separation of adjacent tooth contact position to compensate for the thickness of the matrix band
    d. Hold the matrix band tightly against the gingival seat
A

b. Replace the use of a dental dam for isolation and moisture control

44
Q
  1. The single most important factor in protecting the pulp from insult is:
    a. Rinsing a prepared tooth with chlorhexadine
    b. Placing a base or liner on every cavity preparation
    c. Using composite as a restorative material
    d. The amount of dentin thickness remaining
A

d. The amount of dentin thickness remaining

45
Q
  1. A tooth with no history of spontaneous pain, and a periapical lesion radiographically is a good candidate for a pulp cap.
    a. True

B. False

A

B. False

46
Q
  1. Ideal pulpal protection for a tooth with a deep cavity preparation that will receive a composite resin restoration can include all of the following, except:
    a. IRM as a base
    b. A RMGI such as Vitrabond
    c. A traditional GI such as Fuji
    d. The appropriate bonding system
A

a. IRM as a base

47
Q
  1. Direct pulp caps have a better prognosis than indirect pulp caps.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

48
Q
  1. Disadvantages of using silver amalgam as a restorative material include:
    a. Difficulty of use
    b. Non-esthetic
    c. Occlusal wear is similar to Glass Ionomer
    d. All of these
A

b. Non-esthetic

49
Q
  1. Advantages of using composite resin as a restorative material include all of the following, except:
    a. Bonds to tooth structure
    b. Esthetic
    c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene
    d. Can be placed in more conservatively prepared teeth
A

c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene

50
Q
  1. One should never remove sound tooth structure to provide space for a base.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

51
Q
  1. Composite resin has a similar Knoop hardness measure to enamel.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

52
Q
  1. Composite resin material has a significantly higher tensile strength as compared to enamel.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

53
Q
  1. All composite resin material undergoes polymerization shrinkage.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

54
Q
  1. When answering a board question about the need for mechanical retention in a preparation for a composite resin material, less does not mean none.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

55
Q
  1. Why is it important to avoid connecting lateral walls when adding composite resin to your preparation?
A

Because of C factor. You don’t want any C factor, which is when you fill both sides at the same time, so as the composite polymerizes it will shrink and consequently be pulling away from both sides of the prep, opening the margins for microleakage.

56
Q
  1. When should you restore a carious class V lesion?
    a. When the tooth is sensitive
    b. When the lesion is in the esthetic zone
    c. When it is an abfractive lesion
    d. Always, if it is restorable
A

a. When the tooth is sensitive

57
Q

57 What determines the type of preparation used for a class V lesion?

a. Whether or not a rubber dam is used
b. The location of the lesion
c. The type of lesion
d. The type of restorative material to be used

A

d. The type of restorative material to be used

58
Q
  1. Studies show that occlusive forces alone will cause abfractive lesions.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

59
Q

59 Which is not a reason to restore a NCCL?

a. When the tooth is significantly sensitive
b. When the etiologic factors are uncontrolled
c. When there is a threat to the strength of the tooth
d. When the lesion is esthetically acceptable

A

d. When the lesion is esthetically acceptable

60
Q
  1. All of the following are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Patient age
    b. Esthetic concern
    c. Tooth is symptomatic
    d. Tooth is deeply notched axially
A

a. Patient age

61
Q
  1. A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _______.
    a. Carious
    b. Very sensitive
    c. Causing gingival inflammation
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

62
Q
  1. Which of the following terms refers to tooth structure loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading?
    a. Abfraction
    b. Abrasion
    c. Attrition
    d. Erosion
A

a. Abfraction

63
Q
  1. Match each condition of tooth loss with the most closely linked type of tooth loss.
    a. Mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (i.e. tooth brushing) ____
    b. Normal tooth wear ____
    c. Wear secondary to chemical presence____
    d. Tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading ____
    e. Abfracion
    f. Attrition
    g. Corrosion
    h. Abrasion
A

a. Mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (i.e. tooth brushing) __h__
b. Normal tooth wear _f___
c. Wear secondary to chemical presence__g__
d. Tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading __e__

64
Q
  1. From the following list, select the reasons to consider the restoration of abraded or eroded (noncarious) cervical lesions. (Choose four).
    a. Caries develops in the lesion.
    b. The defect is shallow and does not compromise the structural integrity of the tooth.
    c. Intolerable sensitivity exists and is unresponsive to conservative desensitizing measures.
    d. The defect contributes to a phonetic problem.
    e. The area is to be involved in the design of a removable partial denture.
    f. Teeth are endodontically treated.
    g. The patient desires an esthetic improvement.
A

a. Caries develops in the lesion.
c. Intolerable sensitivity exists and is unresponsive to conservative desensitizing measures.
e. The area is to be involved in the design of a removable partial denture.
g. The patient desires an esthetic improvement.

65
Q
  1. In the contemporary order of tooth preparation, which of the following principles of tooth preparation should be accomplished first?
    a. Outline form
    b. Convenience form
    c. Caries removal
    d. Resistance form
A

a. Outline form

66
Q
  1. In the contemporary order of tooth preparation, outline form, resistance form, and retention form become irrelevant.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

67
Q
  1. Minimally invasive dentistry is meant to halt or delay the typical restorative cycle.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

68
Q
  1. It is more important to remove the central caries prior to removal of the peripheral caries.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

69
Q
  1. Class V amalgam restorations rarely require retention grooves, but if they are used, they are placed at the incisoaxial and gingivoaxial line angles.
    a. Both statements are true
    b. Both statements are false
    c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
    d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
A

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

70
Q
  1. All of the following are true concerning a Class V amalgam preparation, except:
    a. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
    b. The mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the cavity preparation diverge outward
    c. The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove along the gingivoaxial line angle and the incisal retention groove along the incisoaxial line angle
    d. A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues
A

a. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin

71
Q
  1. When preparing a Class V composite preparation, you have ________ rounded internal line angles because it is ________ to compress composite into them than amalgam.
    a. More, easier
    b. Less, harder
    c. More, harder
    d. Less, easier
A

a. More, easier

72
Q
  1. A carious lesion is usually just _______ to the contact.
A

gingival

73
Q
  1. The facial wall of a class III prep is _______ to the lingual.
A

parallel

74
Q
  1. The axial wall of a Class III prep is _______ to the proximal surface.
A

parallel

75
Q
  1. The bevel on all accessible margins of a Class III prep is typically _____ mm.
A

.5

76
Q
  1. The pull through technique of placing a composite restoration refers to pulling the matrix toward the ___________ margin just before curing.
A

facial

77
Q
  1. When preparing a class III or IV composite tooth preparation, which of the following statements regarding placement of retention form is false?
    a. Placement of retention form often involves gingival and incisal retention.
    b. Placement of retention form is placed at the axiogingival line angle regardless of the depth of the axial wall.
    c. Placement of retention form may be needed in large preparations.
    d. Placement of retention form is usually prepared with a No. 1/4 round bur.
A

b. Placement of retention form is placed at the axiogingival line angle regardless of the depth of the axial wall.

78
Q
  1. Demineralized tooth structure cannot remineralize.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

79
Q
  1. It is more important to decrease sucrose quantity intake than to decrease sucrose frequency intake.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

80
Q
  1. When preparing a posterior tooth for a slot preparation, one should:
    a. Pay little or no attention to retentive form.
    b. Primarily consider silver amalgam to be the restorative material of choice.
    c. Critically examine the fissures and central groove of the tooth, and ensure no caries.
    d. Always use a three in one bonding system as the adhesive.
A

c. Critically examine the fissures and central groove of the tooth, and ensure no caries.

81
Q
  1. The outline form of a cavity preparation incorporates aspects of all of the following, except:
    a. Depth of the caries removal.
    b. Final margin of the preparation
    c. Peripheral extent of the lesion.
    d. Should be smooth and flowing, following the anatomy and contour of the tooth.
A

a. Depth of the caries removal.

82
Q
  1. The advantage of using lasers to prepare a tooth to receive a composite resin restoration is that the provider can often prepare the tooth without the need of anesthesia. The other advantage is that the laser will increase the ability to bond to the tooth structure.
    a. Both statements are true
    b. Both statements are false
    c. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false
A

c. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false

83
Q
  1. Bacterial plaque and biofilm are synonymous terms.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

84
Q
  1. Where are the three sites, on the tooth, where carious lesions most commonly begin?
  2. For each of the above sites, which specific procedure is best for preventing carious lesions from forming?
A

a. ___\_Pit and Fissure - sealants
b. ___\_Interproximal, just gingival to the contact - flossing_
c. __\_Cervical regions adjacent to the gingiva - brushing

Operative Dentistry II (3 decks)

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