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Spinal Anatomy 2 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type 1

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1
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycan

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2
Q

What is the most frequent described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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3
Q

What is wolfs law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress.

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4
Q

What are the 3 responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, remodel under stressors and to age

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5
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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6
Q

WhAt is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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7
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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8
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month utero

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9
Q

What part of the skull is devised from Endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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10
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both Endochondral and intramembranous ossification

A

The mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones.

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11
Q

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both Endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

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12
Q

What are the names given the the parts of a long bone

A

The diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

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13
Q

What are examples of short bones

A

Most of the bones of carpus and tarsus

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14
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

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15
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone

A

The bone develops within a tendon

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16
Q

What are consistent exampls of sesamoid bones

A

Patella and pisiform

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17
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories

A

Elevation, depression, tunnels or passageways and facets

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18
Q

What are the types of Osseous linear elevations

A

The line, ridge and crest

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19
Q

What are the types of rounded Osseous elevations

A

Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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20
Q

What is the categories of sharp Osseous elevations

A

Spine And process

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21
Q

What are the categories of Osseous linear depressions

A

Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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22
Q

What are the categories of rounded Osseous depressions

A

The fovea and fossa

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23
Q

What are the names given to the openings on the surface of bone?

A

Ostium or orifice and hiatus

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24
Q

What is the definition of an Osseous foramen

A

An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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25
Q

What is the definition of and osseous canal

A

An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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26
Q

What is the definition of an osseous meatus

A

A blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

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27
Q

What is the definition of an Osseous fissure

A

An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones

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28
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets

A

Articulate heads and articulate condyles

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29
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible

A

The cranium

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30
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull

A

28 bones

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31
Q

How many bones from the typical neurocranium

A

8 bones

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32
Q

How many bones from the facial skeleton

A

14 bones

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33
Q

What are the classifications of Ribs 3-7

A

Typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

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34
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton

A

Atypical ribs, true ribs, cost verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

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35
Q

What are the classification of ribs 8 and 9 I the typical adult

A

Typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

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36
Q

What are the classifications of rib 10 I the typical adult skeleton

A

Atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

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37
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 11 and 12 In The typical adult

A

Atypical, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs

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38
Q

What is the term used for the study of joints

A

Arthrology

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39
Q

What is the term used to identify the study of ligaments

A

Syndesmology

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40
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

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41
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential

A

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis

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42
Q

What are the 4 subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings

A

Suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of sutura Vera/true sutures

A

Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification

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44
Q

What were the classifications of sutura Vera/true sutures based on Latin groupings

A

Serrate, denticulate and limbous

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45
Q

What are the characteristics of sutura notha/false sutures

A

Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by Endochondral ossification

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46
Q

What were the classifications of sutura notha/false sutures based on Latin grouping

A

Squamous and harmonia

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47
Q

What is the synonym used to identify the synarthrosis joint type

A

Fibrous joints

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48
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth

A

Malocclusion

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49
Q

The fibrous connective tissue holding the seams of the skull together are called

A

Sutural ligaments

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50
Q

What is the name of the location at the top of the skull where intramembraneous ossification centers have not yet united

A

Fontanelles

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52
Q

What is the name given to the remnant of the anterior Fontanelle in the adult skull

A

Bregma

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53
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries

A

Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

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54
Q

What is the name given to the remnant of the posterior Fontanelle in the adult skull

A

Lambda

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55
Q

which suture classefication demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics

A

limbous suture

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56
Q

sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as?

A

harmonia

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57
Q

which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance

A

schindylesis

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58
Q

what are examples of temporary cartilage joints

A

metaphysis, neuro-central joints, neural arch joint and chondrocranium

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59
Q

what are examples of a permanent (ampiarthrosis) synchondrosis

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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60
Q

what type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

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61
Q

what are the characteristics of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bone developing by endochondral ossification.

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62
Q

which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary

A

symphysis menti

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63
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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64
Q

what generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

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65
Q

whar are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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66
Q

what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors

A

they resemble pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.

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67
Q

what are the characteristics of type III articular receptors

A

resemble golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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68
Q

type IVa articular receptors would be present in what location

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

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69
Q

type IVb articular receptors would be present in what location

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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70
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

synovial villi, artifular fat pads or haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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71
Q

what is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

aid in spreading of synovial fluid

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72
Q

what is the locatoin of a subcutaneous synovial bursa

A

bursa between integument and bone

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73
Q

what is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa

A

bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

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74
Q

what are the specific function s of type A synovial cells

A

are phagocytic

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75
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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76
Q

what is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells

A

formation and absorption of synovial fluid

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77
Q

what is the architecture of the largest proteoglycans

A

a backbone of hyaluronic acid to which core proteins are bound, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfates are bound to the core protein

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78
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage

A

forms a network for water retention

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79
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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80
Q

what is imlied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent propery

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81
Q

identify the three theories of joint lubrication

A
  1. weeping theory
    2 boosted theory
  2. boundary theory
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82
Q

describe weeping theory

A

implies fluid lost form cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film

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83
Q

describe boosted theory

A

implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid

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84
Q

describe boundary theory

A

implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed.

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85
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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86
Q

what substance in synovial fluid has been proposed ot be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

hyaluronate

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87
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been propsed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

lubricin

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88
Q

what is a dialysate

A

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

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89
Q

what is transudate

A

any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane

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90
Q

what is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

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91
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disk or meniscus

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92
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial

A

(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid

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93
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar

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94
Q

what are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints

A

mediam atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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95
Q

what is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints

A

an osseous pivot point and an oseo-ligamentous ring

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96
Q

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

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97
Q

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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98
Q

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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99
Q

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints

A

femur-acetabulum of innominate articulation of the hip and the humorous-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation of the shoulder

100
Q

at what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate

A

the c3/c4 intervertebral disc at thge upper boarder of the thyroid cartilage

101
Q

what are the regions/diovisions of the internal carotid artery

A

cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral

102
Q

what is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid arthery

A

carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

103
Q

whaqt accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa

A

cavernous dural venous sinus

104
Q

what branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text

A

the opthalmic artery

105
Q

what are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery

A

vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

106
Q

what is the location of origin of the axillary artery

A

at the outer border of the first rib

107
Q

what is the segmental branch of the axillary artery

A

supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

108
Q

what branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text

A

posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries

109
Q

what parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text

A

lumbar and median sacral arteries

110
Q

what branches of the internal iliac stressed in the text

A

iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

111
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

112
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

113
Q

what vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein

A

superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

114
Q

what does the superior opthalmic vein drain into

A

the angular vein and the cavernous dural venous sinus

115
Q

what will the inferior opthalmic vein drain into

A

the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

116
Q

what will the cavernous dural venous sinus drain into

A

the inferior petrosal dural venous sinus and superior petrosal dural venous sinus

117
Q

differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation

A

ontogenetic variation

118
Q

what is the length of typical male spinal column

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

119
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

120
Q

what is the length difference between a typical male and typical spinal column

A

about 3 inches

121
Q

based on the number of individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches

122
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

123
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer

A

s1-s3 at the auricular surface

124
Q

what specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

125
Q

what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

126
Q

what are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra

A

the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

127
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine

A

cervical-rectangular; thoracic-triangular; lumbar- reniform

128
Q

what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of teh vertebral body

A

ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

129
Q

what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

130
Q

what is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called

A

the vertebral arch

131
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine

A

cervical-posterolateral
thoracic-posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

132
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina

A

the ligamentum flavum

133
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum

A

para-articular process

134
Q

what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent

A

accessory bone

135
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray

A

shingling

136
Q

what is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine

A

cervical-articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

137
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch- spinous process on lateral x-ray

A

the spinolaminar junction

138
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine

A

cervical-anterolateral; thoracic-posterolateral; lumbar-lateral

139
Q

all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature

A

the costal element

140
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

141
Q

what is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the prezygapophysis

A

the superior articular process for superior articular apophysis

142
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the inferior articular process/post -zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

143
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

144
Q

what is the method of calculation the angle of the spinous process/spinous apopyhysis

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

145
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray

A

imbrication

146
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine

A

cervical-slight angle inferiorly
thoracic-noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar-no inferior angle

147
Q

what neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2

A

the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges

148
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column

A

cervical-triangular; thoracic-oval; lumbar- triangular; sacrum-triangular

149
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

dura mater-tough mother; arachnoid mater- spider mother; pia mater- tender or delicate mother

150
Q

which meningeal space is now thought to be potential space, not an actual space

A

subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

151
Q

which of the content of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

152
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

153
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space

A

interstitial fluid

154
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space

A

cerebrospinal fluid

155
Q

what branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region

A

dorsospinal artery

156
Q

which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

157
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery

A

the vertebral artery

158
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

159
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries

A

Removes excess plasma protein from the interstitial space and prevent edema

160
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text

A

They begin as blind-ended sacs, have a great luminal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in luminal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries

161
Q

How do the lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins

A

More numerous, possess more valves and anastomoses more frequently than veins

162
Q

what are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system

A

right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

163
Q

what parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain

A

the right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver

164
Q

what is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

165
Q

what is the cistern chyli

A

a triangular dilation formed from the union of the intestinal, abdominal and lumbar trunks

166
Q

what part of the body will the thoracic duct drain

A

the left side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, the left upper extremity, left lung, most of the liver, the remainder of the abdominal content, all pelvic contents and both lower extremities

167
Q

what are the lymphatic organs

A

lymph nodules, lymph nodes (lymph glands), spleen and thymus

168
Q

what will form the lymph nodule

A

migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus

169
Q

are the lymph nodules encapsulated

A

no

170
Q

what forms an aggregate lymph nodule

A

the union of several solitary lymph nodules

171
Q

what are examples of aggregate lymph nodules

A

peyers patch of the small intestine and the tonsils

172
Q

what are the functions of lymph nodules

A

lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response

173
Q

what are the function of lymph nodes

A

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response

174
Q

as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

175
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

176
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6

A

a median anterior soinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

177
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord

A

ventral/ central/sulcal perforating arteries

178
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord

A

pial perforating arteries

179
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

180
Q

what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called

A

filum terminale internum

181
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

182
Q

what is a generic cord level origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar.lumbosarcral enlargement

A

L1,L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

183
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

184
Q

in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed

A

L1

185
Q

neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminale

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

186
Q

what is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

187
Q

the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram

A

cruciate anastomosis

188
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2

A

filum terminale externum

189
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

190
Q

what is the name given to the condition where the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened

A

tethered cord syndrome

191
Q

at the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number

A

in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). in the thoracic spine, lumbar spine, and sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (C01 nerve is the exception to this rule). c3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3; T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7

192
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

193
Q

what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

194
Q

what accounts for the direction fo the typical cervical curve

A

the intervertebral disc height

195
Q

at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disk height

A

C5/C6

196
Q

what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate process

197
Q

what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip or uncus

198
Q

what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

199
Q

what is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint

200
Q

what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulatoin

A

modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint

201
Q

what is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint

202
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body

A

five

203
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body

A

five

204
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical

A

ten

205
Q

how many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical

A

four

206
Q

what joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right uncinate process, left uncinate process, spongy bone, anterior lip, posterior lip, right lateral groove, left lateral groove, spongy bone

207
Q

what other term is used to identify the uncinate process

A

unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncut, lateral lip

208
Q

what is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

209
Q

the joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces

A

the uncinate process and lateral groove

210
Q

what muscle attaches to teh typical cervical vertebral body

A

the longus colli muscle

211
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

212
Q

what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical

A

ligamentum flavum

213
Q

what joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachment

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

214
Q

ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature

A

para-articular process

215
Q

ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone

A

accessory bone

216
Q

what is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebra

A

heart-shaped or triangular

217
Q

what soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen

A

the transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord

218
Q

the greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at____?

A

C6

219
Q

the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with teh vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple

A

C5/C6

220
Q

list, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

221
Q

what muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscle

222
Q

what muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra

A

splenius cervicis, illiocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransverse muscle

223
Q

what muscles will attach to teh costotransverse bar

A

middle scalene and posterior inter transverse muscle

224
Q

what produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anterolateral and inferior directions

A

cervical spinal nerves as they are directed anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses

225
Q

what is the namegiven to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

226
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagital plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

227
Q

what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process

A

the carotid tubercle

228
Q

what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen

A

the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

229
Q

what is the name of the lamina-pedical junction of typical cervical vertebrae

A

the articular piliar

230
Q

what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

231
Q

what nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae

A

the medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

232
Q

recent work suggests what angulation for a typical cervical articular facets

A

fifty-five to sixty degrees

233
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facets

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

234
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet

A

forward, lateral, down (FoLD)

235
Q

what muscle will attach to typical cervical articular process

A

the longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

236
Q

what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophysis

A

Semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

237
Q

what modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine

A

meniscoidal folds

238
Q

what function will meniscoidal folds provide in cervical zygapophyses

A

they are assumed to distribute pressure across the joint surface

239
Q

the greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

typically C5/C6

240
Q

what motions are coupled in the cervical spine

A

lateral bending and axial rotation

241
Q

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couple

A

the C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples

242
Q

ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple

A

the C5/C6 vertebral couple

243
Q

What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process

A

they are non-bifid

244
Q

what muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process

A

the spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators, and interspinalis

245
Q

what ligaments will attach to the typical cervical spinous process

A

the interspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae

246
Q

what will form the unique anterior boundary of a typical cervical intervertebral foramen

A

the uncinate process of the segment below and lateral groove of the segment above forms the joint of Luschka

247
Q

what forms the unique anterior boundary of the intervertebral foramen for the C4 spinal nerve

A

the lateral groove of C3 and uncinate process of C4 forming the joint of Luschka

Spinal Anatomy 2 (5 decks)

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