Final Exam

Question 1

The four forces on an airplane in flight are

A. Lift, weight, gravity, and thrust
B. Lift, gravity, power, and friction
C. Lift, weight, thrust, and drag

Answer 1

C. Lift, weight, thrust, and drag

Question 2

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium

A. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground
B. During unaccelerated flight
C. When the aircraft is accelerating

Answer 2

B. During unaccelerated flight

Question 3

The term ‘angle of attack’ is defined as the angle

A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing
B. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind
C. Between the airplanes climb angle and the horizon

Answer 3

B. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind

Question 4

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A. Remain the same regardless of gross weight
B. Increase if the CG is moved forward
C. Change with an increase in gross weight.

Answer 4

A. Remain the same regardless of gross weight

Question 5

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A. To decrease wing area to vary the lift
B. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls
C. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed

Answer 5

C. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed

Question 6

What is ground effect?

A. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.
B. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane
C. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.

Answer 6

B. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

Question 7

An airplane said to be inherently stable will

A. Require less effort to control
B. Not spin
C. Be difficult to stall.

Answer 7

A. Require less effort to control

Question 8

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

A. To control roll
B. To control yaw
C. To control over banking tendency

Answer 8

B. To control yaw

Question 9

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
B. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag
C. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab

Answer 9

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

Question 10

Landing an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

A. Less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds
B. Less stable at all speeds
C. Less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds

Answer 10

B. Less stable at all speeds

Question 11

What causes an airplane (except T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted

A. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
C. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced

Answer 11

B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

Question 12

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

A. In a steep diving spiral
B. Partially stalled with one wing low
C. Stalled

Answer 12

C. Stalled

Question 13

In what flight condition torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack
B. High airspeed, high power, high angle of barrack
C. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack

Answer 13

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack

Question 14

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left
B. Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90 degrees in advance of the point the force was applied
C. Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise

Answer 14

A. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left

Question 15

What force makes an airplane turn?

A. Stalled
B. Turns
C. Climbs

Answer 15

B. Turn

Question 16

During an approach to stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

A. Stall at a higher airspeed
B. Have a tendency to spin
C. Be more difficult to control

Answer 16

A. Stall at a higher airspeed

Question 17

Which V-Speed represents maneuvering speed?

A. Vne
B. VLO
C. Va

Answer 17

C. Va

Question 18

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

A. Speed of the airplane
B. Position of the CG
C. Abruptness at which the load is applied

Answer 18

A. Speed of the airplane

Question 19

In reference to the fuselage, what is the structure called when the skin carries all of the flight loads and there is little or no framework

A. Monocoque
B. Semi-monocoque
C. Open truss

Answer 19

A. Monocoque

Question 20

True or False

The empennage typically consists of the rudder, elevator, and ailerons

Answer 20

Case

Question 21

A one-piece horizontal stabilizer called an

A. Elevator
B. Flap
C. Stabilator

Answer 21

C. Stabilator

Question 22

True or False

Most of the pertinent information about a particular make and model of airplane can be found in the pilots operation handbook

Answer 22

True

Question 23

What is the proper sequence in the operation of a four stroke reciprocating engine

A. Intake, power, compression, exhaust
B. Compression, intake, power, exhaust
C. Intake, compression, power, exhaust

Answer 23

C. Intake, compression, power, exhaust

Question 24

The first indication of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller is

A. A loss of RPM
B. An increase in RPM
C. No change in RPM

Answer 24

A. A loss of RPM

Question 25

What would be considered an advantage of the fuel injection system A. Increased horsepower B. Lower operating temperatures C. Both A & B above

Answer 25

C. Both A & B above

Question 26

The self-constrained, engine-driven until that supplies electrical current to the spark plug is known as the A. Magneto B. Generator C. Alternator

Answer 26

A. Magneto

Question 27

True or False Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinders combustion chamber

Answer 27

True

Question 28

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank dumps and a fuel strained quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the A. Fuel strainer drain B. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps C. Lowest point in the fuel system

Answer 28

B. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

Question 29

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by A. The oil level being too low B. Operating with a too high viscosity oil C. Operating with an excessively rich mixture

Answer 29

A. The oil level being too low

Question 30

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will A. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. B. Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans C. Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat

Answer 30

A. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Question 31

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to A. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM B. Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings C. Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure

Answer 31

A. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM

Question 32

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? A. 59 degrees C and 1013.2 millibars B. 15 degrees C and 29.92 inches Hg C. 59 degrees F and 29.92 millibars

Answer 32

B. 15 degrees C and 29.92 inches Hg

Question 33

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators A. Never-exceed speed B. Never-exceed speed C. Maneuvering speed

Answer 33

C. Maneuvering speed

Question 34

What is density altitude? A. The height above the standard datum plane B. The altitude read directly from the altimeter C. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Answer 34

C. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Question 35

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate A. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level B. The actual altitude above sea level C. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

Answer 35

A. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

Question 36

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? A. Vertical speed B. Airspeed C. Altimeter

Answer 36

B. Airspeed

Question 37

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the A. Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass B. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force C. Difference in the location between true and magnetic north

Answer 37

B. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

Question 38

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if A. A tight turn is entered from a north heading. B. An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading C. A left turn is entered from a north heading

Answer 38

A. A tight turn is entered from a north heading.

Question 39

While flying at night, you observe a steady red and flashing red light ahead of your aircraft. Based on this light configuration, what is the other aircrafts direction of movement A. Flying toward you B. Crossing from right to left C. Crossing from left to right

Answer 39

B. Crossing from right to left

Question 40

True or False During night flightC the most effective method of looking for other aircraft is to scan small sectors slowly and to use off center viewing

Answer 40

True

Question 41

To adapt your eyes to night flying, what is the minimum time you should avoid bright light before starting your flight? A. 30 minutes B. 45 minutes C. One hour

Answer 41

A. 30 minutes

Question 42

What is the term used to describe the illusion of rotating in a different plane after moving the head during a constant rate turn A. Coriolis illusion B. Graveyard spiral C. Somatigravic illusion

Answer 42

A. Coriolis illusion

Question 43

The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen

Answer 43

Histotoxic Hypoxia

Question 44

The inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen to the cells due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer 44

Hypemic Hypoxia

Question 45

A decrease of available oxygen molecules at sufficient pressure due to altitude

Answer 45

Hypoxic hypoxia

Question 46

Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate circulation of the blood

Answer 46

Stagnant hypoxia

Question 47

Between what cabin pressure altitudes is the flight crew required to use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes A. 8,000 and 10,500 feet MSL B. 10,000 and 12,000 feet MSL C. 12,500 and 14,000 feet MSL

Answer 47

C. 12,400 and 14,000 feet MSL

Question 48

True or False Hyperventilation is rapid or deep breathing that can be caused by emotional tension, anxiety, or fear

Answer 48

True

Question 49

During which phases of flight do most general aviation accidents occur A. Climb and cruise B. Maneuvering and descent C. Takeoff/initial climb and landing

Answer 49

C. Takeoff/initial climb and landing

Question 50

You feel that it is a silly requirement to preflight an aircraft which you have just flown

Answer 50

Anti-Authority

Question 51

You just want to get underway quickly

Answer 51

Impulsivity

Question 52

You have skipped preflight before and you have never had a problem

Answer 52

Invulnerability

Question 53

You fee that a pilot with your skill level can handle anything during the flight that might have been overlooked on the ground

Answer 53

Macho

Question 54

Since you pay for their services, you feel it is the responsibility of the FBO personnel to ensure the airplane was fueled correctly

Answer 54

Resignation

Question 55

True or False CFIR affecting only IFR operations and does not present a risk of operating in VFR conditions

Answer 55

False

Question 56

What is an action that you can take to maintain situational awareness during ground operations? A. Perform your departure briefing during race to be prepared when you arrive at the takeoff runway. B. No matter what your position is on the airport, stop immediately to communicate with ATC if you become disoriented C. Always know your airplanes present location and mentally calculate the next location in the route that requires increased attention

Answer 56

C. Always know your airplanes present location and mentally calculate the next location in the route that requires increased attention

Question 57

Which action can help you maintain situational awareness during flight? A. Apply SRM skills and follow standard operating procedures B. Hand-fly the airplane at all times to maintain stick and rudder skills C. Eliminate all communication with a copilot or passengers during every operation except cruise flight.

Answer 57

A. Apply SRM skills and follow standard operating procedures

Question 58

With respect to the certification of Airmen, which is a category of aircraft? A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air C. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

Answer 58

B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

Question 59

True or False The rudder is located on the horizontal stabilizer

Answer 59

False

Question 60

On the trailing edge of one or more control surfaces, there is a mechanism used to help minimize your workload. This device is known as the A. Strut B. Trim tab C. Disc plate

Answer 60

B. Trim tab

Question 61

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as A. Combustion B. Pre-ignition C. Detonation

Answer 61

B. Preignition

Question 62

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? A. Vertical speed B. Airspeed C. Altimeter

Answer 62

B. Airspeed

Question 63

True or False If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere on a heading of eat, your compass indicate a turn to the south

Answer 63

False

Question 64

What condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? A. In a steep diving spiral B. Partially stalled with one wing low C. Stalled

Answer 64

C. Stalled

Question 65

Roll movement

Answer 65

Ailerons

Question 66

Pitch movement

Answer 66

Elevator

Question 67

Yaw movement

Answer 67

Rudder

Question 68

True or False Maneuvering speed increases with a decrease in weight

Answer 68

False

Question 69

What force makes an airplane turn? A. The horizontal component of lift B. The vertical component of lift C. Centrifugal force

Answer 69

A. The horizontal component of lift

Question 70

Select the true statement regarding collision avoidance A. Operating at an airport with a control tower relieves you of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course C. Studies show that the majority of midair collisions occur during daylight hours, in IFR conditions, and within five miles of an airport.

Answer 70

B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

Question 71

1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

Answer 71

Congested areas

Question 72

500 feet above the surface

Answer 72

Uncontested areas

Question 73

Within 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

Answer 73

Sparsely populated or open water areas

Question 74

True or False Airports with control towers are magenta on sectional charts

Answer 74

False

Question 75

What is the lowest altitude you are allowed to fly over a national park or wildlife refuge 1,000 feet AGL 2,000 feet AGL 3,000 feet AGL

Answer 75

2,000 feet

Question 76

The scale on a sectional chat is A. 1:250,000 B. 1:1,000,000 C. 1:500,000

Answer 76

C. 1:500,000

Question 77

True or False You must obtain a clearance prior to operating within a 30 nautical mile radius from the primary airport in Class B airspace

Answer 77

Try

Question 78

Select the statement regarding transponder operation A. To enter Class D airspace, you are required to have a Mode C transponder B. You are required to have a Mode C transponder from 2,500 feet AGL up to and including 10,000 feet MSL C. The FARs require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

Answer 78

C. The FARs require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

Question 79

True or False If your radio is inoperative, you should squawk code 7500 on your transponder

Answer 79

False

Question 80

You are on a heading of north and receive the following traffic advisory from departure control: traffic at ten o'clock, three miles, eastbound." Where should you look for this traffic? A. Off the right wingtip B. Ahead of the left wingtip C. Slightly left of the nose

Answer 80

B. Ahead of the left wingtip

Question 81

121.5

Answer 81

Emergency Frequency

Question 82

122.9

Answer 82

Multicom

Question 83

122.8

Answer 83

Unicom

Question 84

True or False If ATC gives you a clearance that compromises your safety or would cause you to violate a regulation, you should comply with it

Answer 84

False

Question 85

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject matter? A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

Answer 85

A. 60

Question 86

Excessively high engine temperature will A. Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine B. Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fans C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

Answer 86

C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

Question 87

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for A. Uniform heat distribution B. Improved engine performance C. Balanced cylinder head pressure

Answer 87

B. Improved engine performance

Question 88

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven fuel pump used? A. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails B. Constantly expect in starting the engine C. All the time to aid the engine-driven

Answer 88

A. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails

Question 89

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to A. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreases air density B. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air C. Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density

Answer 89

A. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreases air density