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Neurophysiology 3 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

True or false; interactions between the brainstem, hypothalamus, thalamus, and basal forebrain determine our states of arousal

A

true

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2
Q

Dampening of the arousal systems with concomitant active inhibition produces what

A

sleep

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3
Q

True or false; the midline brainstem (raphe nuclei), dorsolateral medullary reticular formation, and anterior hypothalamus area are all areas promoting wakefulness

A

false; they are all areas promoting sleep

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4
Q

The oral pontine reticular formation, midbrain central tegmentum, and posterior hypothalamus are all associated with what?

A

areas maintaining wakefulness

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5
Q

The magnocellular nucleus basalis of Meynert has ACH projections that do what?

A

intermingle with both sleep and arousal centers

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6
Q

Pontomesencephalic cells in the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum are associated with what?

A

wakefulness

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7
Q

What kind of projections do pontomesencephalic cells in the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum have (wakefulness)

A

Dopaminergic and Noradrenergic

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8
Q

The oral pontine reticular formation has what kind of projections? What are they associated with?

A

Glutaminergic

Wakefulness

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9
Q

Caudal mesencephalic (cholinergic) and oral pontine reticular formation (glutaminergic) are associated with wakefulness sending ascending projections where?

A

Thalamus

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10
Q

True or false; Caudal mesencephalic (cholinergic) and oral pontine reticular formation (glutaminergic) are associated with wakefulness sending ascending projections to the thalamus communicate with hypothalamus and basal forebrain

A

true

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11
Q

True or false; sleep is divided into stages based on electroencephalograph (EEG) electro-occulogram (EOG) and electromyogram (EMG)

A

true

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12
Q

How many stages are there in Non REM sleep

A

4 (two light and two deep)

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13
Q

Theta and delta low amplitude readings are associated with which stages of sleep?

A

I, II of Non REM (light stages)

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14
Q

High amplitude delta readings are associated with which stages of sleep

A

III, IV of Non REM (deep stages)

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15
Q

EEG resembles awake stage during what stage of sleep

A

REM

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16
Q

Electrical stimulation of nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) produces what?

A

Slow wave sleep

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17
Q

Lesions in serotonin rich raphe nucleus produces

A

insomnia

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18
Q

Paraclorophenylalanine (PCPA) blocks production of serotonin causing what

A

insomnia

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19
Q

True or false; serotonin modulates sleep through its effect on anterior hypothalamus

A

true

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20
Q

True or false; serotonin is a precursor to melatonin

A

true

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21
Q

Where is melatonin synthesized and released?

A

pineal gland (through sympathetic stimulation)

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22
Q

True or false; prolonged bright light exposure increases melatonin levels

A

false; it suppresses melatonin and sleep

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23
Q

True or false; jet lag can be treated with melatonin? Crossing about how many time zones in what directions would cause jet lag

A

true it can

about 6 going East

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24
Q

True or false; pre optic nucleus of anterior hypothalamus stimulates waking areas

A

false; inhibits waking areas 2

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25
Q

True or false; the anterior hypothalamus promotes sleep by inhibiting the posterior hypothalamus

A

true

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26
Q

Prostaglandin D2 is highly concentrated in the pre optic nucleus and induces what?

A

Slow wave sleep (SWS) and REM

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27
Q

Sleep spindles and delta waves are physiologic events involving what kind of neurons

A

GABAergic

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28
Q

rhythmic cortical waveforms generated by oscillatory activity in nucleus reticularis of the thalamus best describes what?

A

sleep spindles

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29
Q

True or false; an increase in GABAergic anterior hypothalamic pre optic and basal forebrain neurons is associated with SWS (slow wave sleep)

A

true

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30
Q

True or false; slow waves (delta) are generated in all cortical areas

A

true

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31
Q

What is somnambulism? When does it happen

A

Sleepwalking

occurs during slow wave sleep (SWS)

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32
Q

True or false; during REM cortical EEG is highly desynchronized (similar to when you’re awake)

A

true

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33
Q

Which stage of sleep is associated with pontine geniculate occipital spikes (PGO)

A

REM

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34
Q

True or false; pontine geniculate occipital spikes (PGO) is associated with rapid eye movements, changes in respiration, heart rate, and muscle twitches

A

true

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35
Q

True or false; REM sleep can be induced by cholinergic stimulation of the pons

A

true

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36
Q

What do REM-ON cells in the pontine reticular formation do?

A

Cause PGO (pontine geniculate occipital spikes)

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37
Q

What do antidepressants do to REM?

A

they are REM suppressors

They increase activity of norepinephrine and/or serotonin

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38
Q

Normally what happens to muscle tone during REM?

A

progressive decrease in muscle tone (hyper polarization of motor neurons)

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39
Q

In regards to muscle tone, what happens during REM behavior disorder

A

Persistant muscle tone during REM

Characterized by bursts of excessive limb and body movements during REM (Cause; unknown-believed to be lesions in pons)

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40
Q

The reduction in body and brain temperature at the onset of sleep is associated with what?

A

vasodilation and a general decrease in metabolism

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41
Q

What job does the suprachiasmatic nucleus have during sleep

A

acts as an endogenous clock influencing both sleep and body temperature

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42
Q

True or false; brain metabolism increases during SWS (slow wave sleep)

A

false; it decreases by 20-35% (decrease in cerebral blood flow)

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43
Q

True or false; sleep onset is associated with inhibition of thyroid stimulating hormone, cortisol, and stimulation of growth hormone and prolactin

A

true

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44
Q

True or false; many immune hormones promote wakefulness (IL-1, Prostaglandin D2, TNF)

A

false; they all have sleep promoting factors

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45
Q

Sleep deprivation can cause what in relationship to weight loss

A

Can greatly inhibit weight loss

Increases cortisol which increases insulin and fat storage

Can contribute to insulin resistance (Low levels of SWS=Low levels of growth hormone)

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46
Q

What effect do the hormones Ghrelin (GI tract) and Leptin (adipose tissue) have?

A

Ghrelin- increase hunger, promotes weight gain

Lepin- decreases drive for food intake, promotes weight loss

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47
Q

What is the inverse relationship between Ghrelin (GI tract) and Leptin (adipose tissue) look like?

A

Ghrelin (gain) Leptin (lose)

Increase sleep: Leptin > Ghrelin
Sleep deprivation: Leptin < Ghrelin

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48
Q

Uncontrolled excessive activity of all or part of the CNS (electrical storm) is characteristic of what?

A

Epilepsy

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49
Q

What is the incidence of epilepsy in US?

A

.5-1% (2nd most common neurological disease)

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50
Q

Causes of epilepsy?

A 
Trauma
Oxygen deprivation
Tumors
Infections
Toxic states 
(1/2 idiopathic)
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51
Q

Grand Mal, Petite Mal, Psychomotor, Jacksonian, Myoclonic Atonic and status epilepticus are all types of what?

A

Types of epileptic seizures

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52
Q

In a grand mal epileptic seizure what are the 4 phases?

A

Aura- tingling prior to seizure

Tonic phase- rigid stiffening of body-loss of consciousness

Tonic-clonic phase- strong muscle contractions and convulsions

Post-ictal phase- return to consciousness - confusion, weakness, slurred speech

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53
Q

Phenobarbital, dilantin, tegratol, and depekene are all drugs used to treat what?

A

Epilepsy

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54
Q

What is a evoked potential (EP)?

A

Sensory evoked potential (EP) is a change in EEG reading after repeated sensory stimulus

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55
Q

A change in EEG resulting from stimulation of a sensory pathway best describes what?

A

Evoked potentials (EP)

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56
Q

What is sensory evoked potentials (EP) useful for in a clinical setting?

A

Assessing the sensory systems and evaluating demyelinating diseases (i.e. MS)

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57
Q

Destruction of myelin would cause what? How is that related to sensory evoked potentials? (EP)

A

It would decrease conduction velocity and increase latencies when using sensory evoked potentials (EP) on a patient

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58
Q

What is kindling?

A

increase in sensitivity of NS (increase neuroexcitability) due to multiple acute withdrawals of a sedative-hypnotic drug (alcohol, benzodiazepines)

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59
Q

What does kindling cause in a patient?

A

intensification of anxiety and other psychological symptoms

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60
Q

True or false; adolescents, females and young adults are most sensitive to the neurological effects of binge drinking (kindling)

A

true

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61
Q

The mechanisms of neurotoxicity and kindling of neurotransmission systems because of alcohol is thought to be what

A

Alcohol’s effect on GABAergic enhancement and NMDA suppression

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62
Q

True or false; alcohol causes kindling because of its effects on GABAergic enhancement and NMDA suppression

A

true

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63
Q

Neural disruptions occurring at biochemical or molecular level affecting personality, goal oriented behavior, emotion, language and creativity best describes what?

A

mental illness

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64
Q

Obcessive compulsive personality and antisocial personality are both examples of what?

A

mild mental illness

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65
Q

Dementias, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major depression, anxiety disorders are all examples of what?

A

severe mental illnesses

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66
Q

What disorder means shattered mind, causing mixture of sings and symptoms of which no single one is necessarily present

A

schizophrenia

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67
Q

What percentage of people worldwide have schizophrenia, early or late onset?

A

1 % full blown (2-3% have schizotypal personality no psychotic behavior)

early onset

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68
Q

What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

distortions/exaggerations of normal thinking

cannot interpret reality
Delusions, hallucinations, bizarre behavior, illogical thinking
excessive mesolimbic activity

69
Q

Perceptions occurring without an external stimulus best describes what?

A

hallucinations

70
Q

Aberrant beliefs not supported by facts and not changed by evidence best describe what?

71
Q

What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

loss or decrease of normal functions
alogoria (poverty of speech or empty content)
flat affect (decrease in ability to express emotion)
anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure)
avolition (inability to persist goal oriented behavior)

Tend to impair persons ability to function daily compared to positive

72
Q

What is more debilitating to a schizophrenic patient negative or positive symptoms

73
Q

true or false; poor attention, deficits in working memory are both examples of cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

74
Q

True or false; the various symptoms of schizophrenia suggest involvement of many cortical and subcortical areas

75
Q

What is the probability monozygotic twins will both be schizophrenic? What about dizygotic twins

76
Q

Exaggerated dopamine activity is related to what mental illness

A

schizophrenia

77
Q

True or false; schizophrenia is associated with increased dopamine receptors, decreased dopamine blockers

78
Q

True or false; L-Dopa cannot cause schizophrenic symptoms

A

false; it can

79
Q

What is affect in relation to mood

A

what can be observed - i.e. euphoria, sadness, pleasure, surprise, etc

80
Q

Unipolar depression what first described when? What were moods thought to be determined by?

A

Hippocratic writings 5th century

depended on balance of four humors (blood, phlegm, yellow bile and black bile)

Too much black bile meant depression

81
Q

pervasive unpleasant mood present most of the day, inability to experience pleasure (anhedonia) generalized loss of interest, and decreased levels of serotonin are characteristics of what

A

unipolar depression

82
Q

What is the incidence of unipolar depression in US

A

5% of population (~8 million)

83
Q

True or false; symptoms of unipolar depression are typically constant throughout the day

A

false; usually worse in morning and follow a diurnal (during day) variation

84
Q

True or false; bipolar and manic depressive are the same disorder

85
Q

What is mania?

A

elevated expansive or irritable mood which lasts at least a week (overactivity, social intrusiveness, increased energy and libido)

86
Q

True or false; bipolar patients have euphoria (manic phases) that last at least a week at a time

87
Q

True or false; depression is not genetic

A

false; strong genetic ties

88
Q

what is the incidence of depression in monozygotic twins

89
Q

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a popular treatment for what?

A

depression

90
Q

MAO inhibitors, tricyclic, serotonin uptake blockers, lithium salts are all examples of drugs used to treat what?

A

depression

91
Q

True or false; electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has around 90% success rate in treating patients with depression

Are there any possible side effects

A

true

possible memory loss- can be severe

92
Q

What do MAO inhibitors do? What is the response rate in patients with depression

A

decrease breakdown of biogenic amines (norepinephrine and serotonin)

70%

93
Q

What are tricyclic compounds? What is the response rate in patients with depression

A

biogenic amine uptake blocker

70% (just like MAO inhibitors)

94
Q

What is an example of a serotonin uptake blocker? How effective is it in treating depression

A

Prozac

85%

95
Q

Lithium salts are effective at terminating what?

A

manic episodes

96
Q

What is transcranial magnetic stimulation? It is a new or old technique

A

use of strong magnets to stimulate different areas of brain

new technique (remember video man treated with asperger’s)

97
Q

True or false; there is a major link between chronic back pain and depression

98
Q

What is the relationship between brain and chronic back pain?

A

can cause brain shrinkage (brain may age up to 20x faster)

99
Q

What is the key feature of anxiety disorders

A

frequent occurrence of symptoms of fear

100
Q

True or false; anxiety is adaptive but excessive anxiety is maladaptive

101
Q

What are panic attacks? How long do they usually last?

A

Brief episodes of terror - overactivity of SNS

lasts 15-30 minutes

102
Q

True or false; panic attacks can be induced by inhalation of O2

A

false; can be by inhalation of CO2 (hyperventilating)

103
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder has what kind of duration? What are some symptoms

A

Long duration >6 months

increased motor tension, increased SNS, exaggerated startle response

104
Q

Stimulation of GABA receptors using valium or librium are characteristic of what mental illness

A

generalized anxiety

105
Q

What is the most common form of dementia

A

alzheimer’s

106
Q

What percentage of the US population older than 65 show mental impairment (dementia)

107
Q

True or false; findings of alzheimer’s disease are very specific when looking at a CT scan or MRI

A

false; they are non specific - some thinning of cortical gyri and enlarged ventricles

108
Q

Is there a genetic component to alzeimer’s?

A

Yes, in certain forms (early onset)

109
Q

Virtually all people with _______ who live past 35 develop alzheimer’s

A

down syndrome

110
Q

Extracellular plaques containing amyloid (variety of proteins that accumulate in extracellular fibrils), neurofibrillary tangles, and neuronal cell loss are all associated with what form of dementia

A

alzheimer’s

111
Q

True or false; decreased somatostatin, NPY, corticotropin, RF, substance P and VIP are all associated with alzheimer’s

112
Q

True or false; nerve growth factor has no effect on alzheimer’s development

A

false; appears to retard the development

113
Q

Cerebral blood flow represents what percentage of resting cardiac output

114
Q

lack of blood flow to brain would result in loss of consciousness in how long?

A

5-10 seconds (stroke)

115
Q

What is the incidence of occlusive vs. hemorrhagic strokes

A

occlusive 75%

hemorrhagic 25%

116
Q

True or false; most substances that must cross BBB are not lipid soluble and use specific carrier mediated systems

117
Q

The brain which uses glucose exclusively receives glucose supply how?

A

by Glut 1 transporter across BBB

118
Q

True or false; BBB is found in all areas of brain

A

false; posterior pituitary, and circumventricular organs (area postrema and median eminence)

119
Q

Is there free exchange between BBB and CSF

120
Q

AA gain access across the BBB via 1 of 3 carrier systems. What are the 3 carrier systems

A 
L system (energy and Na+ independent)
A system (energy and Na+ dependent) 
ACS system (energy and Na+ dependent)
121
Q

Which 2 carrier systems for AA across the BBB are energy and Na+ dependent

A

A system and ACS system (L system is independent of both)

122
Q

The L carrier system for AA across the BBB carriers which 2 AA

A

Leucine and valine

123
Q

What secretes CSF? What is the total volume of CSF? How many times is it turned over per day?

A

Secreted by choroid plexus
Total vol. 150 mL
Turned over 3x per day

124
Q

Communicating with brain ISF, removal of harmful brain metabolites, mechanical cushion, reduction of brain weight are all functions of what?

125
Q

What is neuroimmunomodulation

A

study of secreted immune cell products - actions in CNS and PNS

126
Q

SNS activation has what effect on immune response?

A

decrease-inhibits

127
Q

True or false; thymocytes, B lymphocytes, and macrophages have both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors (SNS)

128
Q

True or false; VIP, NPY, and substance P are controlled by SNS stimulation

A

false; by autonomic nerves

129
Q

How does stress and SNS effect your immune system

A

When you’re stressed the SNS is stimulated which inhibits many immune responses, this is why you’re at greater risk of getting sick when stressed all the time

130
Q

True or false; microglia and astrocytes secrete different types of interlukins and TNF alpha

131
Q

Soluble mediators that are produced by immune cells best describe what?

132
Q

What cytokine is involved in immune cell proliferation, and fever production - produced by macrophages and hypothalamic and hippocampal neurons

133
Q

True or false; physical (trauma, infection, inflammation) and psychologic stressors of brain tissue stimulate cytokine production

134
Q

True or false; prolonged production of IL-1 IL-6 and TNF in brain (glial cells and neurons) can produce fever sleep induction, anorexia (eating disorder - weight)

135
Q

True or false; cortisol up regulates IL-1, IL-2, IL-6

A

false; down regulates them

136
Q

True or false; TNF alpha can suppress thyroid function, contribute to lethargy, and mediates inflammation

137
Q

True or false; neuroendocrine (NE) peptides cannot be produced by immune cells

A

false; immune cells have been shown to produce NE

138
Q

What effect does gonadotropins have on T cells and NK cells

A

decrease their activity

139
Q

True or false; ACTH suppresses macrophage activity

140
Q

What is bidirectional communication?

A

Communication between immune and nervous systems

141
Q

True or false; VIP, NPY, and substance P are all examples of peptides in neuroimmunomodulation

142
Q

True or false; a patient with a spinal cord injury would have increased NK cell, T cell and cellular adhesion molecule function

A

false; they would have decreased

143
Q

What is a possible explanation for why spinal cord injury patients have decreased immune function

A

disrupts outflow of signals from SNS to lymphoid tissues and their blood vessels

144
Q

True or false; chronic stress is associated with immunosuppression (corticosteroids, catacholamines, endorphins)

145
Q

The hypothalamus coordinates the response to stress through the release of what?

A

soluble products from SNS

146
Q

True or false; immune cells can produce neurologically active peptides like ACTH, CRF, GH, thyrotropin, PRL, hCG, substance P, and somatotropin

147
Q

What effect does melatonin administration have on normal mice

A

increased life span

148
Q

Enhancement of immune system, antioxidant, sleep aid, lower cholesterol, little to no toxicity are all effects of what

149
Q

What is neural plasticity

A

remodeling of neuronal pathways

150
Q

What are neurotrophic factors?

A

They are factors secreted by the target tissues of neurons

The target tissue secretes small amounts of neurotrophic factors when stimulated, these factors are vital for the continued survival of neurons

If you stopped using the pathway (i.e. the neurons didn’t receive neurotrophic factors) the subsequent neurons would enter apoptosis

Sensory and SNS neurons require these trophic factors for survival

This is why if you covered a babies eyes and never let them see for the first years of life then took off the blind fold most of the neurons in their sight pathway would have undergone apoptosis (same if you didn’t allow them to speak or hear language)

151
Q

Cell shrinkage, condensation of chromatin, cellular fragmentation, and phagocytosis of cellular remnants are all characteristics of what?

152
Q

What is axotomy?

A

transection of axon

153
Q

True or false; most injuries to Nervous system involve damage to axons

154
Q

glial cells degenerating, postsynatpic neurons atrophy, “synaptic stripping” are all effects of what?

A

axotomy (transection of axon)

155
Q

What has a greater regenerative capacity PNS or CNS

156
Q

True or false; in PNS regeneration re-innervation of glands, blood vessels and viscera, and re-innervation of muscle spindles are all possible

157
Q

True or false; in PNS all 3 divisions (sensory, motor, autonomic) are reversible after injury

158
Q

True or false; in CNS regeneration long distance axon repair is common

A

false; very rare

159
Q

Damage to the nervous system can induce remodeling of neural pathways; this is evidence of what

A

neural plasticity

160
Q

What is amblyopia

A

reduced visual capacity

161
Q

methylprednisone is a antioxidant that is known for what?

A

minimizing damage to nerve trauma

162
Q

What is focal hand dystonia

A

patient is unable to independently control digits of hand (happens when fingers are moving together at a high rate for long period of time) i.e. neurons that fire together WIRE together

163
Q

true or false; synapses increase their electrical activity when adjacent astrocytes stimulate Ca+ waves

164
Q

How do astrocytes communicate among themselves and with neurons

165
Q

true or false; schwann glial cells sprout branches that form bridges after nerve damage guides axons back to injured muscle allowing re-innervation of muscle

166
Q

true or false; thoughts create physical changes in your brain

A

true

This is why you shouldn’t constantly think negative thoughts, or your brain will re-wire itself to go back to these thoughts

If you concentrate on something your brain will re-wire to continue to gain focus

167
Q

True or false; attention exerts real physical effects in brain

168
Q

What does thymectomy (taking out of thymus) have on neonate mice

A

atrophy of anterior pituitary gland

Neurophysiology 3 (3 decks)

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