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Spinal Anatomy 2 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Because of its function, the seventh cranial nerve is often called the ___.

A

great motor nerve of the face

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2
Q

What are the names given to the afferent root of the seventh cranial nerve?

A

the nervus intermedius, the nerve of Wrisberg

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3
Q

What classifications of fibers are conveyed at the apparent origin of the seventh cranial nerve?

A

branchial efferent, visceral efferent, somatic afferent, special visceral

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4
Q

What is the name of the location for multipolar branchial efferent neurons of the cranial verve VII?

A

facial motor nucleus

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5
Q

What is the opening through which the seventh cranial nerve exits the cranial vault?

A

internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone

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6
Q

What is the name of the afferent ganglion for the seventh cranial nerve?

A

geniculate ganglion, genicular ganglion

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7
Q

Most of the seventh cranial nerve will exit the skull via what opening?

A

the stylomastoid foramen

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8
Q

Into what region of the head will the stylomastoid foramen open?

A

the partoid region

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9
Q

Branchial efferent fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve will innervate what muscles?

A

muscles of facial expression, muscles of the scalp and auricle, the buccinator, platysma, stapedius, stylohyoid, and the posterior belly of the digastric

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10
Q

What will the parasympathetic efferent pathways of the seventh cranial nerve supply?

A

the lacrimal, submandibular, sublingual, lingual, and mucosal glands

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11
Q

Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of the cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve?

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of facial nerve

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12
Q

Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

greater petrosal or greater superficial petrosal nerve

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13
Q

Which branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic fibers into the pterygopalatine ganglion?

A

vidian nerve or nerve of the pterygoid canal

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14
Q

The continuation of the great petrosal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa by what opening?

A

vidian canal or pterygoid canal of the sphenoid bone

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15
Q

The vidian canal opens into what region of the head?

A

The pteygopalatine region, sphenopalatine region

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16
Q

What are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

pterygopalatine ganglion, sphenipalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion

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17
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the pterygopalatine, sphenopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion will become incorporated in which cranial nerve branch?

A

maxillary nerve of the trigeminal

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18
Q

The maxillary division of the cranial nerve V exits the pterygopalatine region via what opening?

A

the interior orbital fissure

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19
Q

What bones converge to form the inferior orbital fissure?

A

sphenoid, maxillary, palatine, and zygomatic

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20
Q

The parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland will involve branched from which cranial nerve?

A

facial and trigeminal nerves

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21
Q

What immediate branch of the maxillary nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

zygomatic nerve

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22
Q

Which branch of the zygomatic nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

zygomaticotemporal nerve

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23
Q

The zygomaticotemporal nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland through a communication with which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?

A

ophthalmic nerve

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24
Q

Which ophthalmic nerve branch will contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

lacrimal nerve

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25
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ophthalmic nerve will innervate which gland?

A

lacrimal gland

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26
Q

What is the nucleus of origin for the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve for the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

superior salivatory nucleus

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27
Q

Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

chorda tympani nerve

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28
Q

The chord tympani nerve exits the temporal bone via which opening?

A

the petrotympanic fissure of the temporal bone

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29
Q

The chord tympani nerve will join which nerve?

A

the lingual nerve of the mandibular division of the trigeminal

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30
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed to the seventh cranial nerve from what other cranial nerve?

A

vagus

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31
Q

What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion associated with information from the mastoid region and auricle?

A

the spinal trigeminal nucleus

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32
Q

What is the classification of sensory fibers associated with taste?

A

special visceral afferent fibers

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33
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?

A

lingual nerve, mandibular division

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34
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the seventh cranial nerve?

A

chorda tympani

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35
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors in the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?

A

genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion

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36
Q

What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion which are associated with taste?

A

gustatory nuclues of the nucleus solitarius

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37
Q

What fluid separates the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth?

A

perilymph

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38
Q

What fluid is present within the membranous labyrinth?

A

endolymph

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39
Q

What makes up the vestibular apparatus?

A

the saccule, the utricle, and the semicircular ducts

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40
Q

How is sound or position converted into a neural impulse?

A

endolymph is displaced and alters the membrane of a specialized receptor cell

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41
Q

What are the specialized receptor cells for equilibrium called?

A

hair cells

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42
Q

receptor cells associated with equilibrium are located in elevations within what parts of the vestibular apparatus?

A

the saccule, the utricle, and the ampullae of the semicircular ducts

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43
Q

In what elevations of each part of the vestibular apparatus will receptor cells be identified?

A

the macula of the saccule, the macula of the utricle, the crista ampullaris of the ampullae of the semicircular ducts

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44
Q

what is unique to the receptor cells associated with equilibrium?

A

sterocillia and a single kinocilium

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45
Q

Peripheral sensory processes associated with equilibrium arise from what neurons?

A

bipolar neurons

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46
Q

Receptor cells associated with hearing are located in what structure?

A

the organ of Corti in the cochlear duct or scala media

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47
Q

What is the unique feature of receptor cells associated with hearing

A

stereocilia

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48
Q

Peripheral sensory processes associated with hearing arise from what neurons?

A

type I bipolar neurons

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49
Q

What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with hearing?

A

the spiral ganglion or cochlear ganglion

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50
Q

What is the visceral efferent nucleus of origin for the ninth cranial nerve?

A

inferior salivatory nucleus

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51
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are observed in what primary branch of the ninth cranial nerve?

A

tympanic nerve or nerve of Jacobson

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52
Q

The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will emerge from the middle cranial fossa to enter what region of the head?

A

the infra temporal region

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53
Q

Preganlionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in which ganglion?

A

oric ganglion or Arnold’s ganglion

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54
Q

Preganlionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the otic or Arnold’s ganglion will communicate with what other cranial nerve branch?

A

the auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal

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55
Q

The parasympathetic pathway from the ninth cranial nerve will innervate what target?

A

parotid gland

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56
Q

What is/are the target organ(s) monitoring blood pressure or blood physiology which are supplied by the ninth cranial nerve?

A

carotid body or carotid glomus and the carotid sinus

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57
Q

Central sensory processes from the ninth cranial nerve psuedounipolar neuron cell bodies monitoring general visceral sensation will synapse in what location of the brain?

A

cardiorespiratory nucleus of the nucleus soitarius

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58
Q

Periphreal sensory processes from the postsulcal (posterior one third) tongue are conveyed in which cranial nerve?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

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59
Q

Central sensory processes from taste receptors associated with the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in what location within the brain?

A

gustatory nucleus of the nucleus solitarius

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60
Q

Branchial efferent fibers conveyed in the tenth cranial nerve will innervate what target organ(s)?

A

muscles of the soft palate; constrictor muscles of the pharynx, cricothyroid muscle and palatoglossus muscle

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61
Q

What is/are the target organ(s) monitoring blood pressure or blood physiology supplied by the tenth cranial nerve?

A

aortic body or aortic glomus and the aortic arch

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62
Q

Peripheral sensory processes are derived from what neuron and location?

A

pseudounipolar afferent neurons of the dorsal nerve root ganglion

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63
Q

Nerve fibers are derived from what neuron and location?

A

multipilar efferent neurons of the lateral and ventral horns

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64
Q

What part of the primary afferent neuron will be located in each of the five parts of the peripheral nerve system as stressed in class?

A

peripheral sensory process - mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus/division, dorsal primary ramus/division

central sensory process - dorsal nerve root

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65
Q

What skeletal muscles are specifically interacted via dorsal primary rami/divisions?

A

splenius, erector spinar, transversospinalis, suboccipital, interspinalis, intertransversarii, and levator costarum

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66
Q

What skeletal muscles are interacted via both ventral primary rami/divisions?

A

all muscles of the neck, trunk, extremities, abdominal parietal wall, and pelvic parietal wall WITH THE EXCEPTION OF muscles innervated by cranial nerves IX, X, XI in the neck and the splenius, erector spinae, transversospinalis, suboccipital, interspinalis, and lavatory costarum

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67
Q

What are the subdivisions of the visceral division of the peripheral nerve system?

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic and enteric

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68
Q

What is the location from the enteric nerve system?

A

alone the gastrointestinal tract and organ system

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69
Q

What is the function of the enteric nerve system?

A

control of mobility, exocrine and endocrine secretions, microcitculation and regulation of the immune and inflammatory processes of the gastrointestinal tract and organ system

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70
Q

What are the locations for neurons of the enteric nerve system?

A

the myenteric plexus of Auerbach and the submucosal plexus of Meissner

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71
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?

A

peristaltic activity alone the gastrointestinal tract

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72
Q

Where is the submucosal plexus of Meissner?

A

glandular epithelium, the mescularis mucosa, intestinal endocrine cells and submucosal blood vessels

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73
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the submucosal pleas of Meissner?

A

influence on the process of secretion/absorption of the gut

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74
Q

The sacrococcygeal ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

S5 and Co1 paravertebral ganglia on one side

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75
Q

Which paravertebral ganglia fuse to form the ganglion impar?

A

both sacrococcygeal ganglia fuse in he midline, S5 and Co1 paravertebral ganglia on both sides fuse in the midline

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76
Q

Who is going to pass their Spinal 1 final?

A

YOU ARE!!! :-)

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77
Q

Most prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are associated why that non-vertebral features?

A

celiac, ganglion, superior mesenteric ganglion, and inferior mesenteric ganglion

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78
Q

Which of the prevertebral nerve plexuses are more likely to contain secondary sympathetic neuron cell bodies?

A

cardiac pelxus, pulmonary plexus, celiac plexus, and inferior hypogastric (pelvic) plexus

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79
Q

Based on the target cell innervated, what are the classifications given to post ganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?

A

vasomotor fiber, pilomotor fiber, sudomotor fiber, and secretomotor fiber

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80
Q

What nerve fibers will form the white ramus comminicans?

A

preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers

81
Q

what does the white ramus comminicans tie together?

A

the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion and the ventral primary nerve ramus

82
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic eferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attaches to the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?

A

gray ramus communicans

83
Q

What does the gray rams communicans tie together?

A

the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion and the ventral primary nerve ramus

84
Q

What nerve fibers will form the interganglionic rams communicans?

A

preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers which are myelinated

85
Q

What does the interganglionic rams communicans tie together?

A

paravertebral sympathetic ganglia

86
Q

What rami will communicate with the paravertebral ganglia?

A

white rami comminicans, gray rami communicans, interganglionic rami communicans, and splanchnic nerves

87
Q

What is the common sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

the part of the sympathetic pathway from the spinal cord level of origin to the paravertebral ganglion which corresponds to that cord level of origin

88
Q

What is the termination of the horizontal sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the thorax and upper abdomen; territory roughly corresponding to the T1-T12, L1-L2 dermatomes

89
Q

What is the termination of the ascending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the head, neck, and upper extremity

90
Q

In the ascending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a paravertebral ganglion higher than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

91
Q

What is the termination of the descending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle o glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremity

92
Q

In the descending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?

A

in a paravertebral ganglion lower than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

93
Q

What is the termination of the splanchnic/visceral sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the organs and blood vessels of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis

94
Q

In the splanchnic pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a prevertebral ganglion or prevertebral plexus

95
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the heart?

A

upper thoracic spinal cord levels T1 - T12 typically

96
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the head?

A

superior cervical ganglion

97
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the heart?

A

1) paravertebral ganglia of origin from T1 - T4, T5
2) any cervical paravertebral ganglion
3) the cardiac plexus

98
Q

What does the adrenal medulla represent embryologically?

A

a modified sympathetic pre vertebral ganglion

99
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the adrenal gland pathway?

A

chromatin cells of the adrenal medulla

100
Q

Which splanchnic nerves contain preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

nervi erigentes or pelvic splanchnic nerves

101
Q

What is the locations of the intramural parasympathetic ganglion?

A

on or in the wall of the target organ

102
Q

Do spinal nerves typically contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

no

103
Q

What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

it is a left side, anterior, medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement

104
Q

What will the intervertebral veins drain into?

A

the external vertebral venous plexus or Batson’s plexus

105
Q

What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?

A

they appear to lack valves

106
Q

What is the relationship between agin and cervical spine nerve root characteristics?

A

the length of the nerve root increases as it descends from its apparent origin on the spinal cord, but the cross-sectional area of the nerve root decreases

107
Q

What forms the lumbosacral tunnel?

A

The lumbosacral ligament, transverse processes of L5 and sacral ala

108
Q

What condition is the result of the encroachment on the L5 spinal nerve?

A

the far out syndrome

109
Q

What are some examples of destructive lesions of the vertebral body?

A

tuberculosis, hemangiomas, osteoporosis

110
Q

What are examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identifies in class?

A

obesity, pregnancy, and the use of backpacks

111
Q

Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column.

A

the 9 common ligaments are anterior longitudinal ligament, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament, and intertransverse ligament

112
Q

What is the consequence on non-aggregated glucosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus?

A

the nucleus pulposus will loose water under deformation conditions

113
Q

What cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age eleven?

A

notochord cells

114
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus?

A

collagen type II

115
Q

What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the nucleus pulposus?

A

they are irregularly oriented and randomly scattered

116
Q

What is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

it lacks any lamellar or layered organization

117
Q

What is the consequence of aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar annulus fibrosus?

A

the annulus fibrosis will retain water under deformation conditions

118
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant int he annulus fibrosus?

A

collagen type I

119
Q

What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus?

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellas and angled

120
Q

What is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae?

A

collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral - counterspiral organization is observed

121
Q

What is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate?

A

the type II collagen fiber

122
Q

What is the thinner part of the cartilage end plate?

A

the central part, over the nucleus pulposus

123
Q

What is the direction of the collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior and posterior

124
Q

What is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration?

A

changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate

125
Q

What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc?

A

nociceptors and proprioceptors

126
Q

What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

127
Q

What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?

A

the sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve), fibers from the ventral primary rams, fibers from the white rams communicans, fibers from the paradisiacal rams communicans, fibers from the gray rams communicans

128
Q

What nerve(s) have been shown to give off the sinus vertebral/sinu-vertebral/recurrent meningeal nerve?

A

the mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus, dorsal primary rams, gray ramus communicans, and white rams communicans have all been implicated

129
Q

What does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner become?

A

the perichondral disc

130
Q

What structure forms following migration and subsequent mixing of the sclerotomites?

A

the vertebral blastema

131
Q

What is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

132
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits dorsi-flextion of hyperextension of the vertebral column

133
Q

What was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identifies as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

134
Q

What is ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region now identified as?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

135
Q

Where is the ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?

A

the cervical spine with an 80% incidence

136
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

137
Q

At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

138
Q

What is the name given to the ligamentum flavum used on appearance and histology?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

139
Q

What fibers are most ligaments made up of?

A

collagen type 1 fibers which are whitish in appearance

140
Q

Where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified?

A

the thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

141
Q

What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the funicular layer or part

142
Q

What is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the lamellar layer or part

143
Q

What are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae, respectively?

A

the external occipital protuberance, external occipital crest, and spinous tubercle of C7

144
Q

What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

145
Q

Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?

A

the lumbar spine

146
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

147
Q

What forms the ventral slip of the in transverse ligament in the lumbar spine?

A

A membranous partition from the vertebral body covers the intervertebral foramen and extends back to the transverse process to form a ventral slip. It is penetrated by the contents of the intervertebral foramen

148
Q

What is ADI?

A

the Atlanto-Dental Interspace, a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

149
Q

What is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A

about 4.5mm in children; a range from 2-3mm or about 2.5mm in adults

150
Q

What are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint?

A

about 20 degrees flexion-extension, 40 degrees one side axial rotation, and 5 degrees of lateral bending

151
Q

The occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

A

about 60%

152
Q

Which ligaments replace the inter transverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint?

A

the iliolumbar ligament and lumbosacral ligament

153
Q

What is the attachment sites for the lumbosacral ligament?

A

the sacral ala and ventrolateral surface of sacrum attach to the transverse process of L5

154
Q

What does degenerative arthritis mean?

A

a condition of degeneration of the joint, sometimes referred to as degenerative joint disease (DJD)

155
Q

What does ankylosis mean?

A

a condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint

156
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with degenerative arthritis of the the sacra-iliac joint?

A

age 50 and male bias particularly in African American males

157
Q

What is the name given to the outline of the nasal cavity at the front of the skull?

A

piriform aperture

158
Q

What is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called?

A

the inion

159
Q

What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called?

A

the pterion

160
Q

What bones form the pterion?

A

parietal, temporal, sphenoid, and frontal bones

161
Q

What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the mastoid process called?

A

the asterion

162
Q

What bones form the asterion?

A

parietal, temporal, and occipital bones

163
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure the skull size

A

the nation, vertex, inion, and gnathion

164
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A

the nation, vertex, and inion

165
Q

What is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called?

A

the cruciate or cruciform suture

166
Q

What ostia are observed in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

cribriform plate, anterior and posterior ethmoid foramina and foramen cecum

167
Q

The olfactory nerve exits the cranial vault via what opening?

A

cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

168
Q

What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the middle cranial fossa?

A

sella turcica

169
Q

What are the parts of the sella turcica?

A

anterior clinoid processes, sphenodial jugum, posterior clinoid processes, dorsum sella, and hypophysial fossa of sphenoid bone

170
Q

Which cranial nerves exit the skull via middle cranial ross ostia?

A

cranial nerves II, III, IV, V, and VI

171
Q

What are the contents of the optic canal?

A

the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

172
Q

What are the contents of the superior orbital fissure?

A

the ophthalmic veins, the oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve

173
Q

Which single opening will allow the exit of the greatest number of cranial nerves?

A

the superior orbital fissure

174
Q

What are the contents of the foramen rotundum?

A

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve Vb)

175
Q

What are the contents of the foramen ovale?

A

the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (Vc) and the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

176
Q

What are the contents of the foramen spinosum?

A

the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the missile meningeal artery

177
Q

What are the contents of the foramen lacerum?

A

the internal carotid artery, the carotid sympathetic nerve plexus, and a venous plexus

178
Q

What forms the roof of the the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the tentorium cerebelli

179
Q

What part of the cerebrum occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A

none, the tentorium cerebella separates the cerebrum into a space above the posterior cranial fossa

180
Q

Which cranial nerves exit posterior cranial fossa ostia?

A

cranial nerve VII (facial), VIII (vestibulocochlear/auditory) IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (spinal accessory) and XII (hypoglossal)

181
Q

Which single opening will allow the exit of the creates number of cranial nerves from the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the jugular foramen

182
Q

What can the five layers of the scalp spell?

A

Skin, Connective tissue, Aponerurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum… SCALP

183
Q

What are the major constituents of the the five layers of the scalp?

A

skin, neurovascular, muscular, loose connective tissue, periosteum

184
Q

What is the third layer of the scalp associated with?

A

muscular component of the scalp

185
Q

WHat muscles are specifically associated with the scalp?

A

frontalis and occipitalis bellies of the epicranius muscle

186
Q

The bellies of the epicranius muscle are connected by what structure?

A

galea aponeurotica

187
Q

What unusual/unique about the musles of the face?

A

they do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin and insertion

188
Q

Which muscles lack attachment to bone?

A

orbiularis oris, procerus and risorius

189
Q

What nerve is the great motor nerve of the face?

A

facial nerve

190
Q

The primary source of sensory innervation from the face is the ____ nerve

A

trigeminal

191
Q

What landmark forms the apex of the orbit?

A

convergence of the superior orbital fissure and inferior orbital fissure

192
Q

What opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

optic canal

193
Q

What is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lamina papyracea

194
Q

What opening(s) are located along the lateral all of the orbit?

A

superior orbital fissure

195
Q

What opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

inferior orbital fissure

196
Q

What are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid?

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland

197
Q

What is the name of the modified sebaceous gland at the base of the eyelash?

A

ciliary gland

198
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

199
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of targets in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasodilatation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen; constriction of myoepithelial cells leading to release of product from secretory lumen into duct system

Spinal Anatomy 2 (5 decks)

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