Exam 1 Flashcards
What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?
Collagen type 1
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
Glycosaminoglycan
What is the most frequent described deposit in bone?
Hydroxyapatite
What is wolfs law as it pertains to bone?
Living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress.
What are the 3 responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?
It has the ability to heal, remodel under stressors and to age
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
Intramembranous ossification
WhAt is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
From the second to third month in utero
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
Endochondral ossification
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
From the second to fifth month utero
What part of the skull is devised from Endochondral ossification?
Chondrocranium
Which skull bones are ossified by both Endochondral and intramembranous ossification
The mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones.
What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both Endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
The clavicle
What are the names given the the parts of a long bone
The diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
What are examples of short bones
Most of the bones of carpus and tarsus
What are examples of pneumatic bone
Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone
The bone develops within a tendon
What are consistent exampls of sesamoid bones
Patella and pisiform
What are the four basic surface feature categories
Elevation, depression, tunnels or passageways and facets
What are the types of Osseous linear elevations
The line, ridge and crest
What are the types of rounded Osseous elevations
Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
What is the categories of sharp Osseous elevations
Spine And process
What are the categories of Osseous linear depressions
Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
What are the categories of rounded Osseous depressions
The fovea and fossa
What are the names given to the openings on the surface of bone?
Ostium or orifice and hiatus
What is the definition of an Osseous foramen
An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone
What is the definition of and osseous canal
An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
What is the definition of an osseous meatus
A blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone
What is the definition of an Osseous fissure
An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets
Articulate heads and articulate condyles
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible
The cranium
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull
28 bones
How many bones from the typical neurocranium
8 bones
How many bones from the facial skeleton
14 bones
What are the classifications of Ribs 3-7
Typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs
What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton
Atypical ribs, true ribs, cost verae, and vertebrosternal ribs
What are the classification of ribs 8 and 9 I the typical adult
Typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs
What are the classifications of rib 10 I the typical adult skeleton
Atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs
What are the classifications of ribs 11 and 12 In The typical adult
Atypical, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs
What is the term used for the study of joints
Arthrology
What is the term used to identify the study of ligaments
Syndesmology
What are the three histological classifications of joints
Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial
What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis
What are the 4 subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings
Suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis
What are the characteristics of sutura Vera/true sutures
Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification
What were the classifications of sutura Vera/true sutures based on Latin groupings
Serrate, denticulate and limbous
What are the characteristics of sutura notha/false sutures
Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by Endochondral ossification
What were the classifications of sutura notha/false sutures based on Latin grouping
Squamous and harmonia
What is the synonym used to identify the synarthrosis joint type
Fibrous joints
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth
Malocclusion
The fibrous connective tissue holding the seams of the skull together are called
Sutural ligaments
What is the name of the location at the top of the skull where intramembraneous ossification centers have not yet united
Fontanelles
What is the name given to the remnant of the anterior Fontanelle in the adult skull
Bregma
What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries
Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema
What is the name given to the remnant of the posterior Fontanelle in the adult skull
Lambda
which suture classefication demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics
limbous suture
sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as?
harmonia
which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance
schindylesis
what are examples of temporary cartilage joints
metaphysis, neuro-central joints, neural arch joint and chondrocranium
what are examples of a permanent (ampiarthrosis) synchondrosis
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
what type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
what are the characteristics of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bone developing by endochondral ossification.
which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary
symphysis menti
what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
what generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament
intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
whar are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”
what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors
they resemble pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.
what are the characteristics of type III articular receptors
resemble golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
type IVa articular receptors would be present in what location
fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels
type IVb articular receptors would be present in what location
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane
synovial villi, artifular fat pads or haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
what is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane
aid in spreading of synovial fluid
what is the locatoin of a subcutaneous synovial bursa
bursa between integument and bone
what is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa
bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage
what are the specific function s of type A synovial cells
are phagocytic
what is the specific function of type B synovial cells
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
what is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells
formation and absorption of synovial fluid
what is the architecture of the largest proteoglycans
a backbone of hyaluronic acid to which core proteins are bound, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfates are bound to the core protein
what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage
forms a network for water retention
what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties
cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
what is imlied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent propery
identify the three theories of joint lubrication
- weeping theory
2 boosted theory - boundary theory
describe weeping theory
implies fluid lost form cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
describe boosted theory
implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
describe boundary theory
implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed.
what are the properties of synovial fluid
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
what substance in synovial fluid has been proposed ot be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior
hyaluronate
what substance of synovial fluid has been propsed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior
lubricin
what is a dialysate
a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane
what is transudate
any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane
what is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)
more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)
the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disk or meniscus
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial
(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar
what are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints
mediam atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
what is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints
an osseous pivot point and an oseo-ligamentous ring
what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints
temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints
femur-acetabulum of innominate articulation of the hip and the humorous-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation of the shoulder
at what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate
the c3/c4 intervertebral disc at thge upper boarder of the thyroid cartilage
what are the regions/diovisions of the internal carotid artery
cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral
what is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid arthery
carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone
whaqt accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa
cavernous dural venous sinus
what branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text
the opthalmic artery
what are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery
vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
what is the location of origin of the axillary artery
at the outer border of the first rib
what is the segmental branch of the axillary artery
supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery
what branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text
posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries
what parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text
lumbar and median sacral arteries
what branches of the internal iliac stressed in the text
iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries
what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery
what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
what vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein
superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein
what does the superior opthalmic vein drain into
the angular vein and the cavernous dural venous sinus
what will the inferior opthalmic vein drain into
the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus
what will the cavernous dural venous sinus drain into
the inferior petrosal dural venous sinus and superior petrosal dural venous sinus
differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation
ontogenetic variation
what is the length of typical male spinal column
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
what is the length of a typical female spinal column
about 60 centimeters or 25 inches
what is the length difference between a typical male and typical spinal column
about 3 inches
based on the number of individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)
about 58 centimeters or 23 inches
how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer
s1-s3 at the auricular surface
what specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame
comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc
what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
what are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra
the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions
what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine
cervical-rectangular; thoracic-triangular; lumbar- reniform
what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of teh vertebral body
ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim
what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body
the basivertebral venous foramen
what is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called
the vertebral arch
what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine
cervical-posterolateral
thoracic-posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior
what ligament will attach to the lamina
the ligamentum flavum
what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum
para-articular process
what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent
accessory bone
what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray
shingling
what is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine
cervical-articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis
what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch- spinous process on lateral x-ray
the spinolaminar junction
what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine
cervical-anterolateral; thoracic-posterolateral; lumbar-lateral
all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature
the costal element
what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
what is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the prezygapophysis
the superior articular process for superior articular apophysis
what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the inferior articular process/post -zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
what is the method of calculation the angle of the spinous process/spinous apopyhysis
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane
what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray
imbrication
what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine
cervical-slight angle inferiorly
thoracic-noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar-no inferior angle
what neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2
the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges
what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column
cervical-triangular; thoracic-oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum-triangular
identify the meninges of the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each
dura mater-tough mother; arachnoid mater- spider mother; pia mater- tender or delicate mother
which meningeal space is now thought to be potential space, not an actual space
subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
which of the content of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space
interstitial fluid
what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space
cerebrospinal fluid
what branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region
dorsospinal artery
which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery
the vertebral artery
the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries
Removes excess plasma protein from the interstitial space and prevent edema
What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text
They begin as blind-ended sacs, have a great luminal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in luminal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries
How do the lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins
More numerous, possess more valves and anastomoses more frequently than veins
what are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system
right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
what parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain
the right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
what is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct
L2 from the cisterna chyli
what is the cistern chyli
a triangular dilation formed from the union of the intestinal, abdominal and lumbar trunks
what part of the body will the thoracic duct drain
the left side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, the left upper extremity, left lung, most of the liver, the remainder of the abdominal content, all pelvic contents and both lower extremities
what are the lymphatic organs
lymph nodules, lymph nodes (lymph glands), spleen and thymus
what will form the lymph nodule
migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus
are the lymph nodules encapsulated
no
what forms an aggregate lymph nodule
the union of several solitary lymph nodules
what are examples of aggregate lymph nodules
peyers patch of the small intestine and the tonsils
what are the functions of lymph nodules
lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response
what are the function of lymph nodes
they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response
as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel
posterior medullary feeder arteries
what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6
a median anterior soinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord
ventral/ central/sulcal perforating arteries
what arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord
pial perforating arteries
which vessels form the venous vasa corona
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called
filum terminale internum
what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
what is a generic cord level origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar.lumbosarcral enlargement
L1,L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris
typically S4, S5, and Co1
in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed
L1
neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminale
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
what is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum
it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram
cruciate anastomosis
what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2
filum terminale externum
what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges
coccygeal medullary vestige
what is the name given to the condition where the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened
tethered cord syndrome
at the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number
in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). in the thoracic spine, lumbar spine, and sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (C01 nerve is the exception to this rule). c3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3; T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7
what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
what accounts for the direction fo the typical cervical curve
the intervertebral disc height
at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disk height
C5/C6
what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate process
what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip or uncus
what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
what is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint
what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulatoin
modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint
what is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation
cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint
how many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body
five
how many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body
five
how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical
ten
how many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical
four
what joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical
anterior groove, posterior groove, right uncinate process, left uncinate process, spongy bone, anterior lip, posterior lip, right lateral groove, left lateral groove, spongy bone
what other term is used to identify the uncinate process
unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncut, lateral lip
what is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
the joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces
the uncinate process and lateral groove
what muscle attaches to teh typical cervical vertebral body
the longus colli muscle
what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical
posterolateral, 45 degrees
what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical
ligamentum flavum
what joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachment
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature
para-articular process
ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone
accessory bone
what is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebra
heart-shaped or triangular
what soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen
the transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord
the greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at____?
C6
the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with teh vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple
C5/C6
list, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
what muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra
anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscle
what muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra
splenius cervicis, illiocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransverse muscle
what muscles will attach to teh costotransverse bar
middle scalene and posterior inter transverse muscle
what produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anterolateral and inferior directions
cervical spinal nerves as they are directed anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses
what is the namegiven to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar
sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process
60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagital plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)
what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process
the carotid tubercle
what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen
the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers
what is the name of the lamina-pedical junction of typical cervical vertebrae
the articular piliar
what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar
the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
what nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae
the medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
recent work suggests what angulation for a typical cervical articular facets
fifty-five to sixty degrees
what is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facets
backward, upward, medial (BUM)
what is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet
forward, lateral, down (FoLD)
what muscle will attach to typical cervical articular process
the longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators
what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophysis
Semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus
what modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine
meniscoidal folds
what function will meniscoidal folds provide in cervical zygapophyses
they are assumed to distribute pressure across the joint surface
the greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?
typically C5/C6
what motions are coupled in the cervical spine
lateral bending and axial rotation
Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couple
the C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples
ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple
the C5/C6 vertebral couple
What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process
they are non-bifid
what muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process
the spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators, and interspinalis
what ligaments will attach to the typical cervical spinous process
the interspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae
what will form the unique anterior boundary of a typical cervical intervertebral foramen
the uncinate process of the segment below and lateral groove of the segment above forms the joint of Luschka
what forms the unique anterior boundary of the intervertebral foramen for the C4 spinal nerve
the lateral groove of C3 and uncinate process of C4 forming the joint of Luschka
