final exam Flashcards

1
Q

what fractions of bilirubin are increased in hemolytic disorder?

A

unconjugated bilirubin

total bilirubin

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2
Q

which fraction might be expected to be inreased in a hepatic disorder?

A

conjugated bilirubin

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3
Q

in severe hemolytic jaundice, what would be the expected results for bilirubin and urobilinogen in the blood, feces and urine?

A

urine: greatly increased urobilinogen
feces: increased urobilinogen
blood: increased unconjugated bilirubin

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4
Q

where and fromw hat substance is urobilinogen formed?

A

bilirubin in intestines

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5
Q

what is another name for prehepatic jaundice?

A

hemolytic

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6
Q

what is another name for posthepatic jaundice?

A

obstructive

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7
Q

another name for indirect bilirubin is?

A

unconjugated

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8
Q

what is another name for direct bilirubin?

A

conjugated

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9
Q

what is the normal range for total serum bilirubin?

A

0.2-1.0 mg/dl

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10
Q

what is the normal range for direct bilirubin?

A

0.0-02 mg/dl

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11
Q

indirect bilirubin is converted to direct bilirubin by conjugation with _____ by the _____

A

glucoronic acid

liver cells

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12
Q

in what condition is conjugated bilirubin increased?

A

biliary obstruction

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13
Q

in the jendrassik-Grof method for bilirubin determination, bilirubin reacts with what reagent to form the purple compound azobilirubin?

A

diazetised sulfunilic acid

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14
Q

in the Jendrassik-Grof method what reagent is used to dissolve free bilirubin?

A

caffeine

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15
Q

in the Evelyn-Malloy method for bilirubin, quantitation of the bilirubin is made by measuring _____

A

azobilirubin

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16
Q

what reagents are used in the Watson-Schwartz test?

A

erlich’s reagent
chloroform
sodium acetate
N-Butanol

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17
Q

how are porphobilinogen and urobilinogen distinguished from each other since both form a colored compound with p-aminobenzaldehyde?

A

prophobilinogen is extracted by the chloroform

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18
Q

in the synthesis of heme, what is the direct precursor of porphobilinogen?

A

DELTA ALA

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19
Q

why is the stool clay-colored in obstructive jaundice?

A

urobilinogen is absent because of blockage

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20
Q

to what compound is free bilirubin in the plasma attached?

A

albumin

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21
Q

what compound is the precursor of uroporphyrin, coproporphyrin, and protoporphyrin

A

porphobilinogen

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22
Q

if you know the total bilirubin and the conjugated bilirubin values, how can you determine the value for the unconjugated bilirubin?

A

total minus conjugated

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23
Q

name the three enzymes involved in heme synthesis that are inhibited by lead.

A

delta ALA synthase
porphobilinogen deaminase
ferrochelatase

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24
Q

what is the composition of Erhlich’s reagent

A

diazotized fulfanilic acid

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25
why is unconjugated bilirubin NOT found in the urine
because it is not water soluble
26
what color is urine which contains large amounts of porphyrins?
port wine or magenta
27
increased bile pigments in the body causes the condition of_____
jaundice
28
in bilirubin methods, total bilirubin develops a color only after the reagent_____ is added
methyl alcohol
29
what is the biochemical defect associated with Gilbert's disease?
defective transportation of bilirubin from liver cells to plasma due to decreased activity of the enzyme gluconyl transferase
30
what is the most common condition leading to porphyrinuria?
lead poisoning
31
what normal substances result in the formation of bilirubin when it is broken down?
hemoglobin
32
what substance is increased in the urine of patients with lead poisoning?
delta ALA
33
why is bilirubin unstable once the specimen has been centrifuged?
light sensitivity
34
what observation is used to determine urinary porphyrins
pyrol ring
35
what specific pigment is possible for the of normal adult feces?
urobilinogen
36
what is indicated by the presence of lactic acid in duodenal contents?
acute/chronic gastritis | stomach carcinoma
37
a sweat chloride is done to check for disorders of what organ?
pancreas (but really cystic fribrosis)
38
what value for sweat chloride is indicative of cystic fibrosis?
60-200 meq/L
39
in what test is an ion-exchange resin used
diegnese blue
40
in what conditions is the gastric acidity low or absent?
gastric carcinoma
41
what is the normal pH of gastric juice after stimulation by a test meal?
1.5-4.0
42
duodenal fluid testing is used to diagnose diseases of the ____
pancreas
43
what substance is used to induce sweating in sweat chloride analysis?
pilocarpine
44
in the sweat test, what should be the NEXT step once the electrodes are removed?
remove gauze and weigh it
45
what is measured by the Diagnex blue test?
gastric juices, | free HCL
46
what organ, besides the intestinal tract, for the Diagnex blue test must be properly functioning?
kidneys | to be filtered and interpreted
47
what is included in the determination of total gastric acidity?
free Hcl combined acidity
48
what is the composition of topfer's reagent
dimethylaminobenzene
49
toxic effects from the ingestion of rat poison can occur due to the presence of ____
chloride
50
ferric ions are used in the detection of which common drug
salicylates (aspirin)
51
what poisons are tested for by the Reinsch test?
arsinic and mercury
52
why should you avoid contact with mercury?
exceedingly toxic and can be absorped through the skin
53
what is the sample of choice for most cases of poisoning?
urine
54
what specimens are preferred in cases of arsenic poisoning?
hair/nails
55
what level of carboxyhemoglobin can be found in cigarette smokers?
5-15 %
56
what is the purpose of the Trindar reaction?
to detect salicylates
57
acetaminophen (tylenol) is particularly toxic to the ____
liver
58
what enzyme is used to determine ethanol levels?
alcohol dehydroganase
59
what is an oncofetal antigen
a protein shown to exist in both fetal tissue and cancer cells
60
which tumor marker is used to detect prostatic cancer?
PSA
61
which tumor marker is used to detect testicular cancer?
AFP | beta-Hcg
62
what color is the blood in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning?
bright cherry red
63
what enzyme is decreased in insecticide poisoning?
pseudocholinesterase
64
name the point-of-care test that is useful in the diagnosis of congestive heart failure
BNP
65
name one cardiac marker that is used int he triage cardiac panel the specimen for which can be collected in the ER by fingerstick
troponin
66
what does AFP stand for?
alphafetoprotein
67
what does CEA stand for?
carcinoembryonic antigen
68
name the metabolites of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
metanephrine normetanephrine VMA homovanilic acid (HVA)
69
in the determination of 17-ketosteroids, what is Zimmerman reagent composed of?
metadinitrobenzene
70
the renal excretion of sodium, which in turn affects serum levels, is controlled by hormones produced where?
adrenal cortex
71
what is the major hormone responsible for water/electrolyte balance?
aldosterone
72
explain laboratory findings, in regards to thyroid hormones and TSH, in hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
hyper- increased thyroid hormones and decreased TSH | hypo- decreased thyroid hormones and increased TSH
73
1-nitroso-2-napthol is use din the analysis of which amine metabolite? what amine is this a metabolite of?
5-HIAA | serotonin
74
where would you find a pheochromocytoma?
adrenal medulla
75
urinary 17-ketosteroids may be elevated in diseases of which endocrine gland?
adrenal gland
76
briefly explain the Pisano method. what is it used to measure?
acid hydrolysis and absorption on an ion-exchange resin is followed by elution with ammonium hydroxide. Resulting compound is converted to vanilin and reacted with periodate. colored product of the reaction is measure spectrophotometrically. with VMA, sodium metaperiodate is used but measruement performed the same as other catecholamines.
77
give a brief description of graves disease
is it an autoimmune disorder that occurs 6x more frequently in women than men. frequency in general population about 0.04% Ab's stimulate thyroid binding to TSH receptors causing diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid lab results indicate: increased T3, T4, FT4I, T3U decreased or normal TSH may have exopthalmia and goiter
78
what is the first and best indicator of hyper- or hypothyroidism
TSH
79
what are the catacholamines?
epinephrine, norepinephrine dopamine
80
which hormones dos the thyroid gland produce?
calcitonin T3 T4
81
what is another name for epinephrine
adrenalin
82
to which amino acid does the thyroid gland bind inorganic iodide from the plasma
tyrosine
83
what is the principle function of the pancreas
production of insulin and glucagon
84
which organ is the major site of steroid metabolism
liver
85
briefly explain addison's disease
underfunction of the adrenal cortex decreased output of aldosterone, epinephrine, and cortisol as well as some supplementary sex hormones it is primary adrenal insufficiency
86
cushing's syndrome is also known as
hyperadrenalcorticalism
87
HCG is produced by the ____ and begins to rise within ____ after conception
placenta | 1-2 days
88
briefly explain the function of vasopressin
stimulates reabsorption of water by the kidney tubules
89
where is the hormone epinephrine produced
adrenal medulla
90
argentaffinomas produced elevated levels of what
serotonin
91
briefly explain the function of oxytocin
site of action = smooth muscle main functions to stimulate contractions of the uterus during delivery and contractions of breast tissue cells to cause milk ejaculation
92
what is the site of action for prolactin
mammary glands
93
in men, 2/3 of all 17-ketosteroids come from the ____ and 1/3 from the ____
adrenals | testes
94
name some conditions other than pregnancy where you may find increased HCG levels
hydatidiform ole choriocarcinoma testicular tumors
95
what foods should be excluded from the diet for at least two days prior to collecting a urine speciemn for 5-HIAA
``` bananas avocados pineapple walnuts tomatoes kiwi eggplant ```
96
how is most plasma thyroxine found
bound to globulin
97
what is the chief hormone excreted by the adrenal cortex?
cortisol
98
the most potent and biologically active estrogen is ____
17-beta-estradiol
99
what is the action of progesterone
preparation of uterus for ovum implantation
100
what is the most potent of the biologically active androgens
testosterone
101
what is the parent substance in the biosynthesis of all adrenal cortical steroids?
cholesterol
102
of the thyroid iodide hormones, which is the most biologically active?
T3
103
what hormones regulates the rate of thyroid hormones synthesis and secretion and where is it produced?
TSH | anterior pituitary
104
briefly explain the negative feedback mechanism in the relationship between cortisol and ACTH
increased cortisol levels cause the hypothalmus and pituitary to decrease production of CRH and ACTH decreased ACTH causes adrenal glands to decrease cortisol production