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Private Ground School > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The four forces on an airplane in flight are

A. Lift, weight, gravity, and thrust
B. Lift, gravity, power, and friction
C. Lift, weight, thrust, and drag

A

C. Lift, weight, thrust, and drag

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2
Q

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium

A. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground
B. During unaccelerated flight
C. When the aircraft is accelerating

A

B. During unaccelerated flight

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3
Q

The term ‘angle of attack’ is defined as the angle

A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing
B. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind
C. Between the airplanes climb angle and the horizon

A

B. Between the wing chord line and the relative wind

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4
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A. Remain the same regardless of gross weight
B. Increase if the CG is moved forward
C. Change with an increase in gross weight.

A

A. Remain the same regardless of gross weight

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5
Q

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A. To decrease wing area to vary the lift
B. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls
C. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed

A

C. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed

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6
Q

What is ground effect?

A. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.
B. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane
C. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.

A

B. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

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7
Q

An airplane said to be inherently stable will

A. Require less effort to control
B. Not spin
C. Be difficult to stall.

A

A. Require less effort to control

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

A. To control roll
B. To control yaw
C. To control over banking tendency

A

B. To control yaw

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9
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
B. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag
C. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab

A

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

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10
Q

Landing an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

A. Less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds
B. Less stable at all speeds
C. Less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds

A

B. Less stable at all speeds

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11
Q

What causes an airplane (except T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted

A. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
C. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced

A

B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

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12
Q

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

A. In a steep diving spiral
B. Partially stalled with one wing low
C. Stalled

A

C. Stalled

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13
Q

In what flight condition torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack
B. High airspeed, high power, high angle of barrack
C. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack

A

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack

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14
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left
B. Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90 degrees in advance of the point the force was applied
C. Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise

A

A. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left

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15
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A. Stalled
B. Turns
C. Climbs

A

B. Turn

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16
Q

During an approach to stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

A. Stall at a higher airspeed
B. Have a tendency to spin
C. Be more difficult to control

A

A. Stall at a higher airspeed

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17
Q

Which V-Speed represents maneuvering speed?

A. Vne
B. VLO
C. Va

A

C. Va

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18
Q

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

A. Speed of the airplane
B. Position of the CG
C. Abruptness at which the load is applied

A

A. Speed of the airplane

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19
Q

In reference to the fuselage, what is the structure called when the skin carries all of the flight loads and there is little or no framework

A. Monocoque
B. Semi-monocoque
C. Open truss

A

A. Monocoque

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20
Q

True or False

The empennage typically consists of the rudder, elevator, and ailerons

A

Case

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21
Q

A one-piece horizontal stabilizer called an

A. Elevator
B. Flap
C. Stabilator

A

C. Stabilator

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22
Q

True or False

Most of the pertinent information about a particular make and model of airplane can be found in the pilots operation handbook

A

True

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23
Q

What is the proper sequence in the operation of a four stroke reciprocating engine

A. Intake, power, compression, exhaust
B. Compression, intake, power, exhaust
C. Intake, compression, power, exhaust

A

C. Intake, compression, power, exhaust

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24
Q

The first indication of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller is

A. A loss of RPM
B. An increase in RPM
C. No change in RPM

A

A. A loss of RPM

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25
Q

What would be considered an advantage of the fuel injection system

A. Increased horsepower
B. Lower operating temperatures
C. Both A & B above

A

C. Both A & B above

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26
Q

The self-constrained, engine-driven until that supplies electrical current to the spark plug is known as the

A. Magneto
B. Generator
C. Alternator

A

A. Magneto

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27
Q

True or False

Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinders combustion chamber

A

True

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28
Q

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank dumps and a fuel strained quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A. Fuel strainer drain
B. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
C. Lowest point in the fuel system

A

B. Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

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29
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A. The oil level being too low
B. Operating with a too high viscosity oil
C. Operating with an excessively rich mixture

A

A. The oil level being too low

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30
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

A. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
B. Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans
C. Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat

A

A. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

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31
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

A. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM
B. Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings
C. Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure

A

A. Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM

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32
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A. 59 degrees C and 1013.2 millibars
B. 15 degrees C and 29.92 inches Hg
C. 59 degrees F and 29.92 millibars

A

B. 15 degrees C and 29.92 inches Hg

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33
Q

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators

A. Never-exceed speed
B. Never-exceed speed
C. Maneuvering speed

A

C. Maneuvering speed

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34
Q

What is density altitude?

A. The height above the standard datum plane
B. The altitude read directly from the altimeter
C. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

A

C. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

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35
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level
B. The actual altitude above sea level
C. Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

A

A. Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

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36
Q

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

A. Vertical speed
B. Airspeed
C. Altimeter

A

B. Airspeed

37
Q

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

A. Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass
B. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force
C. Difference in the location between true and magnetic north

A

B. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

38
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

A. A tight turn is entered from a north heading.
B. An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading
C. A left turn is entered from a north heading

A

A. A tight turn is entered from a north heading.

39
Q

While flying at night, you observe a steady red and flashing red light ahead of your aircraft. Based on this light configuration, what is the other aircrafts direction of movement

A. Flying toward you
B. Crossing from right to left
C. Crossing from left to right

A

B. Crossing from right to left

40
Q

True or False

During night flightC the most effective method of looking for other aircraft is to scan small sectors slowly and to use off center viewing

A

True

41
Q

To adapt your eyes to night flying, what is the minimum time you should avoid bright light before starting your flight?

A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. One hour

A

A. 30 minutes

42
Q

What is the term used to describe the illusion of rotating in a different plane after moving the head during a constant rate turn

A. Coriolis illusion
B. Graveyard spiral
C. Somatigravic illusion

A

A. Coriolis illusion

43
Q

The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen

A

Histotoxic Hypoxia

44
Q

The inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen to the cells due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Hypemic Hypoxia

45
Q

A decrease of available oxygen molecules at sufficient pressure due to altitude

A

Hypoxic hypoxia

46
Q

Oxygen deficiency due to inadequate circulation of the blood

A

Stagnant hypoxia

47
Q

Between what cabin pressure altitudes is the flight crew required to use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes

A. 8,000 and 10,500 feet MSL
B. 10,000 and 12,000 feet MSL
C. 12,500 and 14,000 feet MSL

A

C. 12,400 and 14,000 feet MSL

48
Q

True or False

Hyperventilation is rapid or deep breathing that can be caused by emotional tension, anxiety, or fear

A

True

49
Q

During which phases of flight do most general aviation accidents occur

A. Climb and cruise
B. Maneuvering and descent
C. Takeoff/initial climb and landing

A

C. Takeoff/initial climb and landing

50
Q

You feel that it is a silly requirement to preflight an aircraft which you have just flown

A

Anti-Authority

51
Q

You just want to get underway quickly

A

Impulsivity

52
Q

You have skipped preflight before and you have never had a problem

A

Invulnerability

53
Q

You fee that a pilot with your skill level can handle anything during the flight that might have been overlooked on the ground

A

Macho

54
Q

Since you pay for their services, you feel it is the responsibility of the FBO personnel to ensure the airplane was fueled correctly

A

Resignation

55
Q

True or False

CFIR affecting only IFR operations and does not present a risk of operating in VFR conditions

A

False

56
Q

What is an action that you can take to maintain situational awareness during ground operations?

A. Perform your departure briefing during race to be prepared when you arrive at the takeoff runway.
B. No matter what your position is on the airport, stop immediately to communicate with ATC if you become disoriented
C. Always know your airplanes present location and mentally calculate the next location in the route that requires increased attention

A

C. Always know your airplanes present location and mentally calculate the next location in the route that requires increased attention

57
Q

Which action can help you maintain situational awareness during flight?

A. Apply SRM skills and follow standard operating procedures
B. Hand-fly the airplane at all times to maintain stick and rudder skills
C. Eliminate all communication with a copilot or passengers during every operation except cruise flight.

A

A. Apply SRM skills and follow standard operating procedures

58
Q

With respect to the certification of Airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

A. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
C. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

A

B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

59
Q

True or False

The rudder is located on the horizontal stabilizer

A

False

60
Q

On the trailing edge of one or more control surfaces, there is a mechanism used to help minimize your workload. This device is known as the

A. Strut
B. Trim tab
C. Disc plate

A

B. Trim tab

61
Q

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

A. Combustion
B. Pre-ignition
C. Detonation

A

B. Preignition

62
Q

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

A. Vertical speed
B. Airspeed
C. Altimeter

A

B. Airspeed

63
Q

True or False

If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere on a heading of eat, your compass indicate a turn to the south

A

False

64
Q

What condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

A. In a steep diving spiral
B. Partially stalled with one wing low
C. Stalled

A

C. Stalled

65
Q

Roll movement

A

Ailerons

66
Q

Pitch movement

A

Elevator

67
Q

Yaw movement

A

Rudder

68
Q

True or False

Maneuvering speed increases with a decrease in weight

A

False

69
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A. The horizontal component of lift
B. The vertical component of lift
C. Centrifugal force

A

A. The horizontal component of lift

70
Q

Select the true statement regarding collision avoidance

A. Operating at an airport with a control tower relieves you of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic
B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course
C. Studies show that the majority of midair collisions occur during daylight hours, in IFR conditions, and within five miles of an airport.

A

B. If there is no apparent relative motion between another aircraft and yours, you are probably on a collision course

71
Q

1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

A

Congested areas

72
Q

500 feet above the surface

A

Uncontested areas

73
Q

Within 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

A

Sparsely populated or open water areas

74
Q

True or False

Airports with control towers are magenta on sectional charts

A

False

75
Q

What is the lowest altitude you are allowed to fly over a national park or wildlife refuge

1,000 feet AGL
2,000 feet AGL
3,000 feet AGL

A

2,000 feet

76
Q

The scale on a sectional chat is

A. 1:250,000
B. 1:1,000,000
C. 1:500,000

A

C. 1:500,000

77
Q

True or False

You must obtain a clearance prior to operating within a 30 nautical mile radius from the primary airport in Class B airspace

A

Try

78
Q

Select the statement regarding transponder operation

A. To enter Class D airspace, you are required to have a Mode C transponder
B. You are required to have a Mode C transponder from 2,500 feet AGL up to and including 10,000 feet MSL
C. The FARs require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

A

C. The FARs require that you have an operating Mode C transponder in Class B airspace and within 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport

79
Q

True or False

If your radio is inoperative, you should squawk code 7500 on your transponder

A

False

80
Q

You are on a heading of north and receive the following traffic advisory from departure control: traffic at ten o’clock, three miles, eastbound.” Where should you look for this traffic?

A. Off the right wingtip
B. Ahead of the left wingtip
C. Slightly left of the nose

A

B. Ahead of the left wingtip

81
Q

121.5

A

Emergency Frequency

82
Q

122.9

A

Multicom

83
Q

122.8

A

Unicom

84
Q

True or False

If ATC gives you a clearance that compromises your safety or would cause you to violate a regulation, you should comply with it

A

False

85
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject matter?

A. 60
B. 70
C. 90

A

A. 60

86
Q

Excessively high engine temperature will

A. Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine
B. Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fans
C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

A

C. Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

87
Q

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

A. Uniform heat distribution
B. Improved engine performance
C. Balanced cylinder head pressure

A

B. Improved engine performance

88
Q

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven fuel pump used?

A. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails
B. Constantly expect in starting the engine
C. All the time to aid the engine-driven

A

A. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails

89
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreases air density
B. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air
C. Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density

A

A. Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreases air density

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