Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Operative Dentistry II > EXAM 1 > Flashcards

EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When placement of proximal retention locks in class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following is not correct?

a. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
b. One should not prepare locks entirely in the axial wall.
c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
d. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined.

A

c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of the following would be the least important factor?
    a. Extent of the defect
    b. Size of the tooth
    c. Fracture lines
    d. Extent of the old material
A

b. Size of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. In the conventional Class I composite preparation, retention is achieved by which of the following features?
    a. Occlusal convergence
    b. Occlusal bevel
    c. Bonding
    d. Retention grooves
    e. b and d
    f. a and c
    g. a and d
    h. b and c
A

f. a and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Reduces or eliminates food impaction at the inter-dental papilla
    b. Provides appropriate space for the interdental papilla
    c. Provides increased retention form for the restoration
    d. Maintains the proper occlusal relationship
A

c. Provides increased retention form for the restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving _______.
    a. Mechanical interlocking
    b. Ionic bonding
    c. Covalent bonding
    d. Van der Waals forces
A

a. Mechanical interlocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the choice between using a composite resin or amalgam restoration is true?
    a. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite.
    b. The amalgam is more difficult and technique-sensitive.
    c. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation.
    d. Only amalgam should be used for Class II restorations.
A

c. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Eburnated dentin has which of the following characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
    a. Is sclerotic dentin
    b. Indicates recent poor hygiene
    c. Usually appears as a white patch
    d. Is firm to the touch of an explorer
    e. Is usually seen in older patients
A

a. Is sclerotic dentin
d. Is firm to the touch of an explorer
e. Is usually seen in older patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Rounding internal cavity preparation angles is part of what form in cavity preparation?
    a. Resistance form
    b. Retention form
    c. Convenience form
    d. Outline form
A

a. Resistance form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. For a mechanical pulp exposure that is non-carious and the exposure is less than 1.0 mm, what is usually the most appropriate treatment?
    a. No pulp treatment
    b. Direct pulp cap
    c. Indirect pulp cap
    d. Endodontic therapy
A

b. Direct pulp cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. After completing the tooth preparation for the application of an etch-and-rinse (total-etch) three-step dental adhesive, what is the next step?
    a. Apply adhesive
    b. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet
    c. Apply two to three layers of primer
    d. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds
    e. Light-cure
A

d. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Major differences between etch-and-rinse (previously known as total-etch) and self-etching primer adhesive systems include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Time necessary to apply the materials
    b. Amount of smear layer removed
    c. Bond strengths to enamel
    d. Need for wet bonding
A

a. Time necessary to apply the materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. From the following list, select the reasons associated with replacement of existing restorations. (Choose four).
    a. Marginal ridge discrepancy that contributes to food impaction
    b. Existing restoration has significant discrepancies and is a negative etiologic factor to adjacent teeth or tissue.
    c. Light marginal staining not compromising esthetics and judged non-carious
    d. Poor proximal contour or a gingival overhang that contributes to periodontal breakdown
    e. Recurrent caries that can be adequately treated by a repair restoration
    f. Presence of shallow ditching around an amalgam restoration
    g. For tooth-colored restorations, unacceptable esthetics
A

a. Marginal ridge discrepancy that contributes to food impaction
b. Existing restoration has significant discrepancies and is a negative etiologic factor to adjacent teeth or tissue.
d. Poor proximal contour or a gingival overhang that contributes to periodontal breakdown
g. For tooth-colored restorations, unacceptable esthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Match each pulpal condition with the most closely linked recommended pulp therapy.
    a. Mechanical pulp exposure, non-carious (<1.0mm)____
    b. Remaining dentin thickness greater than 2.0 mm over vital pulp____
    c. Carious pulp exposure (>1.0 mm) with purulent exudate ____
    d. Residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth____
    e. Endodontic therapy
    f. No pulp therapy required
    g. Direct pulp cap
    h. Indirect pulp cap
A

a. Mechanical pulp exposure, non-carious (<1.0mm)___G_
b. Remaining dentin thickness greater than 2.0 mm over vital pulp__F__
c. Carious pulp exposure (>1.0 mm) with purulent exudate __E__
d. Residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth__H__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed?
    a. Turbid dentin
    b. Infected dentin
    c. Transparent dentin
    d. Normal dentin
    e. Subtransparent dentin
A

c. Transparent dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Another name for root surface caries is senile caries.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. When restoring the embrasures of posterior teeth the contact should be formed slightly buccal from center.

This will create a wider facial embrasure.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

c. The first statement is true, the second is false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Studies have established that root sensitivity is due, in part, to open dentinal tubules at the root surface.

The hydrodynamic theory is the proposed mechanism for this sensitivity.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

a. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Operator skill is less of a factor for composite resin restorations as compared to amalgam restorations.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the clamp configuration?
    a. Protecting the patient so they do not swallow the dam
    b. Easy placement and holding the dam in place
    c. A finger rest for the dentist
    d. It is arbitrary
A

b. Easy placement and holding the dam in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Why is it important to have more than one tooth isolated by the dam?
    a. To help with color matching of composite material
    b. To assure proper orientation of the mouth and teeth
    c. To help keep proper contacts and marginal ridge height
    d. All of the above
    e. B and C
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of these teeth are the most difficult to place rubber dam clamps on?
    a. Teeth 18 or 31
    b. Teeth 8 or 9
    c. Teeth 24 or 25
    d. Teeth 22 or 27
A

d. Teeth 22 or 27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Why is it hard to place a rubber dam clamp on tooth #2 and #15 (assuming third molars are not present)?
    a. The coronoid process gets in the way when the mouth is open
    b. The further back in the mouth you get, the darker it gets
    c. Gingival hyperplasia is much more common around those particular teeth
    d. The unique shape of maxillary second molars makes it difficult for manufacturers to create a proper clamp to fit around them.
A

c. Gingival hyperplasia is much more common around those particular teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Why are there so many different configurations of rubber dam clamps?
    a. Some were invented specifically to reduce reflection of lighting back into the clinician’s eyes
    b. Teeth come in many different shapes and sizes, and so one size of clamp may be preferable to another when working with a particular tooth
    c. Some are made “wingless” to mitigate bulk, making working around them easier for some dentists
    d. Some are made with wings to provide extra retraction of the rubber dam from the field of operation
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Tying floss to the clamp is used to help retrieve the clamp in case it comes off the tooth. It is also used to push the rubber dam down into the interproximal spaces.
    a. The first statement is TRUE. The second statement is FALSE.
    b. The first statement is FALSE. The second statement is TRUE.
    c. Both statements are TRUE.
    d. Both statements are FALSE.
A

c. Both statements are TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Another name for the corners of the mouth is __________.
    a. Philtrum
    b. Ala
    c. Commisure
    d. Vermillion Border
A

c. Commisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Why would a dentist put a rubber dam clamp gingival to the height of the contour?
    a. Because it’s more exciting
    b. So that the clamp will stay in place
    c. It prevents gingivitis
    d. B and C
A

b. So that the clamp will stay in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which answer is not a purpose of the rubber dam?
    a. Prevent the restorative materials from entering the mouth
    b. Isolate the tooth from oral fluids
    c. Improve bonding quality
    d. Prevent the patient from talking
A

d. Prevent the patient from talking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. An advantage of a winged-clamp compared to a wingless clamps is:
    a. Winged clamps are less painful for the patient
    b. Winged clamps can be used on both the maxilla and the mandible
    c. Winged clamps prevent tearing of the dam
    d. Winged clamps allow a dentist to carry the dam to the tooth and place the dam and clamp simultaneously
A

d. Winged clamps allow a dentist to carry the dam to the tooth and place the dam and clamp simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Why would you use floss on a clamp without wings?
    a. To push the clamp in between the interproximal space of two teeth
    b. To clean the tooth before performing restoration
    c. To prevent the clamp from going down the patient’s throat
    d. To wedge between the teeth to hold the clamp more secure
A

c. To prevent the clamp from going down the patient’s throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. What do you do if a patient comes in and they need a rubber dam for a procedure but they cannot breathe through their nose?
    a. Send the patient home until they can come back and breathe through their nose.
    b. Put the rubber dam at an angle or put 2 by 2 cotton gauze in to prop the dam.
    c. Don’t use a dam. Just use cotton rolls wedged on all sides of the teeth you are working on.
    d. None of the above
A

b. Put the rubber dam at an angle or put 2 by 2 cotton gauze in to prop the dam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Why would you use a “wedjet” or part of the rubber dam as a wedge between teeth?
    a. To add thickness to the rubber dam
    b. To hold the rubber dam in place without a clamp
    c. To avoid hitting the neighboring tooth
    d. To make it more comfortable for the patient
A

b. To hold the rubber dam in place without a clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. When punching holes in the rubber dam, punching the holes too close together can cause the dam to _______, while punching the holes too far apart can cause the dam to __________.
    a. Tear, bunch up
    b. Bunch up, tear
A

a. Tear, bunch up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. When using Peak Universal Bond, according to the manufacturer, you etch the tooth with phosphoric acid for what length of time:
A

20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. The use of the rubber dam is best indicated for ______.
    a. Adhesive procedures
    b. Quadrant dentistry
    c. Teeth with challenging preparations
    d. Difficult patients
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. A rubber dam is inverted to
    a. Prevent the dam from tearing
    b. Prevent the underlying gingiva from accidental trauma
    c. Provide a complete seal around the teeth
    d. All of the above
A

c. Provide a complete seal around the teeth

36
Q
  1. Factors that affect the success of dentin bonding include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Dentin factors such as sclerosis, tubule morphology, and smear layer
    b. Tooth factors such as attrition, abrasion, and abfraction
    c. Material factors such as compressive and tensile strengths
    d. C-factor considerations
A

c. Material factors such as compressive and tensile strengths

37
Q
  1. Major differences between total-etch and self-etching primer dentin bonding systems include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. The time necessary to apply the material
    b. The amount of smear layer removed
    c. The bond strengths to enamel
    d. The need for wet bonding
A

a. The time necessary to apply the material

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statements if not true regarding bonding systems?
    a. Although dentin bonding occurs slowly, it results in a stronger bond than to enamel.
    b. Enamel bonding occurs quickly, is strong, and is long lasting.
    c. One-bottle dentin bonding systems may be simpler but are not always better.
    d. Dentin bonding is still variable because of factors such as sclerosis, tubule size and tubule location.
A

a. Although dentin bonding occurs slowly, it results in a stronger bond than to enamel.

39
Q
  1. Which one of the following acids is generally recommended for etching tooth structure?
    a. Maleic acid
    b. Polyacrylic acid
    c. Phosphoric acid
    d. Tartaric acid
    e. Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid
A

c. Phosphoric acid

40
Q
  1. The principle goals of bonding are ______.
    a. Sealing and thermal insulation
    b. Strengthening teeth and esthetics
    c. Esthetics and reduction of post-operative sensitivity
    d. Sealing and retention
    e. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure
A

d. Sealing and retention

41
Q
  1. Place the following steps for the application of an etch-and-rinse (total-etch) three-step dental adhesive in correct sequence.
    a. Apply adhesive ____
    b. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet ____
    c. Complete tooth preparation ____
    d. Apply two to three layers of primer ____
    e. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds ____
    e. Light-cure ____
A

a. Apply adhesive __5__
b. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet __3__
c. Complete tooth preparation __1__
d. Apply two to three layers of primer __4__
e. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds __2__
e. Light-cure __6__

42
Q
  1. The rubber dam can still be used effectively even if teeth are crowded and overlapped because the hole-punch pattern does not always have to be followed.
    a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
    b. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but not related
    c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
    d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
    e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
A

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

43
Q
  1. Advantages of using the rubber dam include:
    a. It helps maintain a dry, clean field
    b. Increases access and visibility
    c. Improves properties of dental materials
    d. Protection of the patient and the operator
    e. Operating efficiency
    f. All of these
A

f. All of these

44
Q
  1. Acid etching enamel prior to placement of a composite restoration is required for all of the following reasons, except:
    a. Conserves tooth structure
    b. Increases esthetics
    c. Provides micromechanichal retention
A

b. Increases esthetics

45
Q
  1. Enamel etching is typically completed with:
    a. 35-37% phosphoric acid
    b. 13% phosphoric acid
    c. 37% hydrochloric acid
    d. 7% hydrofluoric acid
A

a. 35-37% phosphoric acid

46
Q
  1. An enamel bonding agent that bonds enamel to composite is termed a “cohesive joint”; this is because there are three materials involved.
    a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
    b. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but not related
    c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
    d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
    e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
A

e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

47
Q
  1. The smaller the contact angle of the drop of adhesive, the greater the wetting of the substrate, and thus the greater potential for adhesion.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

48
Q
  1. Dental bonding and dental adhesion are synonymous terms.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

49
Q
  1. Secondary dentin is formed in response to caries, operative procedures, or wear. ?

The dentin formed in response is formed by secondary odontoblasts.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

A

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

50
Q
  1. Class II carious lesions generally start____________ to the proximal contact?
    a. Occlusal
    b. Facial
    c. Lingual
    d. Gingival
A

d. Gingival

51
Q
  1. Forming the proximal box of a class II preparation is dependent upon which of the following?
    a. The position of the contact
    b. Caries location
    c. Outline of the occlusal preparation
    d. All of these
    e. None of these
A

d. All of these

52
Q
  1. Ideally, the facial and lingual proximal wall extensions should break contact by ____ mm?
    a. 2.0
    b. 1.0
    c. 1.5
    d. 0.5
A

d. 0.5

53
Q
  1. The axial wall contour should be convex?
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

54
Q
  1. The axiopulpal line angle should be sharp to improve resistance form?
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

55
Q
  1. In ideal cases, the gingival seat/floor is _____________ and ________________ to the long axis of the tooth?
    a. Flat, perpendicular
    b. Rounded, perpendicular
    c. Flat, parallel
    d. Rounded, parallel
A

a. Flat, perpendicular

56
Q
  1. What is the principle reason requiring a 90 degree exit angle for a cavity preparation?
    a. Unsupported enamel will cause the restoration to fracture
    b. Acute cavosurface angles will lead to tooth fracture
    c. 90 degree exit angles allow for optimal retention and resistance form
    d. All of these
A

c. 90 degree exit angles allow for optimal retention and resistance form

57
Q
  1. When a matrix band is placed ideally, it should extend gingivally, at least, ______mm below the gingival seat, and should extend occlusally, at least, ______mm

above the cavosurface.

a. 1, 1
b. 0.5, 0,5
c. 2, 1
d. 1, 2

A

a. 1, 1

58
Q
  1. The gingival wedge functions to do all of the following, except?
    a. Aid in developing proximal contour
    b. Replace the use of a dental dam for isolation and moisture control
    c. Attain separation of adjacent tooth contact position to compensate for the thickness of the matrix band
    d. Hold the matrix band tightly against the gingival seat
A

b. Replace the use of a dental dam for isolation and moisture control

59
Q
  1. The single most important factor in protecting the pulp from insult is:
    a. Rinsing a prepared tooth with chlorhexadine
    b. Placing a base or liner on every cavity preparation
    c. Using composite as a restorative material
    d. The amount of dentin thickness remaining
A

d. The amount of dentin thickness remaining

60
Q
  1. A tooth with no history of spontaneous pain, and a periapical lesion radiographically is a good candidate for a pulp cap.
    a. True

B. False

A

false

61
Q
  1. Dull cutting surfaces on dental burs actually show less of an adverse effect in the pulp as compared to sharp cutting surfaces.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

62
Q
  1. Ideal pulpal protection for a tooth with a deep cavity preparation that will receive a composite resin restoration can include all of the following, except:
    a. IRM as a base
    b. A RMGI such as Vitrabond
    c. A traditional GI such as Fuji
    d. The appropriate bonding system
A

a. IRM as a base

63
Q
  1. Direct pulp caps have a better prognosis than indirect pulp caps.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

64
Q
  1. Of the varnishes, liners and bases we use to protect the pulp, IRM provides the best pulpal protection.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

65
Q
  1. Please order 1-7, the steps of use for Peak Universal bond

_____ Rinse and suction for 5 seconds

_____ Air dry at half pressure for 10 seconds

_____ Light cure for the recommended time

_____ Lightly dry

_____ Etch the enamel and dentin for 20 seconds

_____ Scrub for 10 seconds

_____ Apply Peak

A

__2___ Rinse and suction for 5 seconds

__6___ Air dry at half pressure for 10 seconds

__7___ Light cure for the recommended time

__3___ Lightly dry

__1___ Etch the enamel and dentin for 20 seconds

__5___ Scrub for 10 seconds

__4___ Apply Peak

66
Q
  1. Advantages of using silver amalgam as a restorative material include all of the following, except:
    a. Long life of the restoration
    b. Insulates the tooth
    c. Excellent wear-resistance
    d. High compressive strength
A

b. Insulates the tooth

67
Q
  1. Advantages of using composite resin as a restorative material include all of the following, except:
    a. Bonds to tooth structure
    b. Esthetic
    c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene
    d. Can be placed in more conservatively prepared teeth
A

c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene

68
Q
  1. Disadvantages of using silver amalgam as a restorative material include:
    a. Difficulty of use
    b. Non-esthetic
    c. Occlusal wear is similar to Glass Ionomer
    d. All of these
A

b. Non-esthetic

69
Q
  1. Disadvantages of using composite resin as a restorative material include:
    a. Technique sensitivity
    b. Isolation is essential
    c. Polymerization shrinkage
    d. All of these
A

d. All of these

70
Q
  1. It is important, when placing a base or a liner, to bring the level of the pulpal floor and axial walls to the ideal depth and internal form
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

71
Q
  1. One should never remove sound tooth structure to provide space for a base.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

72
Q
  1. What distinguishes a base from a cavity liner?
    a. Final application thickness
    b. Degree of pulpal protection
    c. Biocompatibility of material
    d. Degree of hardness
A

a. Final application thickness

73
Q
  1. The diagonal slot on the Tofflemire matrix retainer as placed facing the gingiva. This:
    a. Allows for easier wedge placement
    b. Is less harmful on the gingiva
    c. Permits easy separation of the retainer from the band in an occlusal direction
    d. Allows for better contour of band to tooth
A

c. Permits easy separation of the retainer from the band in an occlusal direction

74
Q
  1. Advantages of using composite resin as a restorative material include all of the following, except:
    a. Bonds to tooth structure
    b. Esthetic
    c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene
    d. Can be placed in more conservatively prepared teeth
A

c. Great for patients with all ranges of oral hygiene

75
Q
  1. Disadvantages of using composite resin as a restorative material include:
    a. Technique sensitivity
    b. Isolation is essential
    c. Polymerization shrinkage
    d. All of these
A

d. All of these

76
Q
  1. The following condition MAY preclude the use of the rubber dam, except:
    a. Some respiratory issues
    b. Teeth that are not erupted sufficiently
    c. Some third molars
    d. Time constraints
    e. Severely tilted teeth
A

d. Time constraints

77
Q
  1. When flossing the dental dam through the contact areas, it is critical to floss both edges of the punched hole at the same time.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

78
Q
  1. Cotton rolls are inadequate for isolation, in most bonding situations.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

79
Q
  1. It is important to use natural latex for rubber dam material.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

80
Q
  1. What is a major challenge of dentin/enamel bonding?
A
81
Q
  1. Where is the area most commonly associated with the failure of composite resin restorations?
A
82
Q
  1. Proximal retention grooves should be placed at the expense of the facial and lingual walls?
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

83
Q
  1. When restoring a Class II or Class III lesion, it is important to create properly shaped embrasures for all of the following reasons, except:
    a. Create a spillway for food during mastication
    b. Make the teeth self-cleansing
    c. Protect the gingival tissue, while also allowing stimulation of it
    d. Provide arch stability
A

d. Provide arch stability

84
Q
  1. On the first day in your solo private practice, you have a pulp exposure. Which of the following are favorable factors in avoiding root canal treatment? Choose all that apply.
    a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm
    b. The tooth had never been symptomatic
    c. The pulp appears pink
    d. The hemorrhage is severe
    e. It is a pinpoint carious exposure
A

b. The tooth had never been symptomatic
c. The pulp appears pink
e. It is a pinpoint carious exposure

85
Q
  1. The following is not a way to protect the lip while using a rubber dam:
    a. Use water soluble lubricant
    b. Loosen dam
    c. Place 2x2s there
    d. Shaving cream
    e. Tighten the rubber dam frame
A

e. Tighten the rubber dam frame

Operative Dentistry II (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions