Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

clinical chemistry > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

which fractions of bilirubin are increased in a hemolytic disorder?

A

unconjugated/indirect

total bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which fraction might be expected to be increased in a hepatic disorder?

A

conjugated/direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what would the expected results be for urobolinogen in the urine?

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what would the expected results be for urobolin in feces?

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what would the expected results be for unconjugated bilirubin in the blood?

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where and from what substance is urobilinogen formed?

A

bilirubin from bacteria in intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

another name for prehepatic jaundice

A

hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

another name for post hepatic bilirubin

A

obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

another name for indirect bilirubin

A

unconjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

another name for direct bilirubin

A

conjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name the normal range for total serum bilirubin

A

0.2-1.0 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

normal range for direct bilirubin?

A

0.0-0.2 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

indirect bilirubin is converted to direct bilirubin by conjugation with _______ by the _______

A

glucuronic acid

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in what conditions is conjugated bilirubin increased?

A

biliary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in the Jendrassik-Grof method what reagent is used to dissolve free bilirubin?

A

caffine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

in the Evelyn-Malloy method for bilirubin, quantitation of the bilirubin is my by measuring what?

A

azobilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what reagents are used in the Watson-Schwartz test?

A

ehrlichs reagent
chloroform
n-butanol
sodium acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are porphobilinogen and urobilinogen distinguished from each other since both form a colored compound with p-aminobenzaldehyde?

A

Extraction with chloroform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why is the stool clay-colored in obstructive jaundice?

A

urobilinogen***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

to what compound is free bilirubin in the plasma attached?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what compound is the precursor of uroporphyrin, coproporphyrin, and protoporphyrin?

A

porphobilinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if you know the total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin values, how can you determine the value for the unconjugated bilirubin?

A

total-conjugated = unconjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name the three enzymes involved in heme synthesis that are inhibited by lead

A

delta ALA synthesis
porphobilinogen deaminase
ferrochelatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the composition of erhlichs reagent?

A

diazotized sulfanic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is unconjugated bilirubin NOT found in the urine?

A

not water soluable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what color is urine which contains large amounts of porphyrins?

A

port wine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

increased bile pigments in the body causes what condition?

A

jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

in bilirubin methods, total bilirubin develops a color only after the reagent ______ is added.

A

methyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the biochemical defect associated with Gilberts disease?

A

defective transport of bilirubin from plasma to liver cells due to reduced activity of the enzyme glucouronyl transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the most common condition leading to porphyrinuria?

A

lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what normal substance results in the formation of bilirubin when it is broken down?

A

hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what substance is increased in the urine of patients with lead poisoning?

A

Delta ALA is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

why is bilirubin unstable on the specimen has been centrifuged?

A

sensitive to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what observation is used to determine urinary porphyrins?

A

red fluourescence in uv light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what specific pigment is possible for the color of normal adult feces?

A

urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is indicated by the prescence of lactic acid in duodenal contents?

A

acute or chornic gastritis

stomach carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a sweat chloride is done to check for disorders of what organ?

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what value for sweat chloride is indicative of cystic fibrosis (CF)?

A

greater than 60-200 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

in what test is an ion-exchange resin used?

A

diagnex blue test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

in what conditions is the gastric acidity low or absent?

A

gastric carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the normal pH of gastric juice after stimulation by a test meal?

A

1.5-4.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

duodenal fluid testing is used to diagnose disease of what organ?

A

pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what substance is sued to induce sweating in sweat chloride analysis?

A

pilocarpine

44
Q

in the sweat test, what should be the NEXT step once the electrodes are removed?

A

remove gauze from arm and weigh it

45
Q

what is measured by the Diagnex Blue test?

A

tubeless test of free HCl in gastric secretions/juices

46
Q

what organ besides the intestinal tract, must be properly functioning to do the Diagnex Blue test?

A

kidney

47
Q

what is included in the determiniation of total gastric acidity?

A

free HCl and combined acidity

48
Q

what is the composition of Topfers reagent?

A

dimethylaminobenzen

49
Q

toxic effects from ingestion of rat poison can occur due to the presence of what?

A

fluoride

50
Q

ferric ions are used in the detection of which common drug?

A

salicylates (asprin)

51
Q

what poisons are tested for by the Reinsch test?

A

arsenic and mercury.

heavy metals but not lead (Pb)

52
Q

why should you avoid contact with mercury?

A

it can be inhaled or obsorbed by the skin and is extremely toxic

53
Q

what is the sample of choice for most cases of poisoning?

A

urine

54
Q

what speicmens are rare in cases of arsenic poisoning?

A

hair

nails

55
Q

what level of carboxyhemoglobin can be found in cigarette smokers?

A

5-15%

56
Q

what is the purpose of the Trindar reaction?

A

detection of salicylates (asprin)

57
Q

acetaminophen is particularly toxic to what organ?

A

liver

58
Q

what enzyme is used to determine ethanol levels?

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

59
Q

what is an oncofetal antigen?

A

a protein shown to exist in both embyo fetal tissues and cancer cells

60
Q

which tumor marker is used to detect prostatic cancer?

A

PSA

61
Q

which tumor marker is used to detect testicular cancer?

A

Beta HCG

AF

62
Q

what color is the blood in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

bright (cherry) red

63
Q

what enzyme is decreased in insecticide poisoning?

A

pseudocholinesterase

64
Q

name the point of care test that is useful in the diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

A

BNP

65
Q

name on cardiac marker that is used in the triage cardiac panel and the specimen for which can be collected in the ER by fingerstick.

A

Troponin

66
Q

what does AFP stand for?

A

alpha-feto protein

67
Q

what does CEA stand for?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen

68
Q

in the determiniation of 17-ketostroids, what is Zimmerman reagent composed of?

A

metadinitrobenzene

69
Q

the renal excretion of sodium, which in turn affects serum levels is controlled by hormones produced where?

A

adrenal cortex

70
Q

what is the major hormone responsible for water and electrolyte balance?

A

aldosterone

71
Q

what are the laboratory findings in regards to thyroid hormones and TSH in hyperthyroidism?

A

increased thyroid hormones

decreased TSH

72
Q

what are the laboratory findings in regards to thyroid hormones and TSH in hypothyroidism?

A

decreased thyroid hormones

increased TSH

73
Q

1-nitroso-2naphthol is used in the analysis of which amine metabolite? what is it made of?

A

5-HIAA

serotonin

74
Q

where would you find a pheochromochytoma?

A

adrenal medulla

75
Q

urinary 17-ketosteroids may be elevated in diseases of which endocrine gland?

A

adrenal gland

76
Q

pisano method

A

acid hydrolysis and absorption on an ion-exchange resin is follwed by elution with ammonium hydroxide.

77
Q

what is the pisano method used to measure?

A

colored reaction is measure spectrophotometrically

78
Q

graves disease

A

autoimmune disorder that occurs 6x more frequently in women that men. causes diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid. increased T3, T4, FT41 and T3U..decreased TSH

79
Q

what is the first and best indicator of hyper-or hypothyroidism?

A

TSH

80
Q

what are cata cholamines?

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine

81
Q

which hormones does they thyroid gland produce?

A

Calcintonin, T3 and T4

82
Q

what is another name for epinephrine?

A

adrenalin

83
Q

to which amino acid does the thyroid gland bind inorganic iodide from the plasma?

A

tyrosine

84
Q

what is the principle function of the pancrease?

A

production of insulin and glucagon

85
Q

which organ is the major site of steroid metabolism?

A

liver

86
Q

addisons disease

A

under function of adrenal cortex, decreased aldosterone, epinephrine and cortisol
primary adrenal insufficiency

87
Q

cushings syndrome is also known as what?

A

hyperadrenalcorticalism

88
Q

HCG is produced by the _____ and begins to rise within _____ days after conception

A

placenta

1-2

89
Q

briefly explain the function of vasopressin

A

stimulates reabsorption of water by the kidney tubules

90
Q

where is the hormone epinephrine produced?

A

adrenal medulla

91
Q

argentaffinomas produced elevated levels of what?

A

serotonin

92
Q

breifly explain the function of oxytocin

A

site of action is muscle

main function to stimulate contractions of uterus during delivery

93
Q

what is the site of action for prolactin?

A

mammary glands

94
Q

in men 2/3 of all 17-ketosteroids come from the ______ and 1/3 from the _____.

A

adrenals

testes

95
Q

name some conditions other than pregnancy where you may find increased HCG levels

A

hydatidform mole
choriocarcinoma
testicular tumors

96
Q

what foods should be exluded from the diet for at least two days prior to collecting a urine specimen for 5-HIAA?

A 
bananas
avocados
pinapple
plums
walnuts
97
Q

how is most plasma thyroxine found?

A

bound to globulin

98
Q

what is the chief hormone excreted by the adrenal cortex?

A

cortisol

99
Q

the most potent and biologically active estrogen is what?

A

17-beta-estradiol

100
Q

what is the action of progesterone?

A

preparation of uterus for ovum implantation

101
Q

what is the most potent of the biologically active androgens?

A

testosterone

102
Q

what is the parent substance in the biosynthesis of all adrenal cortical steroids?

A

cholesterol

103
Q

of the thyroid iodide hormones, which is the most biologically active?

A

T3

104
Q

what hormone regulates the rate of thyroid hormone synthesis and secretion and where is it produced?

A

TSH

anterior pituitary

105
Q

briefly explain the negative feedback mechanism in the relationship between cortisol and ACTH

A

increased cortisol levels cause they hypothalamus and pituitary to decrease production of CRH and ACTH
decreased ACTH causes adreanl glands to decrease cortisol production

clinical chemistry (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions