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Immunology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which two memory cells can be produced efficiently even when no immune cells have been infected by the attacker?

A

Memory B and Memory Helper T

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2
Q

According to our text, what are the 3 types of vaccines?

A

Non-infectious
Attenuated
Carrier

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3
Q

T/F: Non-infectious vaccines do not cause the production of memory killer T cells.

A

True: non-infectious vaccines only make mem B cells and mem T helper cells

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4
Q

In killed (non-infectious) vaccines, how is the virus or bacteria killed?

A

Using chemicals such as formaldehyde

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5
Q

Bacterial toxin vaccines may weaken the toxin with ___, resulting in something called a ___.

A

Aluminum; toxoid

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6
Q

T/F: Non-infectious vaccines are designed to infect the host but only weakly.

A

False: Non-infectious designed NOT to infect the host

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7
Q

A ___ ____ vaccine is one that contains the weakened version of the pathogen.

A

Live attenuated

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8
Q

Live attenuated vaccines result in what types of memory cells?

A

Memory B Cells
Memory helper T cells
Memory killer T cells

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9
Q

T/F: A carrier type of vaccine yields all 3 types of memory cells.

A

True

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10
Q

What is a carrier vaccine?

A

A single gene from a pathogenic microbe is put into a virus that doesn’t cause disease…virus infects host’s APC and will be presented on MHC I

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11
Q

What is the purpose of an adjuvant?

A

Helps stimulate the immune system by attracting phagocytes (but should not have any antigenic effect by itself)

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12
Q

Th1 Helper T cells utilize what 3 classical cytokines?

A

TNF, INF-gamma, IL-2

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13
Q

Th1 helper T cells are useful in viral and ___ attacks whereas Th2 helper T cells are useful in ____ attacks.

A

bacterial; parasitic

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14
Q

What cytokines are released by Th2 helper T cells?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

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15
Q

What vaccine still contains thimerosal as a preservative?

A

Influenza vaccine

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16
Q

Alum generally induces a Th1- or Th2-biased response?

A

Th2

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17
Q

Which interleukin is the main stimulus for microglial activation?

A

IL-1Beta, (which is one of the cytokines produced at the site of aluminum adjuvant injection)

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18
Q

T/F: Aluminum accumulates in the mitochondria and the nucleus of cells.

A

True

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19
Q

How much aluminum is absorbed in the GI tract and what organ is responsible for its excretion?

A

Only 0.3% is absorbed; kidneys

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20
Q

So why’s aluminum a big deal if our kidneys just eliminate it anyway?

A

Vaccines bypass GI tract; 40% of Al accumulates in adults and up to 75% of Al can be retained in neonates

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21
Q

What is the most common environmental source of aluminum?

A

Antacids, (but keep in mind those pass GI tract and should be eliminated fairly successfully)

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22
Q

T/F: There seems to be a correlation, (not necessarily causation), between incr in aluminum adjuvants and an increase in autism spectrum disorder.

A

True

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23
Q

What type of vaccine is the Pneumococcal disease vaccine (Pc vaccine)?

A

Non-infectious

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24
Q

T/F: The meningococcal vaccine, DTaP vaccine, and hepatitis B vaccine are all infectious live vaccines.

A

False: …non-infectious vaccines

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25
Q

If the mom doesn’t have hepatitis B, is it still necessary for her infant to have the shot?

A

No!

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26
Q

The rotavirus vaccine is what type of vaccine?

A

Infectious live vaccine

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27
Q

What type of vaccine is the polio vaccine: infectious, non-infectious, or carrier?

A

Polio=non infectious

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28
Q

The MMR vaccine is a/an ____ type vaccine?

A

Infectious

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29
Q

What are the 4 types of influenza vaccines?

A
  1. Whole virus inactivated
  2. Subunit inactivated
  3. Split virus inactivated
  4. Live attenuated, cold-adapted
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30
Q

T/F: Some influenza vaccines still contain mercury.

A

True

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31
Q

One of the side effects of the flu vaccine is episodes of ___ seizures.

A

Febrile (1/110 kids under 5 y.o. to be exact)

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32
Q

Do glial cells ever help conduct nervous impulses?

A

No

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33
Q

___ are said to be the macrophages of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Microglia

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34
Q

Microglia account for what percent of the glial cells in the brain?

A

20%

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35
Q

What is the most abundant cell of the human brain?

A

Astrocytes

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36
Q

What are 2 regulatory molecules astrocytes give off?

A

Glutamate

Potassium

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37
Q

__ and __ are the preferential sites of aluminum accumulation.

A

Microglia and astrocytes

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38
Q

T/F: Astrocytes limit excitotoxic damage by clearing away excess glycogen.

A

False: …clear away excess glutamate. (Astrocytes store glycogen)

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39
Q

What are the 3 excitotoxins released by hyperactive microglia?

A

Glutamate
Aspartate
Quinolinic acid (QUIN)

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40
Q

T/F: Aluminum has been shown to impair gap junctional communication between astrocytes.

A

True

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41
Q

What is the idea behind herd immunity?

A

If all (80%) of available people were immunized, those that are unable to get immunized, such as babies and elderly, would be protected from the disease

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42
Q

What is the biggest con of natural immunity?

A

Typically must experience the infectious dz to get the immunity

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43
Q

What are the 2 methods of artificial immunization?

A 
Active immunization (administered like vaccine to present antigens)
Passive immunotherapy (breastfeeding transfers antibodies)
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44
Q

What is titer?

A

Effectiveness of active immunization checked by measuring the amt of IgG and IgM in the blood

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45
Q

What is the purpose of a booster immunization?

A

Titer is too low; additional administration of antigens to boost levels of antibodies

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46
Q

___ is the process of reducing virulence.

A

Attenuation

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47
Q

What is the most commonly used adjuvant in human vaccines?

A

Aluminum phosphate

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48
Q

T/F: Aluminum functions in synaptogenesis.

A

False: Al has NO physiological function in the human body

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49
Q

What are combination vaccines?

A

Simultaneous administration of antigens from several pathogens (DTaP, MMR)

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50
Q

T/F: Individuals with egg allergies should avoid some vaccines b/c egg is often used in the culturing process.

A

True

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51
Q

Antitoxins and antivenoms are examples of which type of artificial immunity: active immunization or passive immunotherapy?

A

Passive immunotherapy b/c you’re introducing preformed antibodies allowing for immediate protection

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52
Q

How much of the world’s population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

1/3

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53
Q

Of the people infected with Tb, what percent of those people will have a lifetime risk of developing active Tb?

A

5-10% (so to clarify it’s 5-10% of 33%)

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54
Q

What is unique about the pathology created in a Tb infection?

A

Pathology created due to normal immune system function

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55
Q

What cell engulfs the Tb organism and what goes wrong to cause active infection?

A

Alveolar macrophage (dust cell); Tb modifies cells surface so it cannot fuse with a lysosome, (which would kill the Tb)…allowing Tb to thrive within the macrophage

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56
Q

What happens after the Tb cell has multiplied too many times within the alveolar macrophage?

A

Cell bursts, contents spill, lysozymes released into lung tissue

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57
Q

With whom is sepsis most common and most dangerous?

A

Elderly

Immunocompromised

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58
Q

What is the major cytokine involved in sepsis that leads to decr blood volume and pressure, leading to heart failure?

A

TNF

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59
Q

____ stimulation can decrease macrophage release of TNF.

A

Vagal

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60
Q

What percent of the US population suffers from Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?

A

54%

61
Q

Allergy is associated with what bias: Th1, Th2, Th17?

A

Th2

62
Q

What antibody is associated with allergy?

A

IgE

63
Q

The _ end of IgE binds mast cells and the _ end of IgE binds the allergen, leading to mast cell degranulation.

A

Fc-mast cell

Fab-allergen

64
Q

What 3 things are released in the degranulation of mast cells?

A

Histamine
Proteases
Heparin

65
Q

In order from earliest to latest, who arrives at the scene of ‘an allergy’?

A

Mast cells,
basophils,
eosinophils

66
Q

Which cytokine is released by Th cells at the site of allergies to recruit many eosinophils from the bone marrow?

A

IL-5

67
Q

Why is it advantageous to bias fetus away from Th1 subset to a Th2 subset?

A

To prevent mother’s immune system from recognizing fetus as foreign (considering 1/2 of the fetus genetic material is paternal)

68
Q

What is responsible for shifting a newborn back to Th1 bias?

A

Contact w/ microbes from birth process, air, soil..etc

69
Q

T/F: Children who grow up with dogs are more likely to experience allergies in adulthood.

A

False: less likely to dev. allergies

70
Q

What is the downside of using glucocorticoids to treat allergies?

A

Blocks cytokine production by T helper cells so increases susceptibility to infectious disease overall

71
Q

Regular injection of allergens in order to gain tolerance causes __ cells to class switch from IgE to another antibody class like ___.

A

B cells; IgG

72
Q

T/F: Autoimmune diseases are more common in women.

A

True

73
Q

___ ___ may be responsible for why infections can lead to autoimmune disease.

A

Molecular mimicry

74
Q

What is molecular mimicry?

A

Receptors recognize a group of closely related antigens with varying affinities…so infections makes cells more receptive to potentially self antigens if the match is close enough (this is me attempting to paraphrase)

75
Q

What are self-reactive antibodies targeting in myasthenia gravis?

A

ACh receptors which prevents ACh from binding–> muscle weakness and autonomic dysfunction

76
Q

What disease results from T cells attacking cartilage protein in joints leading to chronic inflammation of the joints?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

77
Q

What type of tolerance is broken down in lupus erythematosis?

A

Both B & T cell tolerance broken down

78
Q

Multiple sclerosis is to CNS like ______ is to the PNS.

A

Guillain-Barre

79
Q

What is transverse myelitis?

A

inflammatory process of the spinal cord that can cause axon demyelination

80
Q

What happens if you have a non-functional CD40 or CD40L?

A

B Cells unable to class switch and secrete mainly IgM

81
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Thymic tissue is missing resulting in NO T cell function

82
Q

__ ___ __ is the genetic condition where neither B or T cells function.

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (SCIDS)

83
Q

What virus causes AIDS?

A

HIV-1 (human immunodeficiency virus 1)

84
Q

What cells are targeted in an AIDS infection?

A

T helper cells

85
Q

Which 2 opportunistic infections are the likely killers of AIDS victims?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

Kaposi sarcoma

86
Q

What are the 2 reasons HIV-1 can defeat the immune system?

A

Slowly replicating retro RNA virus that’s able to go latent for extended periods of time as a means of hiding from CTLS.
High mutation rate

87
Q

What 3 cells become infected by HIV-1?

A
  1. Helper T cells
  2. Macrophages
  3. Dendritic cells
88
Q

There are some people w/ HIV-1 who are able to control the infection for some periods of time; how is their immune system different?

A
  1. Low levels of detectable virus
  2. Quicker innate and adaptive IS
  3. More INF-alpha and INF-beta secreted
  4. CTL’s more vicious killers
89
Q

What is the number 2 cause of death?

A

Cancer (#1 is cardiovascular disease)

90
Q

What is the goal of the 2 systems that help keep cancer in check?

A
  1. Systems that promote normal cell growth

2. Safeguard to prevent uncontrolled cell growth

91
Q

What two areas of the body are constantly being replaced and therefore must be carefully controlled to prevent cancer?

A

Skin cells

Cells of mucous membranes

92
Q

A mutation to which tumor suppressor protein is commonly found in most tumors?

A

Mutation to p53

93
Q

How many mutations are estimated to produce most common cancers?

A

4-7; thus takes some time to accumulate mutations

94
Q

It is estimated that viral infections contribute to ___% of all human cancers.

A

15-20%

95
Q

Which protein is necessary to assemble BCR & TCR and when absent leads to increased risk for developing tumors?

A

RAG-2

96
Q

What are the 3 cells associated with the line of defense against cancer?

A

CTLS, Macrophages, NK cells

97
Q

Which of the following is least effective against cancer: CTLs, macrophages, NK cells?

A

CTLs b/c of their restricted traffic pattern

98
Q

Which of the following is most effective against cancer: CTLs, macrophages, NK cells?

A

NK cells

99
Q

What types of cancerous cells are CTL’s most effective at killing?

A

Cancerous blood cells b/c likely to come in contact if cancer is in the blood

100
Q

What are the 2 benefits of macrophages regarding cancer killing?

A

Quick acting, and located out in tissues so likely to encounter the spontaneous tumors that arise there

101
Q

How do NK cells recognize cancer?

A

Cancer cells express low levels of MHC-I molecules and display unusual surface molecules

102
Q

Hepatitis __ virus has been linked to liver cancer.

A

B

103
Q

HPV-__ and HPV-__ have been implicated in about 70% of all cervical cancer.

A

HPV-16, HPV-18

104
Q

What are the 2 types of HPV associated with genital warts?

A

HPV-6 and HPV-11

105
Q

The Gardasil vaccine is made from viral coat proteins and is classified as a ___ vaccine.

A

recombinant

106
Q

__ is the protein found on the surface of many cancer cells that impairs the IS’s ability to fight the disease.

A

PD-L1 (Programmed death ligand 1)

107
Q

Injecting tumor with bacille Calmette-Guerin can hyperactivate ___ which can destroy tumor.

A

Macrophages

108
Q

Of the 4 types, which hypersensitivity reactions are antibody mediated?

A

Types I, II, III

109
Q

Which antibodies are formed in both Type II and Type III hypersensitivity rxns?

A

IgM and/or IgG

110
Q

Which types of hypersensitivity rxns require prior exposure to the antigen?

A

All 4 types

111
Q

What is Type I hypersensitivity and which antibody dominates the rxn?

A

Allergy or Immediate hypersensitivity (minutes or hours of exposure); IgE

112
Q

Which 2 interleukins cause the class switching to IgE in Type I hypersensitivity rxns?

A

IL-4, IL-13

113
Q

T/F: There is no visible response on the initial exposure to an allergen.

A

True

114
Q

How can IgE antibodies, which are normally short lived, extend their lifetime?

A

Attach to mast cells (half life of several weeks)

115
Q

Upon re-exposure to the antigen, what causes typical allergy symptoms?

A

Degranulation of mast cells releasing histamine, proteases, and prostaglandins

116
Q

What are the cells present at the sight of allergies and what order do they arrive?

A

Mast cells, basophils, eosinophils

117
Q

What cell is the prominent player in chronic allergy reactions?

A

Eosinophils

118
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

Improved hygiene leads to decreased exposure to allergens–>increased allergies later in life

119
Q

What are the 3 means of destruction in Type II hypersensitivity rxns?

A
  1. Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
  2. Complement
  3. Functional derangements
120
Q

Which 2 antibodies are good at fixing complement? Which doesn’t fix it at all?

A

IgM & IgG; IgA doesn’t fix at all!

121
Q

What is functional derangement?

A

Antibodies acting as agonists/antagonists to cell receptors (ex: myasthenia gravis)

122
Q

What is hemolytic anemia resulting from?

A

Ab bind to molecules present on RBC, RBC’s are then phagocytized and lysed

123
Q

What causes rheumatic heart disease?

A

Helper T cells that were primed from a strep throat infection cross react with protein present on the mitral valve of the heart causing an inflammatory attack on the heart.

124
Q

What are Type III hypersensitivities?

A

Antibody-antigen complexes that are normally cleared begin to accumulate, deposit in tissues, and cause inflammation

125
Q

T/F: Two common places for Ab-Ag complexes to deposit are the vascular walls and joints.

A

True

126
Q

Which autoimmune disease affecting mostly women has self Ab-Ag complexes that form and commonly target the lungs, joints, and kidneys?

A

Lupus Erythematosus

127
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of Type IV hypersensitivity rxns?

A 
Delayed type (T helper)
Cell mediated cytotoxicity (T killer)
128
Q

What cell causes most of the damage in delayed-type hypersensitivity rxns: T helpers, T killers, macrophages, NK cells?

A

Macrophages, T helpers only secrete the INF-gamma that brings the macrophages in

129
Q

T/F: Contact dermatitis, Crohn’s Dz, and multiple sclerosis are all examples of Delayed Type IV hypersensitivity rxns.

A

True

130
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity rxn accounts for rejection of organ transplants?

A

Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity; Type IV hypersensitivity

131
Q

Why should we be cautious of studies obtained using isolated cells of the immune system?

A

B/c isolating takes away a lot of the bodies natural chemistry that would be intact in most humans

132
Q

What are PAMP’s?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns; commonly seen on pathogens and can be used by IS to recognize foreign cells

133
Q

__ cells scan MHC I and ___ cells scan MHC II.

A

T killer; T helper

134
Q

T/F: Every cell has both MHC I and MHC II molecules

A

False only APC have MHC II presented

135
Q

Why is the vagus nerve so important to the immune system?

A

Vagus controls systemic release of TNF, a cytokine needed for the innate immune response

136
Q

T/F: Both pre-gang and post-gang sympathetic nerve fibers utilize acetylcholine.

A

False that would be parasympathetic

137
Q

What neurotransmitters does the sympathetic nerves utilize?

A

Pre-gang: ACh

Post-gang: NE

138
Q

Adrenergic alpha receptors cause vaso__ and beta receptors cause vaso__.

A

alpha-vasoconstriction

beta-vasodilation

139
Q

What are the 2 types of acetylcholine receptors?

A

Muscarinic, nicotinic

140
Q

T/F: Muscarinic receptors are found at the post-gang end of cholinergic neurons and they work with G Protein complexes.

A

True

141
Q

Where do you find nicotinic receptors?

A

Synapses between pre-gang and post-gang neurons of both the SympNS and ParasympNS

142
Q

Which type of acetylcholine receptor forms an ion pore: muscarinic or nicotinic?

A

Nicotinic

143
Q

Baroreceptor reflex results in SNS ___.

A

Inhibition

144
Q

Sexual stimulation relies on which autonomic system: Symp, Parasymp, or both?

A

Both

145
Q

A deficiency in __ nerve activity or deficient nicotinic ______ receptors would make one sensitive to inflammatory challenges.

A

Vagal; alpha7-acetylcholine receptors

146
Q

T/F: Most immune cells have nicotinic ACh receptors.

A

True

147
Q

Heart Rate Variability is positively correlated w/ what?

A

Longevity in cancer, better cognitive function in Alzheimer’s (in this case, variability is a good thing)

148
Q

Increased Heart Rate Variability means there is a/an ___ in parasympathetic tone.

A

Increase

Immunology (2 decks)

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