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Private Ground School > Exam Three > Flashcards

Exam Three Flashcards

1
Q

What is a line of position?

A. A specific visual checkpoint, such as a road intersection, a bridge over a stream, or a racetrack.
B. A range of possible positions along a specific line, one of which is the actual position of the aircraft.
C. A dead reckoning course that has been corrected for wind drift as well as the effects of magnetic fields.

A

B. A range of possible positions along a specific line, one of which is the actual position of the aircraft.

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2
Q

True/False. The primary advantages of dead reckoning over pilotage is that is provides accurate navigation over areas that have few, if any, visual checkpoints

A

True

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3
Q

FAA Advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

A. Subscribing to the Federal Register
B. Distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
C. Downloading them from the FAS website.

A

C. Downloading them from the FAA website.

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4
Q

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication(NTAP)?

A. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMS
B. Current Airport/Facility Directory information and FDC NOTAMs
C. All current NOTAMS only.

A

A. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMS

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5
Q

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

A. Lines of longitude are parallel to the equator.
B. The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England
C. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at eight angles.

A

C. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at eight angles.

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6
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data
B. NOTAMS
C. Airport Facility Directory

A

C. Airport Facility Directory

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7
Q

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include

A. 14,500 feet MSL
B. 18,000 feet MSL
C. 10,000 feet MSL

A

B. 18,000 feet MSL

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8
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

A. 90
B. 70
C. 60

A

B. 70

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9
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

A. 90
B. 60
C. 70

A

B. 60

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10
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?

A. 90
B. 70
C. 60

A

A. 90

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11
Q

When NOTAMS are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are

A. Canceled and are no longer valid.
B. Still a part of standard weather briefing.
C. Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot request published NOTAMs

A

C. Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot request published NOTAMs

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12
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace.

A. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 209)-code transponder.
B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 209)-code transponder. And an encoding altimeter
C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 209)-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and anCOENor TACAN receiver

A

B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 209)-code transponder. And an encoding altimeter

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13
Q

Pilots flying over national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

A. 2,000 feet AGL
B. 1,000 feet AGL
C. 3,000 feet AGL

A

A. 2,000 feet AGL

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14
Q

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
A. 25 miles
B. 10 miles
C. 20 miles

A

B. 10 miles

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15
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder
C. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME

A

A. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

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16
Q

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA
B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

A

C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

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17
Q

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A. Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
B. Received prior authorization from the controlling agency
C. Filed a IFE flight plan

A

B. Received prior authorization from the controlling agency

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18
Q

What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

A. It has no effect on performance
B. It increases performance.
C. It decreases performance

A

C. It decreases performance

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19
Q

If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots shod expect a faster.

A. Airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll.
B. Ground speed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.
C. Ground speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

A

C. Ground speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

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20
Q

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificates gross weight. If fuel is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

A. 18.4 gallons
B. 15.7 gallons
C. 16.2 gallons

A

A. 18.4

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21
Q

Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

A. Only the airframe, power plant, and optional equipment.
B. Usable fuel and undesirable oil.
C. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity

A

B. Usable fuel and undesirable oil.

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22
Q

Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

A. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
B. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude
C. Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude

A

B. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude

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23
Q

A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

A. Takeoff to the west because the headwind will give the extra climb-our time needed
B. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.
C. Try and takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate

A

B. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

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24
Q

If the outside temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

A. Equal to pressure altitude
B. Lower than pressure altitude
C. Higher than pressure altitude

A

C. Higher than pressure altitude

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25
Q

You have planned a cross-country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSK. Which of the following is the correct action to take?

A. Continue as planned because mountain thermals will assist your climb.
B. Continue as planned since density altitude is only a factor for takeoff
C. Replay your journey to avoid the mountain pass

A

C. Replay your journey to avoid the mountain pass

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26
Q

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

A. It increases takeoff performance
B. It reduces climb performance
C. It increases engine performance.

A

B. It reduces climb performance

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27
Q

What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

A. Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
B. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
C. Efficiency is reduced due to the increases force of the propeller in the thinner air.

A

B. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

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28
Q

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

A. A decrease in relative humidity
B. An increase in ambient temperature.
C. An increase in barometric pressure

A

B. An increase in ambient temperature.

29
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A. 59F and 29.92 millibars
B. 59F and 1013.2 millibars
C. 15C and 29.92 Hg

A

C. 15C and 29.92 Hg

30
Q

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using VIR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

A. 0 TO or 180 FROM, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT
B. 180 TO or 0 FROM, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT
C 180 FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOR

A

B. 180 TO or 0 FROM, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT

31
Q

What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?

A. +6
B. +5
C. +4

A

A. +6

32
Q

Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?

A. Aeronautical Information Manual
B. Airport facility directory
C. Section Charts

A

B. Airport facility directory

33
Q

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three/dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 5

A

B. 4

34
Q

What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 4

A

A. 5

35
Q

If Receiver Autonomous Monitoring (RAIN) capability is lost in-flight

A. The pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GOS position
B. GOS position is reliable provided at least 3 GOS satellites are available
C. The pilot may still rely on GOS derived altitude for vertical information

A

A. The pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GOS position

36
Q

The Global Positioning System is

A. Antenna based
B. Ground based
C. Satellite based

A

C. Satellite based

37
Q

How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GOS)?

A. 25
B. 24
C. 22

A

B. 24

38
Q

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?

A. Navigating by GOS must be integrated with other forms of navigation.
B. GOS databases and paper navigation chats are updated at the same time.
C. Advances in technology make it possible to rely completely on GPS units.

A

A. Navigating by GOS must be integrated with other forms of navigation.

39
Q

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

A. Add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle
B. Subtract easterly variation and eight wind correction angle
C. Subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle

A

A. Add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle

40
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A. Mechanic
B. Owner or operator
C. Pilot in command

A

B. Owner or operator

41
Q

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

A. The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.
B. The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
C. The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest GSS when the aircraft contact the tower for landing.

A

B. The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing

42
Q

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots.

A. 14.50 NM
B. 15.00 NM
C. 14.25 NM

A

C. 14.25 NM

43
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?

A. The owner or operator
B. The certificates mechanic who performed the annual inspection
C. The pilot in command

A

C. The pilot in command

44
Q

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high-wing airplane?

A. Quartering headwind
B. Direct crosswind
C. Quartering tailwind

A

C. Quartering tailwind

45
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of slower failure after becoming airborne is to

A. Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed
B. Determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing
C. Quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion

A

A. Immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

46
Q

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering aircraft.

A. Aircraft power, pitch, bank, trim.
B. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descends
C. Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing

A

B. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descends

47
Q

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a ground speed of 98 knots?

A. 3.35 NM
B. 2.45 NM
C. 4.08 NM

A

C. 4.08 NM

48
Q

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

A. Magnetic variation
B. Magnetic deviation
C. Compass acceleration error

A

A. Magnetic variation

49
Q

VFR approached to land at night should be accomplished

A. With a steeper descent
B. The same as during daytime
C. At a higher airspeed

A

B. The same as during daytime

50
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A. Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
B. Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.
C. Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

A

C. Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

51
Q

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
B. Ailerons neural
C. Aileron down on the side from which the wind in blowing

A

A. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

52
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A. Aileron down on the downwind side
B. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
C. Ailerons neutral

A

B. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

53
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

A. Constant altitude and airspeed
B. Level flight altitudes
C. Constant angle of attack

A

B. Level flight attitude

54
Q

If true heading of 135 results in a ground track of 130 and a true airspeed of 135 knots result in a ground speed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

A. 019 and 12 knots
B. 200 and 13 knots
C. 246 and 13 knots

A

C. 246 and 13 knots

55
Q

To minimize the side of loads placed in the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

A. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of it motion
B. Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift
C. Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.

A

A. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of it motion

56
Q

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

A. Increase the chances of shock cooling the engine
B. Assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare
C. Nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot

A

C. Nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot

57
Q

Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?

A. Increase cabin air flow
B. Promptly descend altitude
C. Avoid sudden inhalations

A

B. Promptly descend altitude

58
Q

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

A. Making a rational judgement
B. Recognizing hazardous thoughts
C. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation

A

B. Recognizing hazardous thoughts

59
Q

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A. Getting behind the aircraft
B. Continual flight into instrument conditions
C. Duck-under syndrome

A

B. Continual flight into instrument conditions

60
Q

Which is not a type of hypoxia?

A. Hypertonic
B. Hypoxia
C. Historoxic

A

A. Hypertonic

61
Q

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A. Eyes are moved in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
B. They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
C. Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

A

C. Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

62
Q

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

A. Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
B. Shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
C. Leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft

A

A. Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs

63
Q

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

A. Mechanical malfunction
B. Structural failure
C. Human error

A

C. Human error

64
Q

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which feature to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

A. Situational awareness, problem recognition and good judgement
B. Application of stress management and risk element procedures
C. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

A

A. Situational awareness, problem recognition and good judgement

65
Q

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
B. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
C. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed

A

B. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

66
Q

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

A. Altitude decreases
B. Air pressure increases
C. Altitude increases

A

C. Altitude increases

67
Q

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A. Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
B. They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
C. Eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments

A

A. Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude

68
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight.

A. All traffic or terrain features appear to be further away than their actual distance.

A

A. All traffic or terrain features appear to be further away than their actual distance.

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